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Question 1.
All of the following are fiber based connectors EXCEPT:
A. ST (Straight Tip)
B. MT-RJ (Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack)
C. IEEE 1394 (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)
D. SC (Standard Connector)
Answer: C
Question 2.
A home user has enforced HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) access to a web server.
After HTTPS is enforced, the web server is no longer accessible from the Internet, but can still be accessed by internal network users.
What is causing this problem?
A. The users DNS (Domain Name Server) server is down.
B. The users web server IP (Internet Protocol) address has changed.
C. The users Internet router is blocking port 389.
D. The users Internet router is blocking port 443.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You have configured a Jump Start server. When you attempt to install a client machine, it starts
booting, but stops responding shortly afterwards.
s
Which command, when run on the Jump Start server, helps diagnose this problem?
A. snoop dhcp
B. snoop -d eri0
C. snoop 8:0:20:fd:e9:3c
D. /usr/sbin/in.rarpd -d -a
E. ndd -get /dev/eri0 errors
Answer: C
Question 4.
host name IP address MAC address
host1 192.40.62.10 8:0:20:75:6e:7d
Which command removes the ARP table entry for host1?
A. rarp host1
B. arp -d host1
C. rm -a 192.40.62.10
D. rarp 8:0:20:75:6e:7d
E. rmarp -r 192.40.62.10
Answer: B
Question 5.
To more efficiently allocate and manage their network infrastructure, the Network Company is implementing Classless Inter-Domain Routing.
Which routing protocol is best suited to prepare for this implementation?
A. BGP
B. RIPv2
C. RDISC
D. RIPv1
E. ipCIDR-forwarding
Answer: B
Question 6.
Each DNS zone must have a primary server.
Which two are features of a DNS primary server? (Choose two.)
A. They maintain data about each of the top-level zones.
B. They are the system on which all changes are made to the zone.
C. They are never authoritative for any domain, except for the loopback address.
D. They provide update information and synchronize secondary servers when the secondary
servers request information.
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
A DNS server that you administer has stopped responding to client requests.
Which four commands can you use in debugging the DNS server? (Choose four.)
A. dig
B. ndc
C. pkill -HUP inetd
D. pkill -INT in.inetd
E. pkill -INT in.named
F. pkill -USR1 in.named
G. svcadm restart system/name-service-cache
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 8.
A DHCP client is configured with the RELEASE_ON_SIGTERM=yes parameter.
Which two actions force a DHCP client to relinquish the IP address it obtained through DHCP on the hme0 interface? (Choose two.)
A. Shut down the DHCP client.
B. Run the dhcpinfo command with the r option.
C. Run the dhcpagent command with the r option.
D. Run the pkill -9 dhcpagent command.
E. Run the stop option of the ifconfig hme0 dhcp command.
F. Run the release option of the ifconfig hme0 dhcp command.
Answer: A, F
Question 9.
A new system is being installed with multiple interfaces configured and IP Forwarding enabled. One interface, ge0, connects to the primary company LAN. Another interface, ge1, connects to a LAN dedicated to administration of the company's servers.
Given:
ge0 IP Address = 10.0.0.25/32
ge1 IP Address = 192.168.1.25/32
Admin network = 192.168.1.0/24
Primary network = 10.0.0.0/24
Solaris IP Filter firewall must be configured in a way that:
1- Systems on the admin network can reach the primary network.
2- The system itself has to be reached using ssh from all systems on the admin network.
3- Systems on the primary network cannot reach any systems on the admin network.
Which three rules should be included in the Solaris IP Filter configuration? (Choose three.)
A. block in all
B. block out all
C. block out quick log on ge0 from 192.168.1.0/24 to any
D. pass out quick log from 192.168.1.0/24 to any keep state
E. pass in quick from 192.168.1.0/24 to 10.0.0.0/24 flags keep state
F. pass in quick proto tcp on ge1 from 192.168.1.0/24 to 192.168.1.25/32 port = 22 flags keep
state
G. pass out quick on ge0 from 10.0.0.25 to 10.0.0.0/24 flags keep state
Answer: A, E, F
Question 10.
In a given Telnet communication, two IP addresses, 194.168.85.51 and 192.9.9.6, are involved in peer-to-peer communication.
Data grams leave the source host 194.168.85.51 and are transmitted to destination host 192.9.9.6. Which should you expect to find in the IP header of an outbound datagram?
A. source port number
B. destination port number
C. destination IP address 192.9.9.6
D. destination IP address 194.168.85.51
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which two statements are true about the data payload section of an Ethernet frame?
(Choose two.)
A. It includes the Ethernet address of the receiving system.
B. It helps the receiving interface detect the beginning of the frame.
C. It includes the Transport, Internet, and Application layer headers.
D. Its maximum size is specific to the type of network interface on a system that receives the
frame.
E. It includes information used by both the sending and receiving hosts to determine if an error
has occurred during frame transmission.
Answer: C, D
Question 12.
What are two advantages of using a layered networking model? (Choose two.)
A. Routing tables are simplified.
B. Network performance is improved.
C. The troubleshooting process is simplified.
D. Changing one layer does NOT require changes to the other layers.
E. Networking related code does NOT need to be recompiled for other systems.
Answer: C, D
Question 13.
Which three layers of the OSI network model are included in the Application layer of the TCP/IP network model? (Choose three.)
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data Link
E. Application
F. Presentation
Answer: B, E, F
Question 14.
At which layer in the TCP/IP network model are decisions about routing between networks made?
A. Internet
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Application
Answer: A
Question 15.
A user begins to establish a Telnet session with a second system located on a different subnet. The Network Interface layer is responsible for creating a packet data unit.
What information does the header in the packet data unit contain?
A. time to live (TTL)
B. destination host address
C. address of the local subnet's router
D. UID of the user executing the telnet command
Answer: C
Question 16.
As a connectionless protocol in peer-to-peer communications, UDP interacts with which adjacent And corresponding layers of the TCP/IP model?
A. Ethernet and Hardware
B. Hardware, Network, and Internet
C. Transport, Application, and Internet
D. Application, Transport, Internet, and Network
Answer: C
Question 17.
Which statement is true about TCP and/or UDP?
A. TCP implements flow control at the Transport layer.
B. UDP implements flow control at the Transport layer.
C. TCP is a Transport layer protocol; UDP is an Internet layer protocol.
D. TCP segments are converted to UDP data grams at the Internet layer.
Answer: A
Question 18.
Protocols are used by computer networks to communicate or exchange data. A data communication protocol is a set of rules that must be followed by electronic devices to communicate with each other.
Which three describe these sets of rules? (Choose three.)
A. Syntax - Data format and coding
B. Internet - Manages data addressing
C. Timing - Speed matching and sequencing
D. Application - Handles the detail and functions
E. Semantics - Controls information and error handling
F. Transport - Manages the connections between cooperating applications
Answer: A, C, E
Question 19.
What are the four layers of the TCP/IP Model? (Choose four.)
A. Internet layer
B. Software layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Hardware layer
E. Transport layer
F. Application layer
G. Network Interface layer
Answer: A, E, F, G
Question 20.
Which is an example of a Network Interface layer protocol?
A. Transmission Control Protocol
B. Uniform Demultiplexing Protocol
C. Internet Control Message Protocol
D. EIA/TIA 568 - Unshielded Twisted Pair
E. IEEE 802.11 - Wireless Network Standard
Answer: E
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Question 1.
You believe that there may be a problem with the fault-tolerant VLAN. As a first step, which command would you use to find out if any heartbeats have been missed?
A. ace/admin# show ft stats
B. ace/admin# show ft peer detail
C. ace/context# show ft peer detail
D. ace/context# show ft group detail
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which command could be used to view the configuration stored in a checkpoint?
A. show checkpoint
B. show checkpoint detail
C. show checkpoint config
D. show config checkpoint detail
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Where are the checkpoint configuration files stored?
A. Slot0
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP Server
D. a hidden directory in flash
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 4.
To completely remove a real server from service, you should enter the no inservice command in which mode?
A. Rserver mode
B. privileged mode
C. policy-map mode
D. global config mode
E. severfarm-Rserver mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which two of these options are configurable as part of the TCP Normalization feature set? (Choose two.)
A. clearing reserved bits
B. setting illegal flag combinations
C. setting port numbers equal to zero
D. allow Syn packets that contain data
E. setting TCP header length requirements
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 6.
An existing DNS name server is being replaced with a Cisco GSS.
Which IOS license will be required?
A. Cisco Standard license
B. Cisco Extended license
C. Cisco Name Server license
D. Cisco Network Registrar license
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
An active Cisco ACE Module is configured as follows:
active Cisco Ace Module has priority level of 150
standby Cisco Ace Module has a priority level of 120
probes are configured with host tracking
Two probes fail. What must be done to relinquish the role to the standby Cisco ACE Module?
A. configure the probe with a priority level of 10
B. configure the probe with a priority level of 20
C. configure the probe with a priority level of 40
D. take no action; the Cisco ACE Module automatically relinquishes the role of active on failure of
a probe
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which three fields can be examined by an extended ACL? (Choose three.)
A. TTL value
B. ICMP type
C. IP address
D. HTTP cookie
E. HTTP header
F. UDP port number
Answer: B, C, F
Explanation:
Question 9.
When troubleshooting bridged interfaces, you should start with the show interface VLAN x command.
Which two of these should be true of the interface? (Choose two.)
A. it is up
B. it shows mode : routed
C. it has an IP address and mask
D. it has an MTU set of 1500 bytes
E. it shows Assigned from the Supervisor, up on the Supervisor
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
Question 10.
When migrating from a CSS to a Cisco ACE appliance, you should review hardware resources and identify upgrades and configuration changes required for successful migration.
What is the benefit of doing this?
A. reduces the risks associated with a production migration
B. reduces the possibility of expensive, time-consuming rework at a later date
C. strengthens the ability of your team to meet aggressive deployment schedules
D. reduces the possibility of downtime or other costly disruptions during migration
E. helps take advantage of Cisco planning experience and best-in-class methods and procedures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 11.
Which two of these statements are true when using a Cisco ACE Module in a typical routed-mode configuration? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco ACE Module is assigned only a single VLAN.
B. The Cisco ACE Module is in the path of the client-server traffic.
C. The Cisco ACE Module is out of path of the client-server traffic.
D. The clients and servers are all on the same VLAN, but in different subnets.
E. The Cisco ACE Module's client-side VLAN and the server-side VLAN are separate VLANs on
different subnets.
F. The Cisco ACE Module's client-side VLAN and the server-side VLAN are separate VLANs on
the same subnet.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
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