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Braindumps for "000-355" Exam

Study Material

 

Question 1.
Users are reporting long response time delays in transactions that previously would run with unscald response. The system administrator knows these transactions are RPG IV-SQL based programs. Which of the following would be the first set in determining the problems.

A. Use Management Central to start a job monitor for system and select the SQL submonitor
display.
B. Use iSeries Navigator, SQL Performance Monitor to collect and analyze the SQL
performance of the jobs.
C. Start debug on one of the on-line jobs and use Performance Explorer to analyze the jobs
database access plan.
D. Use iSeries Navigator to create a database map of the tables used in the transactions and
watch for high I/O rates.

Answer: B

Question 2.
Using the example below, what is the cumulative PTF level of the system?
Display PTF status.
System: ANYSYS.
Product ID………….. 5722999
IPL source…………... ## MACH#B Release of base option ……..V5R1M0.LOO.
PTF IPL Opt ID Status Action.
TL02134 Temporarily applied None.
TL02071 Permanently applied None.
TL01226 Superseded None.
RE01066 Permanently Applied None.
QLL2924 Permanently Applied None.
MF29379 Permanently Applied None.
MF29287 Permanently Applied None.

A. TL02071
B. TL02134
C. RE01066
D. MF29379

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following should be considered when preparing for a release upgrade?

A. User changes made to IBM supplied commands.
B. Valid license information for the current release.
C. Presence of user libraries after QSYS in the system library list.
D. Installation of the latest cumulative package for the current release.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Job description FREDJOBD has public authority of USE. This job description specifies that jobs run under user profile FRED. Which has public authority EXCLUDE*. Use profile SUE is user class USER* with default special authorities and does not have specific authority to use profile FRED.

User which security levels would user profile SUE be able to successfully submit a job using PREDJOBD with the intent to run the job under user profile FRED?

A. At 20 only.
B. At 20 and 30.
C. At 20, 30, and 40.
D. At 20,30,40, and 50.

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which of the following commands will save all objects in the IFS?

A. SAV
B. SAVDLO
C. SAVLIB “IFS”
D. SAVLIB NONSYS.

Answer: A

Question 6.
What command is used to save the IFS to taps?

A. SAV
B. SAVRST
C. SAVDLO DLO (IFS)
D. SAVSYS OBJTYPE (IFS).

Answer: A

Question 7.
On an iSeries running V5R2, which of the following authorities needs to be removed from an object to ensure that the object owner cannot delete it?

A. Object alter authority.
B. Object existence authority.
C. Object Management authority.
D. Object operational authority.

Answer: B

Question 8.
A system administrator needs to add 100 users to a V6R2 system without impacting response times, Which of the following would be the first step in determining the current performance of the system?

A. Define a performance collection agent in iDoctor for iSeries.
B. Define a performance collection object within iSeries navigator.
C. Use Performance Explorer to collect generalized performance data.
D. Use the Workdoad Estimator to show existing performance constraints.

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which of the following can have an impact on determining the interactive workload requirements of an iSeries?

A. Active subsystems.
B. Active controllers.
C. Active user profiles.
D. Active display sessions.

Answer: D

Question 10.
A Manufacturing company has three remote sites and a total of six distributed AS/400 systems.
The company would like to accomplish the followings.

A. Centralize to a single system.
B. Maintain each system workload and identity attributes.
C. Reduce the total cost of ownership of maintaining individual systems.
D. Maintain existing performance levels.

Answer:

Question 11.
Which of the following would the most viable course of action?

A. Implement High Availability and replicate each system to a single system.
B. Implement LPAR on a centrally located system and consolidate the individual systems onto
multiple partitions.
C. Transfer all systems to the central location and create an iSeries cluster to form a single
“logical” system.
D; Consolidate all the systems into a single partition on a system with a CPW rating that matches
or exceeds the accumulated CPW of the individual systems.

Answer: B

Question 12.
Which of the following disk drive considerations has the greatest impact on system performance?

A. Number of disk drives on a bus.
B. User versus available disk space.
C. Data protection method (RAID verses mirroring).
D. Peak rate of disk requests versus the number of disk arms.

Answer: D

Question 13.
Which system performance command can send output to both the online serene and a database file simultaneously.

A. WRKSYSACT
B. WRKACTJOB
C. WRKDSKSTS.
D. WRKSYSSTS.

Answer: A

Question 14.
Which of the following can be adjusted daily by a scheduled job to maximize interactive or bath throughput?

A. Memory pools.
B. QACTJOB system value.
C. Auxiliary storage pools.
D. QMAXACTLVL system value.

Answer: A

Question 15.
An iSeries Administrator would like to monitor the performance of all four of the machines in the data center at one time. If a certain level of interactive CPU is reached, the administrator wants to receive an email. What needs to be done to satisfy the requirements.

A. In Management Central, set up a system group monitor job with a threshold action.
B. In iSeries Navigator create endpoints for each of the systems and set up a threshold job
monitor.
C. Add an exit program to the WRKACTJOB command to intercept the CPU statistics and
process the email.
D. Start PM/400 and use the PM/400 notification options to send the email when the threshold is
reached.

Answer: A.

Question 16.
Which of the following will enable an administrator to establish an ongoing analysis of the performance and utilization of an iSeries.

A. Upload the performance data to the IBM workload Estimator.
B. Activate Performance Manage/400 to automatically upload data to IBM.
C. Enable PPP communications between the iSeries and the IBM Benchmark Center.
D. Utilize the no-charge OS/400 performance analysis tools to print monthly reports.

Answer: B

Question 17.
On a system that does not have Performance Tools for iSeries (5722-PTI), how can performance data be collected for analysis on a different system that has Performance Tools installed.

A. Use Electronic Service Agent for iSeries.
B. Use the Start Performances Monitor command.
C. Start a Performance Monitor in iSeries Navigator.
D. Install and run OS/400 product option 42, performance Collection Client.

Answer: C

Question 18.
A system administrator wants to collect performance data for multiple iSeries servers in a network. When attempting to start performance collection using iSeries Navigator, collection services fail. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem.

A. The Management Central, central system is not connecting.
B. Performance Tools (5722.PTI) is not installed on all systems.
C. The user profile being used to start collection does not have *SYSADM special authority.
D. The Management Central performance collector plug-in is not installed in iSeries Navigator.

Answer: A

Question 19.
An iSeries server with Domino and Websphere Commerce Suite installed is performing well, except when the Domino or Websphere servers are starting.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance problem.

A. Job Queue ASERVER in subsystem ASERVER is set to single thread jobs.
B. The activity level in the shared pool running the servers is too low.
C. The managing Domino server instance is not started prior to the Websphere server instance.
D. The system value QMLTTHDACN(Multithreaded job action) is set to stop nonthread safe
processes.

Answer: B

Question 20.
A batch subsystem is established to run jobs from multiple queues, An application submits two jobs to each queue. All jobs are in release status. Which of the following is the reason that only three jobs have started to run?

A. The total MAXACT for all of the job queue entries is three.
B. Only three of the job queue priorities have been defined in the subsystem.
C. The activity level setting associated with the subsystem description is 3.
D. The execution of the pending jobs, is governed within the application of the jobs currently
running.

Answer: A

Question 21.
A system administrator would like to change the message logging for a job currently running.
Which command will provide this ability?

A. CHGJOB
B. CHGCLS
C. CHGJOBD
D. CHGSBSD.

Answer: A

Question 22.
Where is the priority of a job initially defined?

A. In the associated user profile.
B. In the associated job description.
C. In the associated job class description.
D. In the subsystem description of the job.

Answer: C

Question 23.
A system administrator wants to verify that the last power down sequence for the system was normal. What system value would provide this information?

A. QIPLSTS.
B. QIPLTYPE.
C. QABNORMSW
D. QSCPECONS.

Answer: C

Question 24.
During routine observation of the System an iSeries administrator notes that “BASE” system pool is showing significant (100) Wait to Ineligible and Active to Ineligible transitions. The only change that occurred to the system recently is the addition of a company intranet application.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problems?

A. The Host on Demand sessions for the intranet application are timing out and looping.
B; The subsystem QHTTPSVR is still running in “BASE” pool and is starting up HTTP servers.
C. Both subsystems QHTTPSVR and QSERVER are active at once, causing Java EJBs to run in
both subsystems.
D. The iSeries Java IJK was not initialized during installation so all of the Java objects are
decompressed each time they are used.

Answer: B

Question 25.
An i820 is running at 10)% CPU, and interactive response time is very poor. Batch throughput is nearly normal but only using 15% of the system. What should the system administrator do to find the course of the problems?

A. Use the WRKSYSACT to see if the CFIN Txx tasks are consuming all of the CPUS resources.
B. Use the PM / 400 status screens to see which job is using the system and lower its priority.
C. Use iSeries Navigator to monitor the subsystems to see which jobs are consuming the system.
D. Use WRKSYSSTS to determine if the Active to Wait transitions in the interactive pool exceed
the IMM recommendations.

Answer: A

Question 26.
How can a system administrator identify who is running QZDASOINIT jobs that are using significant system recourses?

A. Use WRKUSRJOB. All users, job type server.
B. Use WRKACTJOB, subsystem, QUSRWRK< the user column.
C. Use iSeries Navigator, basic operations, jobs, servers.
D. In iSeries Navigator, work management, server jobs, use the current user column.

Answer: D

Question 27.
An iSeries machine is configured with three partitions, tow OS/400 partitions, and one Linux partition which is a guest of the primary partition. The system is experiencing very high fault and page rates in the MACHINE and BASE pools on the primary partition. The primary partition is used for production work, but very little activity is happening in production at the time.

Which of the following could be the source of the paging and faulting problem?

A. The secondary OS/400 partition is in the process of a restart IPL.
B. The secondary OS/400 partition is dynamically moving memory into the Linux partition.
C. The Linux partition is doing a high amount of I/O with the secondary OS/400 partition over the
virtual LAN.
D. The Linux partition is communicating with the Internet with a dedicated Ethernet IOA on a
shared IOP with the primary partition.

Answer: C

Question 28.
A system administrator would like workstation names with a unique prefix to run under a specific subsystem. Where can this be defined?

A. Job routing table.
B. Device Description.
C. Job description routing entry.
D; Workstation entry in the subsystem description.

Answer: D

Question 29.
A system administrator encounters sluggish performance for interactive users and observes a higher than acceptable faulting rate for the interactive memory pool. Which of the following can reduce the faulting rate to an acceptable level?

A. Decrease the time slice of the interactive job class.
B. Increase the activity level of the interactive pool.
C. Decrease the activity level of the interactive pool.
D. Increase the timeslice of the interactive job class.

Answer: C

Question 30.
Where is the signon display file parameter for interactive sessions located?

A. Device tables.
B. Job description.
C. Class description.
D. Device description.
E. Subsystem description.

Answer: E

Question 31.
A system administrator would like to determine how many jobs can simultaneously run from a specific job queue, Which of the following commands will provide this information?

A. WRKCLS
B. WRKJOBQ
C. WRKSBSD
D. WRKSHRPOOL.

Answer: C

Question 32.
How would a secondary partition console be forced into dedicated storage tools?

A. Use option 21 on the Work with Partition Status in SST.
B. Set the control panel to xx21 where xx is the number of the partition.
C. IN iSeries Navigator, Management Central, System Service Tools, set option 21 on the
secondary partition.
D. Call the QCPSRVPNL (Control Panel) API from a control language program and set option 21
in the service processor.

Answer: A

Question 33.
The system administrator needs to apply delayed PTF s to the primary partition, Prior to the primary partition IL, what must be done in order to avoid abnormally ending any secondary partitions?

A. The Primary partition must be set in secure mode.
B. The secondary partitions must be switched to IPL source “A”.
C. The secondary partitions must be powered off and in hold mode.
D. The primary must be in IPL source “C” and the secondary partitions in IPL source “NONE”.

Answer: C

Question 34.
A critical batch job has been configured to run in a dedicated storage pool for optimum performance. The administrator would like to be notified if paging in the pool reaches an unacceptable level. How would the system be set up to send the notification?

A. Set a system monitor to track QSYSARB for level 40 messages.
B. Set the Faults/Second threshold with WRKSHRPOOL to send a message when the threshold
is met.
C. Set up a job monitor in iSeries Navigator to send a break message when the threshold is
reached.
D. Set the subsystem routing programs to use the product support API (QSZSPTR) to send the
system message to QSYSOPR message queue.

Answer: C

Question 35.
A manufacturing site accesses the iSeries remotely. The iSeries is the primary system in a High Availability data replication pair, Daily during the hours of 5.30 AM until 6.00 AM. The manufacturing site assembly line data entry workers complain of sluggish response times, At all other times the system performance is acceptable and bath throughput is acceptable. PM/400 collections are run daily on this iSeries system.

A. Review performance collections for the sluggish time period.
B. Compare QSYSMSG on both systems for High Availability software errors.
C. Start, Print and review a communications trace for the High Availability replication software.
D. Determine if the interactive assembly line data entry workers jobs are interfering with the high
Availability replication jobs.

Answer: A

Question 36.
New disk drives have been added to a system. How can disk capacity utilization be balanced among all the disks?

A. Perform a V-S IPL.
B. Run the reclaim storage (RCLSTG) command.
C. Run the start ASP balance (STRASPBAL) command
D. Use the disk balancing option in System Service Tools.

Answer: C

Question 37.
A system administrator has been asked to establish an ongoing analysis of the performance and utilization of an iSeries. Which of the following will meet the request?

A. Use the non-charge OS/400 performance analysis tools to print monthly reports.
B. Upload the system’s performance data to the IBM Workload Estimator on the web.
C. Enable PPP communications between the customer’s iSeries and the IBM Benchmark Center.
D. Activate Performance Manager /400 to automatically collect and upload data to IBM. Use
IBM’s web site to provide reporting.

Answer: D

Question 38.
A control language program has been created to start custom sybsytems. The program is called from the system startup program.

A. A system message in QSYSMSG was not responded to by the operator.
B. The subsystem descriptions are not in he library list of the startup job.
C. The control language program was not registered to the subsystem startup exit point.
D. The startup program must start the subsystems directly; subsystems cannot be started by a
called program.

Answer: B

Question 39.
What is the default length of a numeric type variable in a CL program?

A. 10.9
B. 10.5
C. 14.4
D. 15.5

Answer: D

Question 40.
Before a PTF is applied permanently, in which library is it stored?

A. QSYS
B. QGPL
C. QTEMP
D. QTFLIB

Answer: B

Question 41.
Which of the following must be ordered to receive a Cumulative PTF package for V5R2?

A. MF99520
B. SF99520
C. SF98520
D. SI99520

Answer: B

Question 42.
Which of the following is a valid id for a group PTF

A. S199xxx
B. MF99xxx
C. SF99xxx
D. SF98xxx

Answer: C

Question 43.
A system administrator has been asked to permanently apply PTF MF29033. The PTF status is “Temporarily Applied” and the system is operating on IPL source B. Which of the following will permanently apply this PTF without a system IPL?

A. Run INSPTF LICPGM(5722999) SELECT (MF29033) INSTYP (*IMMDLY)
B. Run APYTF LICPGM (5722999) SELECT (MF 29023) APY (*PERM) DELAYED (*NO)
C. Run CHGIPLA KEYLOCPOS (*SECURE), then run APYPTF LICPGM(5722999) APY
(*PERM) DELAYED (*PANEL)
D. Set the control panel to the IPL source “A”, then run APYPTF LICPGM (5722999) SELECT
(MF29023) APY (*PERM) DELAYED (*NO)

Answer: B

Question 44.
PTF SI12345 requires PTF S100369 as a prerequisite. What must be done to permanently apply PTF SI12345?

A. Remove PTF S100369
B. Unapply PTF S100369
C. Permanently Apply PTF SI00369
D. Temporarily Apply PTF SI00369

Answer: C

Question 45.
Which of the following situations may require a PTF to be permanently applied?

A. Hardware is being removed
B. A system is being prepared for installing a new release.
C. The program objects of a licensed program have been removed.
D. A licensed program is being reinstalled using the RSTLICPGM command.

Answer: B

Question 46.
Which of the following commands eliminates PTF cover lettersand save files from system storage?

A. DLTPTF
B. RMVPTF
C. DLTPTFOBJ
D. DLTPTFSAVF

Answer: A

Question 47.
PTF S155441 requires PTF SI01432 as a co requisite and neither PTF is currently loaded.
What must be done to temporarily apply PTF SI55441?

A. Omit PTF S101432 from PTF processing.
B. Load and temporarily apply S101432 before loading S155441.
C. Load and permanently apply S101432 before loading S155441.
D. Load and temporarily apply S101432 and S155441 concurrently.

Answer: D

Question 48.
An administrator needs to install PTF S100112 on program product 5722-XYZ DSPPTF LICPGM (*ALL) does not list program product 5722-XYZ which of the following is the likely cause?

A. 5722-XYZ does not have any PTFs installed.
B. System Value AL WOBJRST is not set to *PTF
C. The administrator does not have authority to 5722-XYZ
D. 5722-XYZ was not installed with the ALWPTF (*YES) option set.

Answer: A

Question 49.
Before installing OS/400 or licensed programs, what value should be in the system value QALWOBJRST?

A. *ALLB
B. *NONE
C. *ALLNEW
E. *ALLOBJ

Answer: A

Question 50.
Which of the following choice would start the automatic upgrade process from CD?

A. Set the mode to “Normal”. Use option 1 on the LICPGM menu to install all licensed products.
B. Set the mode to “Manual” and run the PWRDWNSYS OPTION (*IMMED)
RESTART(*YES)IPLSRC(D) command.
C. Set the mode to “Normal” and run the PWRDWNSYS OPTION (*IMMED)
RESTART(*YES)IPLSRC(D) command.
D. Set the IPL type to “B” and the mode to “Manual”. Run the PWRDWNSYS
OPTION (*IMMED) RESTART (*YES FULL) IPLSRC (PANEL) command.
From the DST menu use option 2 *Install the Operating System”.

Answer: C

Question 51.
Upon completion of an upgrade to the latest release, the administrator observers a message in the QSYSOPR message queue indicating that the system did not automatically perform the System Initialization process. Which of the following will initialize the system?

A. Run the INZYS OPTION (*IMMED) command.
B. Set the IPL mode to “Normal” and start a system IPL.
C. Run STRPJ SBS (QSYSWRK) PGM(QSYS/SCPF) to start system job SCPF.
D. Install the latest Cumulative PTF and Group PTF packages using the INSPTF command with
the RESTART (*INZSYS) parameter.

Answer: B
 



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Braindumps for "642-655" Exam

Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers

 Question 1.
Which setting should be used in the "Boot from" filed in the virtual blade configuration when an operating system is first installed through an CD ISO image onto a virtual blade?

A. /local1/vbs/win2k8.iso
B. WAAS /local1/loca/vb folder
C. Floppy Disk
D. CD-ROM

Answer: D

Question 2.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. When troubleshooting video licensing on a WAE, this Central Manager output is displayed. 

Which two steps should be taken to enable the video license? (Choose two.)

A. Restart the WAE
B. Select the Enterprise Check Box
C. Select the Video Check Box
D. Select the Virtual-Blade Check Box

Answer: B, C

Question 3.
Which command verifies that a WAE in-line card is intercepting traffic from the correct VLANs?

A. show wccp services
B. show wccp vlans inline
C. show int inlinegroup x/y
D. show ip access-lists

Answer: C

Question 4.
In which two ways will you register and activate a WAE to the Central Manager? (Choose two.)

A. WAE(Config)#cms enable do active
B. The auto-activate icon in the Central Manager
C. WAE(Config)#cms enable
D. The quickstart setup procedure

Answer: C, D

Question 5.
Which three must be configured when you configure an edge print queue? (Choose three.)

A. WAFS edge service
B. EPM Policy
C. Printer Name
D. devive URI

Answer: A, C, D

Question 6.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. A WAE in your environment is experiencing no HTTP acceleration. 

What is the problem according to the output from the Central Manager?

A. HTTP and Video Accelerators cannot be enabled at the same time
B. The HTTP Accelerator is not enabled
C. DRE eliminates all need for HTTP acceleration
D. The Enterprise license is not installed

Answer: B

Question 7.
How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?

A. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager
B. Use the Windows netstat command
C. Use the Windows nbtstat command
D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE

Answer: A

Question 8.
Within Windows Server on WAAS, what are the Cisco-supported features? (Choose all that apply)

A. Active Directory
B. DNS
C. Windows Printing
D. DHCP

Answer: A, B, C, D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. The following diagram displays the Cisco WAAS configuration for your customer. 

Which WCCPv2 interception configuration should be applied to interface Serial0?

A. Redirect in / service group 62
B. Redirect out / service group 62
C. Redirect in / service group 61
D. Redirect out/service group 61

Answer: A

Question 10.
How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?

A. Three
B. One
C. As many as needed
D. Two

Answer: B



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