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Question 1.
The contents of a data dictionary extract are listed below:
Which of the following describes the type of metadata listed?
A. static business metadata
B. static technical metadata
C. dynamic business metadata
D. dynamic technical metadata
Answer: B
Question 2.
The diagram below (Martin notation) shows the logical relationship between two tables named CUSTOMER and ACCOUNT.
Which of the following describes the relationship between the data in the tables?
A. All customers have an account.
B. All accounts have at lease one customer.
C. There are more customers than accounts.
D. There are more accounts than customers.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following should be considered when assessing warehouse performance in the test environment?
I. access permissions
II. data reliability and quality
III. software version and configuration
IV. hardware specification and configuration
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
Answer: D
Question 4.
In which of the following are the SAS Data Quality Cleanse functions available?
A. SAS DATA step and SQL procedure only
B. SAS Component Language (SCL) and SQL procedure only
C. SAS DATA step and SAS Component Language (SCL) only
D. SAS DATA step, SAS Component Language (SCL) and SQL procedure
Answer: D
Question 5.
According to the SAS Rapid Warehousing Methodology, which of the following test stages are performed when designing a warehouse?
I. system test
II. metadata test
III. integration test
IV. acceptance test
A. II and III only
B. III and IV only
C. I, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: C
Question 6.
In SAS ETL Studio, metadata facilitates which of the following?
I.data model design
II.multi-user development
III.process documentation
IV.data definition standardization
A. II and III only
B. II and IV only
C. II, III, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following are likely to lead to a successful implementation of a data warehouse project?
I.source code management
II.software release management
III.naming and programming standards
IV.operational data recovery processes
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. III and IV only
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following is needed to ensure the continued integrity and reliability of data in a production data warehouse?
A. monthly meetings with business users to review the functionality of applications
B. regular meetings with IT to review hardware configuration and resource utilization
C. status reports from production schedulers to ensure that warehouse jobs run successfully
D. formal communication with source system owners to identify structure and content changes
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following is the recommended practice for setting up the production environment for a data warehouse application?
A. Manually copy entities from development to the production environment.
B. Assign the role of setting up a production environment to the system administrator.
C. Document steps during development and repeat them in the production environment.
D. Create a script in the development environment and run it in the production environment.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which of the following validate the transfer of binary files between systems?
A. using a checksum and checking the file size
B. using a checksum and comparing the first and last N records
C. using record counts and comparing a random sample of records
D. checking the file size and comparing a random sample of records
Answer: A
Question 11.
Which of the following statements are true regarding retrieving archived tape data?
I. SAS can read tape format data.
II. Archived data retrieved to disk should have retention dates.
III. Archived retrieval performance can dictate data storage type, hardware choice, and partitioning.
IV. Relational database management system (RDBMS) archives can be processed without returning to disk.
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer: B
Question 12.
Which of the following is impacted by a data warehousing retention and archiving policy?
A. disk space requirements only
B. creation of data marts and disk space requirements
C. creation of data marts and versioning/change management
D. disk space requirements and versioning/change management
Answer: D
Question 13.
According to The Data Warehouse Lifecycle Toolkit, by Ralph Kimball, which of the following represent best practices when deploying a data warehouse?
I. Enable warehouse access for all valid users at the same time.
II. Deny warehouse access to end-users who have not received warehouse training.
III. Provide end-users resource support for warehouse to legacy system reconciliation.
IV. End-user education can begin shortly before the production deployment of the warehouse.
A. III and IV only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, III and IV only
Answer: D
Question 14.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding backup strategies for SAS data sets after the load has been completed?
A. metadata must be synced
B. file system-level backups are sufficient
C. warehouse must be taken off-line to perform backup
D. incremental backups can be performed based on SAS data set metadata
Answer: B
Question 15.
After deploying the warehouse on a UNIX system, jobs accessing the SAS dataset named SALES are performing poorly. The dataset SALES is stored in the file /disk1/sales.sas7bdat and is 3Gb in size.
Which of the following methods can be used to most accurately measure the I/O read performance?
A. "options fullstimer; libname in '/disk1'; data_NULL_; set in.sales(drop=_all_); run;"
B. "timex cat /disk1/sales.sas7bdat > /dev/null"
C. "timex cp /disk1/sales.sas7bdat /disk1/foo" and divide the time by 2
D. "timex mv /disk1/sales.sas7bdat /disk1/foo" and divide the time by 2
Answer: A
Question 16.
Which of the following helps to reduce the I/O for a procedure that requires every row of a SAS table to be processed?
A. indexing the SAS table
B. using the SQL procedure
C. partitioning the SAS table
D. compressing the SAS data set
Answer: D
Question 17.
You are an employee of ITCertKeys.com. Study the exhibit carefully to view a diagram that displays a data warehouse environment:
Which of the following describes the optimal method to join a transformed DB2 table with an Oracle table and load the result set to the data warehouse using SAS ETL Server and its components?
Exhibit:
A. Generate code with SAS ETL Studio which:
connects to ITCertKeys 2 from ITCertKeys 1,
transforms the DB2 data on ITCertKeys 1,
downloads the Oracle data using the DOWNLOAD procedure to ITCertKeys 1,
joins those result sets on ITCertKeys 1,
downloads the joined data using the DOWNLOAD procedure to ITCertKeys 2,
and populates the target data warehouse table.
B. Generate code with SAS ETL Studio which:
connects to ITCertKeys 2 from ITCertKeys 1,
transforms the DB2 data on ITCertKeys 1,
extracts the Oracle data from ITCertKeys 2 using Remote Library Services,
joins those result sets on ITCertKeys 1,
and loads the target data warehouse table with the joined data using Remote Library
Services to ITCertKeys 2.
C. Generate code with SAS ETL Studio which:
connects to ITCertKeys 1 from ITCertKeys 2,
transforms the DB2 data on host1,
downloads the result set using the DOWNLOAD procedure,
extracts the ORACLE data on ITCertKeys 2,
joins those result sets on ITCertKeys 2,
and populates the target data warehouse table.
D. Generate code with SAS ETL Studio which:
connects to ITCertKeys 1 from ITCertKeys 2,
downloads the DB2 data using Remote Library Services,
transforms the downloaded data on ITCertKeys 2,
extracts the ORACLE data on ITCertKeys 2,
joins those result sets on ITCertKeys 2,
and populates the target data warehouse table.
Answer: C
Question 18.
Which of the following products are needed on the local host to access data from ORACLE on a remote host that is not running SAS?
A. SAS/ACCESS to ORACLE only
B. SAS/ACCESS to ORACLE and SQL*NET
C. SAS/ACCESS to ORACLE and SAS/CONNECT
D. SAS/ACCESS to ORACLE and SAS/SHARE*NET
Answer: B
Question 19.
Which one of the following delivers the best I/O performance when creating a temporary SAS data set from a permanent SAS data set?
A. Create the new data set in a library on a different physical disk.
B. Create the new data set in the same library as the existing data set.
C. Create the new data set in a library managed by a different disk controller.
D. Create the new data set in a different library than the existing data set but on the same
physical disk.
Answer: C
Question 20.
Which of the following job flow dependencies can be defined using SAS Schedule Manager?
I.The programs in the job flow run simultaneously.
II.The programs in the job flow are dependent on time.
III.The programs in the job flow are dependent on completed job execution.
IV.The programs in the job flow are dependent on changes in operating system directory
structure.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II III, and IV
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which factor is a primary cause of IP hyper-aggregation?
A. IP routing protocols do not always select the best route to a destination
B. IP routing protocols always select multiple routes to a destination
C. IP routing protocols do not make use all availablenetwork attributes to select a path
D. Improper network design results in limited network path redundancy
Answer: C
Question 2.
Inspecting the MPLS header in the received packet and exchanging it for a new MPLS header is the function of which device?
A. iLER
B. LER
C. LSR
D. PE
E. eLER
Answer: C
Question 3.
Choose the answer that best completes the following statement. The device at the beginning of an LSP is referred to as the ____ while the device at the end of an LSP is referred to as the ____.
A. PE, P
B. LER, LSR
C. LSR, LER
D. iLER, eLER
E. eLER, iLER
F. P, PE
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the roles of devices in an MPLS domain?
Choose 2 answers.
A. An LER is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
B. An LSR is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
C. An LSR is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
D. An LER is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Receiving labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removing the MPLS header and forwarding unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain is the function of which device?
A. LER
B. LSR
C. PE
D. iLER
E. eLER
Answer: E
Question 6.
What are the functions of the control plane in a MPLS router? Choose 2 answers.
A. Route exchange
B. Label swapping
C. MPLS neighbor establishment
D. Label signaling
E. Routing lookups
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
Which of the following factors are driving the evolution of the MPLS protocol and services? Choose 2 answers.
A. Customers demand for differentiated IP services
B. MPLS usage has been mandated by the IETF
C. Providers want to improve service availability and reliability
D. It is an easier technology to configure and manage than IP alone
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
Which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
What is the function of the MPLS label assigned to a packet?
A. It identifies the FEC
B. It specifies the packets header length
C. It identifies the origin of the packet
D. It specifies the type of data contained in the packet
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation may use them as they see fit
B. They are used to carry theEthertype value
C. They are used to carry the TTL value
D. They are used to mapQoS classification
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flags
Answer: D
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