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Question 1. Which three statements about single-column NUSIs are true? (Choose three.) A. Their statistics are stored in DBC.TV Fields. B. Their access involves row-hash level locking. C. They must be dropped prior to running Multi Load. D. They may be used for access if statistics do not exist on them. E. They can be created on an existing value-ordered NUSI column. Answer: A, D, E Question 2. Data Control Language (DCL) statements allow which three actions? (Choose three.) A. logging on to Teradata B. logging on to the client C. holding membership in a role D. restricting access to database objects Answer: A, C, D Question 3. Which two restrict a user's access to database objects? (Choose two.) A. access logs B. roles of user C. profile of user D. access rights E. creator of user Answer: B, D Question 4. What can be used to provide column level security? (Choose two.) A. sparse index B. access rights C. view or macro D. roles and profiles Answer: B, C Question 5. DRAG DROP Place the steps to show how outer joins are logically performed in the proper order. Answer: Question 6. Which four factors are important to consider when deciding whether to calculate summary results on demand or to create a summary table? (Choose four.) A. concurrency of users B. typical rows per value C. response time requirements D. complexity of the calculations E. frequency of summary request F. volatility of the column to summarize Answer: C, D, E, F Question 7. Why should you create a view with aggregation? (Choose two.) A. to reduce query complexity B. to minimize macro executions C. to improve query performance D. to minimize summary table maintenance Answer: A, D Question 8. To ensure you are working with current, consistent data, which lock should you recommend for SELECT queries in a multi-user environment with update activity? A. read B. write C. access D. exclusive Answer: A Question 9. What are three characteristics of tactical queries? (Choose three.) A. highly tuned B. use direct access path C. multiple tables scanned D. defined response time requirements Answer: A, B, D Question 10. Demoralizations done in which phase of modeling? A. logical B. physical C. dimensional D. extended logical Answer: B Question 11 Which three statements are true about the Extended Logical Data Model (ELDM)? (Choose three.) A. It contains the business rules of the organization. B. It is the main source of information for creating the PDM. C. It maps applications and transactions to the related objects. D. It provides demographics of data distribution, sizing, and access. Answer: B, C, D Question 12. What are three characteristics of third normal form? (Choose three.) A. There are no repeating groups. B. Indexes are defined on the attributes. C. Attributes must relate to the entire foreign key. D. Attributes must relate to the entire primary key. E. Attributes must relate to the primary key and not to each other. Answer: A, D, E Question 13. Which three are introduced in the ELDM? (Choose three.) A. foreign keys B. index selection C. join access rows D. column null ability E. maximum rows null F. value access frequency Answer: C, E, F Question 14. Which application development API provides maximum control over Teradata connectivity? A. CLI B. ECLI C. ODBC D. Embedded SQL Answer: A Question 15. Which application development API requires a pre-processor in addition to a compiler for a high level language? A. CLI B. ECLI C. ODBC D. Embedded SQL Answer: D Question 16. What are three characteristics of PP2? (Choose three.) A. supports macros B. supports multiple sessions C. supports COBOL, PL/I, C, and Pascal D. uses indicator variables for NULL handling Answer: A, B, D Question 17. What are three reasons for running Visual Explain on queries during application development? (Choose three.) A. to establish run times B. to determine access paths C. to determine locking profiles D. to validate the usage of indexes E. to calculate necessary spool space requirements Answer: B, C, D Question 18. What does the Statistics Wizard do? (Choose three.) A. allows for "what-if" analysis B. allows you to schedule statistics collection C. makes recommendations based on table demographics D. allows importing of workload from other Teradata utilities Answer: B, C, D Question 19. What does the TSET utility do? (Choose two.) A. creates a view of your data demographics B. allows you to schedule statistics collection C. allows for the importing of workloads from other Teradata utilities D. allows you to import data demographics from one system to another E. allows you to import system characteristics from one system to another Answer: D, E Question 20. Which two tools allow you to import workloads from other Teradata tools? (Choose two.) A. TSET B. Index Wizard C. Visual Explain D. Statistics Wizard Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Which setting should be used in the "Boot from" filed in the virtual blade configuration when an operating system is first installed through an CD ISO image onto a virtual blade? A. /local1/vbs/win2k8.iso B. WAAS /local1/loca/vb folder C. Floppy Disk D. CD-ROM Answer: D Question 2. Exhibit: You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. When troubleshooting video licensing on a WAE, this Central Manager output is displayed. Which two steps should be taken to enable the video license? (Choose two.) A. Restart the WAE B. Select the Enterprise Check Box C. Select the Video Check Box D. Select the Virtual-Blade Check Box Answer: B, C Question 3. Which command verifies that a WAE in-line card is intercepting traffic from the correct VLANs? A. show wccp services B. show wccp vlans inline C. show int inlinegroup x/y D. show ip access-lists Answer: C Question 4. In which two ways will you register and activate a WAE to the Central Manager? (Choose two.) A. WAE(Config)#cms enable do active B. The auto-activate icon in the Central Manager C. WAE(Config)#cms enable D. The quickstart setup procedure Answer: C, D Question 5. Which three must be configured when you configure an edge print queue? (Choose three.) A. WAFS edge service B. EPM Policy C. Printer Name D. devive URI Answer: A, C, D Question 6. Exhibit: You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. A WAE in your environment is experiencing no HTTP acceleration. What is the problem according to the output from the Central Manager? A. HTTP and Video Accelerators cannot be enabled at the same time B. The HTTP Accelerator is not enabled C. DRE eliminates all need for HTTP acceleration D. The Enterprise license is not installed Answer: B Question 7. How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly? A. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager B. Use the Windows netstat command C. Use the Windows nbtstat command D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE Answer: A Question 8. Within Windows Server on WAAS, what are the Cisco-supported features? (Choose all that apply) A. Active Directory B. DNS C. Windows Printing D. DHCP Answer: A, B, C, D Question 9. Exhibit: You work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully. The following diagram displays the Cisco WAAS configuration for your customer. Which WCCPv2 interception configuration should be applied to interface Serial0? A. Redirect in / service group 62 B. Redirect out / service group 62 C. Redirect in / service group 61 D. Redirect out/service group 61 Answer: A Question 10. How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set? A. Three B. One C. As many as needed D. Two Answer: B
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