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Braindumps for "ML0-220" Exam

Certified Network Security Administrator

 Question 1.
What should be used to automatically configure host computers for IP (Internet Protocol)?

A. DNS (Domain Name Service)
B. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
C. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

Answer: D

Question 2.
When attaching to a Windows Network resource, credentials are supplied through the use of a:

A. cookie
B. cache
C. token
D. key file

Answer: C

Question 3.
With an umask value of 12, what would be the default permissions assigned to newly created files?

A. ---x--x-wx
B. -rw-rw-r--
C. -r-xr-xr--
D. -rw-rw----

Answer: B

Question 4.
Which of the following are categories of web server attacks?

A. CGI Intrusions
B. Buffer overflows
C. Script vulnerability exploits
D. All the above

Answer: D

Question 5.
What command do you use to edit the default grace period for quotas?

A. quotaconfig -g
B. editquota -g
C. quotaconfig -t
D. edquota -t

Answer: D

Question 6.
Your IP address is 10.10.0.2 and your subnet mask is 255.255.255.0. You have one ethernet card. You want to set your default gateway to be 10.0.0.1. 

Which of the following is the correct syntax to accomplish this?

A. route add default 10.0.01 eth0
B. route add default gw 10.0.01 dev eth0
C. route add default gw 10.0.0.2 eth0 255.255.255.0
D. route add default gw l0.0.0.2/dev/eth0 255.255.255.0

Answer: C

Question 7.
Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the network?

A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id

Answer: A

Question 8.
An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a

A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which of the following is true about authentication?

A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information

Answer: C

Question 10.
Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often the standard for:

A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses

Answer: A

Question 11.
Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information processing facility, having no computer or communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning, etc. This is better known as a____

A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site

Answer: C

Question 12.
Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan is not correct?

A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action. 
    These decisions should be made ahead of time and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be obtained 
    in a timely manner

Answer: A

Question 13.
Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?

A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane

Answer: A

Question 14.
Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?

A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above

Answer: D

Question 15.
The most common method of social engineering is:

A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail

Answer: B

Question 16.
The full form of IDS is ____________

A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software

Answer: A

Question 17.
What is an Intranet?

A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services

Answer: A

Question 18.
Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?

A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position

Answer: A

Question 19.
Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the computer systems?

A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner

Answer: B

Question 20.
You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You want to allow four maximum number of Hosts. 

What is the subnet mask you need to apply?

A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192

Answer: A

Question 21.
What does the number "17" define in the protocol field of the packet header?

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. ICMP

Answer: A

Question 22.
The length of an IP datagram header can vary depending on the options used. 

What is the smallest possible IP header size?

A. 16 bytes
B. 24 bytes
C. 20 bytes
D. 60 bytes

Answer: B

Question 23.
_________ is the command and control protocol used to manage commutations between a web browser and a web server.

A. FTP
B. IMAP
C. HTTP
D. NNTP

Answer: C



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Braindumps for "650-173" Exam

Smart Business Communication Systems for Account Managers (SBCSAM)

 Question 1.
If a customer objects that the SBCS solution is too expensive, what are two response areas to highlight? Select two.

A. individual feature costs
B. operating costs
C. competitor prices
D. initial cost

Answer:  B, D

Question 2.
Which three features does the Cisco UC520 support?

A. Storage Area Networks
B. analog devices
C. Security, firewall & VPN
D. distributed routing
E. Telepresence
F. Cisco Unity Express

Answer:  B, C, F

Question 3.
What needs to be done for an out-of-box setup of the Cisco CE520?

A. Configure with a CLI through the Cisco UC520
B. Load application with an easy configuration wizard
C. Connect physical cables for all devices
D. Configure with Cisco Configuration Assistant

Answer:  D

Question 4.
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Smart Assist?

A. reduce set-up time for new devices
B. ease of call forwarding and paging
C. quick access to online help
D. simple configuration of network settings

Answer:  A

Question 5.
What Cisco CE520 feature optimizes quality of service?

A. Cisco Network Admission Control
B. Cisco Smart Assist
C. Cisco Configuration Assistant
D. CiscoSmartports

Answer:  D

Question 6.
What describes the consultative sales process for SMB's for Unified communications?

A. Campaign Builder
B. Partner Central
C. Smart Business Roadmap
D. Steps to Success

Answer:  C

Question 7.
What is a useful tool to get solution requirements and pricing in the sales process?

A. Smart Assist
B. Partner Central*
C. Quote Builder
D. Visio

Answer:  C

Question 8.
What are two connection options for local Cisco Configuration Assistant deployment? (Choose two)

A. Connect to an IP Phone PC port
B. Connect remotely via a metropolitan area network
C. Connect directly to any access point
D. Connect directly to a UC520PoE port

Answer:  A, D

Question 9.
Which two CRM servers allow Cisco Unified Call Connector to be configured for connectivity?

A. Siebel
B. Microsoft Dynamics
C. Salesforce.com
D. ACT!
E. Oncontact

Answer:  B, C

Question 10.
The Cisco 521 Wireless Express Access Point used in the Smart Business Communications System can be configured to operate in which mode?

A. standalone mode only
B. controller-based mode only
C. either standalone mode or controller-based mode

Answer:  C


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