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Question 1.
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the ext2 file system? (Choose two)
A. The fsck program is necessary to reconcile the file system.
B. There is no limit on the length of a file name.
C. It implements journaling.
D. It ignores timestamps.
E. Larger file system blocks enable larger file sizes.
Answer: A, E
Question 2.
Ann is a system administrator. She is worried that there are unauthorized programs on her system that run with root privileges. She decides that she wants to check the entire file system for files that have the potential to run as root.
Which of the following commands will help Ann accomplish this task?
A. locate -d rootdb *root* -e /proc -f ext2
B. find / -type f -user root -pring -o -perm +4000 -print
C. find / -type f -name root -print -o -user su -print -o perm 777 -print
D. ls -aIR / | grep toot.root."
E. locate -perm -4000 -print
Answer: B
Question 3.
Emile wants to change the gdm logo.
Which of the following line should she edit in the gdm.conf file?
Line1 [greeter]
Line2 Browser=0
Line3 DefaultFace=/usr/share/pixmaps/nobody.png
Line4 DefaultLocale=English
Line5 Exclude-bin,daemon,adm,lp,sync,shutdowm,halt,,ail,news, uucp, operator, nobody
Line6 Font=adobe-helvetica-bild-r-normal-*-*-180-*-*-*-*-*-*
Line GlobalFaceDir=/usr/share/faces
Line8 Icon=/usr/share/pixmaps/gdm.xpm
Line9 LocaleFile=/etc/X11/gdm/locale.alias
Line10 Logo=/usr/share/pixmaps/gnome-logo-large.png
A. Line 3
B. Line 4
C. Line 8
D. Line 9
E. Line 10
Answer: E
Question 4.
Sheila, a Webmaster, understands the risks associated with over clocking and has over clocked two processors on two different Web servers.
Which of the following results should she expect to see from the system if the over clocked processors are working properly? (Choose two)
A. Increased CPU instructions speed
B. Increased RAM storage
C. Increased had drive write speed
D. Increased memory bus speed
E. Increased SCSI peripheral speed
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
A cracker has gained root access from the console.
Which of the following would be the first location a system administrator would look to verify that an attack has occurred?
A. /var/log/httpd/access_log
B. /etc/securetty
C. /root/.bash_history
D. /dev/console
Answer: C
Question 6.
The system administrator is mining the /proc file trying to find out the speed of his processor. In which of the following files should the administrator look?
A. cpuinfo
B. cputype
C. cputime
D. cpustat
E. cpu
Answer: pending, send your comments, suggestion or feedback at feedback@itcertkeys.com
Question 7.
The system administrator would like to view the memory usage of process 1900. He decides to mine/proc for the necessary information. Which file in / proc contains such information?
A. 1900/vusage
B. 1900/smem
C. 1900/statm
D. 1900/mem
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following are TRUE concerning the given directory listing? (Choose two)
prw------- 1 root root 0 May 12 04:00 /dev/drum
brw------- 1 amp root 1 Jul 17 13:53 /dev/piano
-rw-rwSrw- 1 amp users 0 Jun 21 13:00 saxophone
-rwxrwxrwxT 1 amp users 0 Jun 21 01:00 flute
srw-rw-rw- 1 root root 0 Apr 17 19:17 tuba
A. The entry "/dev/piano" refers to a character device.
B. The sticky bit is for the file "flute"
C. The entry "/dev/drum"refers to a named pipe.
D. The entry "saxophone" refers to a socket.
E. The SGID bit is set for "tuba"
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
A cracker has gained root access from the console. Which of the following would be the first location a system administrator would look to verify that attack has occurred?
A. /var/log/http/access_log
B. /etc/securetty
C. /root/.bash_history
D. /dev/console
Answer: C
Question 10.
The server responsible for running the site www.itcertkeys.com is also responsible for the DNS resolution of its specific sub domain.
What is this responsibility called, and why is it used?
A. Super DNS resolution; it is used so that DNS lookups can achieved more quickly.
B. passing; it is used so fewer refusal messages are returned when looking up a name.
C. Caching; it is used to return names more quickly.
D. Delegation; it is used to decentralize administration on the internet
Answer: D
Question 11.
Top-level domains are located under which of the following?
A. ARPANET root
B. NIC root
C. ARP root
D. DNS root
Answer: B
Question 12.
The most common type of Linux network configuration is the ______ network, using__________
A. Ethernet, TCP/IP
B. Token ring. TCP/IP
C. Ethernet, IPX
D. Token ring, IPX
Answer: A
Question 13.
James download a variety of tools to exploit a system, including Trojan Horse programs that replace system binaries and programs that can mask the presence of system crackers.
What did James download?
A. The Common System Administration Troubleshooting Tools(csattkit)
B. A rootkit
C. A crackkit
D. A wormkit
E. A systemmaskkit
Answer: B
Question 14.
Tom wants to put a RAID on his NIS server, chewy. Tom is concerned about the integrity of the data on chewy, and he wants to be able to sustain a one-disk failure without having to restore from backup.
He also wants to use four hard disks. Which of the following arrays should he NOT use?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 10
D. RAID 0+1
Answer: A
Question 15.
Backside bus speed refers to the connection between _____ and the processor.
A. Level 1 cache
B. Level 2 cache
C. The hard drive
D. Main memory
E. Peripherals
Answer: B
Question 16.
Your system appears to be running slowly. You run the "/bin/ps aux" command., and it displays all the processes currently running on your system. After analyzing the output, you notice a significant gap in the PID sequence. You issue the command "Is-al/bin/ps" and realize that the ps program has an unusual creation date.
Which of the following best describes your altered ps program?
A. It is a virus
B. It is a program that exploits a buffer overrun.
C. It is a program that exploits a buffer overflow
D. It is a worm
E. It is a Trojan horse.
Answer: E
Question 17.
A system administrator is securing a Web server. In order to prevent local user from adding directives to the https. conf file, she decides to change the permissions on the httpd.conf. The
Web server runs as user and group web, and no other users are in this group.
Which of the following would be secure file permissions to set on the httpd.conf file? (Choose two)
A. -rwxrwxrwx
B. -rwx----
C. -rw-rw-rw-
D. -rw-rw-w
E. -rw---x---
Answer: B, E
Question 18.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a hardware-based RAID?
A. Performance is degraded because the RAID controller competes with other devices on the
bus.
B. The RAID system is managed independently from the host
C. It presents the host with only one disk per RAID array.
D. It is possible for the RAID subsystem tp span over multiple SCSI channels
Answer: A
Question 19.
The Internet Cache Protocol (ICP) is used by Squid to do which of the following tasks?
A. Communicate between the cache and the client browser
B. Communicate between the cache and the remote requested location
C. Communicate between multiple cache servers
D. Communicate between the client browser and the remote requested location
Answer: C
Question 20.
The _______ translate the fully qualified domain name into the corresponding IP address.
A. Internet Name Server
B. User Name Mapping Service
C. Domain Name Service
D. NetBIOS Name Server
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
Explain which three statements listed below are true about Server ITCertKeys control in TIBCO EMS. (Choose three.)
A. When authorization is turned off, any connection to the server is granted and no permissions
are checked when a client accesses a destination.
B. The authorization property defined in tibemsd.conf file does not affect administrative security.
C. The only method available to enable and disable authorization is the Administration Tool.
D. The Administration Tool command to dynamically enable authorization is: set
authorization=enabled.
E. Setting authorization dynamically applies to new connections only.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 2.
Name two metrics which are used by TIBCO EMS to load balance clients across servers.
(Choose two.)
A. inbound and outbound message count
B. inbound and outbound byte rates
C. number of transacted sessions
D. number of non-acknowledged messages
E. number of client connections
Answer: B, E
Question 3.
Choose the statement which is true about the exclusive destination property.
A. Messages are delivered only to the first destination receiver until this receiver fails.
B. The exclusive property applies to both queues and topics.
C. In a fault tolerant Server ITCertKeys 3onfiguration, destination receiver order is maintained by
the new primary server.
D. Exclusive destinations are one way to obtain load-balanced behavior across receivers.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Choose two below which prohibits re-delivery of a message. (Choose two.)
A. An EXPLICITCLIENTACKNOWLEDGE session in which the client successfully calls
acknowledge().
B. A DUPSOKACKNOWLEDGE session that completes message processing.
C. An AUTOACKNOWLEDGE session that completes message processing.
D. A NOACKNOWLEDGE session that fails to complete message processing.
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
Which three options are available, when a TIBCO EMS client application makes a synchronous call to consume a message? (Choose three.)
A. block indefinitely until a message arrives
B. receive the next message if one is immediately available
C. do not block; return when the next message arrives
D. wait a specified time interval for the next message
E. if no message is immediately available, unblock for a specified time interval and then try again
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which value is valid for the TIBCO EMS server user auth parameter?
A. directory
B. ssl
C. enabled
D. system
Answer: D
Question 7.
A TIBCO EMS server has authorization enabled. The queues Q1. ITCertKeys .BAR, Q1. ITCertKeys , and with the secure property enabled, QUEUE.SAMPLE have been created. User ADMIN1 has also been created.
To give user ADMIN1 view privileges on all these queues except for QUEUE.SAMPLE, name the Administration Tool command which needs to be executed.
A. grant queue Q1.> ADMIN1 view
B. alter queue Q1.* allow ADMIN1 view
C. grant queue Q1.* ADMIN1 view
D. grant ADMIN1 view Q1.>
Answer: A
Question 8.
EMS is located on servers ITCertKeys A, ITCertKeys A, ITCertKeys C, as shown in the diagram.
Active-active routes are defined between each server and routing is enabled for all three servers. All routes belong to zone Z1. Queue ITCertKeys .bar has been created on Server ITCertKeys A. Routed queues have been created to Server ITCertKeys A from Server ITCertKeys A and
Server ITCertKeys C. ITCertKeys A.
For ITCertKeys .bar on server ITCertKeys A, a producer P has been created. A receiver R has been created for ITCertKeys .bar on server ITCertKeys C.
Choose the true statement.
A. If server ITCertKeys A fails, it will cause producer P to be blocked until server ITCertKeys A is
restarted.
B. If server ITCertKeys A fails, it will cause messages produced by P to be stored on server
ITCertKeys A.
C. If server ITCertKeys A fails, it will cause messages produced by P to be lost, until server
ITCertKeys A is restarted.
D. If server ITCertKeys A fails, it will cause messages produced by P to be stored on server
ITCertKeys C.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Choose two statements below which are true about message selectors.6 (Choose two.)
A. Message selectors can be created for a consumer using the Administration Tool.
B. More than one message consumer can have the same message selector.
C. A message consumer with a message selector can be created using the API method
session.createSelector ().
D. A message consumer with a message selector can be created using the API method
session.createConsumer().
Answer: B, D
Question 10.
While Server ITCertKeys 2 has a passive route to Server ITCertKeys 1, Server ITCertKeys 1 has an active route to Server ITCertKeys 2. Both servers have authorization enabled.
Name the true statement.
A. Server ITCertKeys 1 and Server ITCertKeys 2 must create user B for the routes to connect
successfully.
B. Server ITCertKeys 1 must create user B, and Server ITCertKeys 2 must create user A for the
routes to connect successfully.
C. Server ITCertKeys 1 and Server ITCertKeys 2 must create user A for the routes to connect
successfully.
D. Server ITCertKeys 1 must create user A, and Server ITCertKeys 2 must create user B for the
routes to connect successfully.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Choose which two statements below are true about TIBCO EMS message tracing.
(Choose two.)
A. Tracing can be used to trace the message ID, message sequence, and message body of
individual messages.
B. To disable message tracing on a destination, a removeprop command is performed from the
Administration Tool.
C. Message tracing cannot be used to trace messages that are routed between servers.
D. Message tracing cannot be specified at the message level.
E. Message tracing can be enabled on destinations by performing an alter destination trace=true
command from the Administration Tool.
Answer: A, B
Question 12.
Choose the two statements which are true about reliable delivery mode for TIBCO EMS.
(Choose two.)
A. Reliable delivery mode is part of JMS specifications.
B. All message publish calls will succeed unless the connection to the server has been
terminated.
C. Reliable delivery mode decreases the volume of network traffic.
D. Reliable delivery mode can be used only with topics and cannot be used with queues.
Answer: B, C
Question 13.
Name the statement which is true about threads in a TIBCO EMS client application.
A. Connections are single threaded and sessions are multi-threaded.
B. Connections are multi-threaded and sessions are multi-threaded.
C. Connections are single threaded and sessions are single threaded.
D. Connections are multi-threaded and sessions are single threaded.
Answer: D
Question 14.
Choose two statements about the behavior of a TIBCO EMS client application which are true. (Choose two.)
A. While processing a consumed message, no other messages may be received.
B. While processing a consumed message, synchronous messages using the same session may
be received.
C. While processing a consumed message, no other messages may be received using the same
session.
D. Using the same session, JMS Messages may be sent while processing a message consumed
synchronously.
E. While processing a consumed message, asynchronous messages using the same session
may be received.
Answer: C, D
Question 15.
As a JMS application property data type, which three types of data can be used? (Choose three.)
A. boolean
B. int
C. byte array
D. String
E. char
F. Date Time object
Answer: A, B, D
Question 16.
Name the command, executed on Server A, which creates an active-passive route from
Server A to Server B (Server B fault tolerant with Server C) that also restricts messages
on topic ITCertKeys .bar to messages with a Quantity application property greater than 10?
A. create route A url=tcp://B:7454,tcp://C:7454 zonename=Z1 zonetype=1hop
outgoingtopic= ITCertKeys .bar filter="Quantity > 10"
B. create route B url=tcp://B:7454|tcp://C:7454 zonename=Z1 zonetype=mhop
outgoingtopic= ITCertKeys .bar filter="Quantity > 10"
C. create route B url=tcp://B:7454,tcp://C:7454 zonename=Z1 zonetype=mhop
outgoingtopic= ITCertKeys .bar selector="Quantity > 10"
D. create route B url=tcp://B:7454,tcp://C:7454 zonename=Z1 zonetype=mhop
incomingtopic= ITCertKeys .bar selector="Quantity > 10"
Answer: C
Question 17.
Explain how you could make the most efficient use of network bandwidth in a TIBCO EMS application that sends very large XML documents.
A. You use a simple message, put the XML document in an application property and set the
vendor compression property to true.
B. You use an Object Message and convert the XML document to a Java object.
C. You use a Text Message and set the vendor compression property to true.
D. You use a Bytes Message to send the XML document as a byte stream.
Answer: C
Question 18.
Queue q1.> has the exclusive property set.
Explain how this property can be removed from the queue q1. ITCertKeys .
A. The queue must be deleted and recreated.
B. alter queue q1. ITCertKeys exclusive=disabled
C. removeprop queue q1. ITCertKeys exclusive
D. The exclusive property cannot be directly removed from q1. ITCertKeys .
Answer: D
Question 19.
Name the two statements about message compression which are true. (Choose two.)
A. Messages are compressed by the server.
B. The administrator can set compression at the destination level.
C. A property needs to be set at the message level.
D. It is recommended to use compression when the message bodies will be large and the
messages will be stored on a server.
E. The application needs to call specific compression methods.
Answer: C, D
Question 20.
When using TIBCO EMS message selectors in client applications, which two are valid performance considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Server performance can be negatively impacted when message selectors are used.
B. Messages NOT selected can consume server resources when message selectors with queue
messages are used.
C. Client performance can be negatively impacted when message selectors are used.
D. More network bandwidth is required when message selectors are used.
Answer: A, B
|
Question 1.
When (if ever) does a purchaser have the right to resell nonconforming goods and deduct reasonable sales costs from proceeds? (Choose all that apply)
A. If the purchaser has paid for the goods and owns them
B. If the purchaser has rejected the goods, and the supplier has not responded in a reasonable
time
C. If the purchaser has accepted the goods and then found them in nonconformance
D. Never.
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Which of the following is NOT a technique for increasing minority business participation?
A. negotiation
B. expediting supplier payment
C. establishing reasonable specifications
D. cooperative purchasing
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a trade association?
A. To advance the cause of the profession
B. To continually search for best practices in the industry
C. To lobby for the interests of the industries represented
D. To provide educational and research benefits to members
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the MOST important thing a purchasing manager should do when meeting with outside organizations?
A. Make sure that all presentations are given in a professional manner
B. Avoid any impression of impropriety
C. Know as much about the audience as possible
D. Take meeting notes and reviewing them with the legal department
Answer: B
Question 5.
With which of the following does responsibility for resolving the cost aspects of a defective purchased product usually lie?
A. The manufacturing manager.
B. The financial manager.
C. The purchasing manager.
D. The accounting manager.
Answer: C
Question 6.
If a purchasing manager is represented by buying an organization in a meeting with a governmental body. The manager could possibly embark in the following:
A. explaining the organization's new MRP system
B. promoting the business to other participants
C. negotiating for the buying organization
D. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of various types of contractual arrangements
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following procedures for dealing with businesses that have social or economical
disadvantages, if a purchasing manager considers: (Choose all that apply)
A. That the staff of such businesses may have had limited exposure to technical contract
language
B. That exceptions may be needed to accommodate faster payment of invoices from such
businesses
C. That goods or services of lower than usual quality may be accepted from such businesses
D. That such businesses may need information on the bidding process
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Choose two of the following options that are usually amongst the functions of the material manager of? (Choose two)
A. Stores and receiving
B. Quality control
C. Traffic management
D. Accounts payable
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
With regard to decision-making capability of cross-functional sourcing teams which of the following is TRUE?
A. Better decisions than individuals.
B. Quick decisions than individuals.
C. Requiring the input of suppliers.
D. Poor substitute for individual decisions.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which software type is BEST applicable when using in the analysis of a competitive bid?
A. Application
B. Interface
C. Scientific
D. Operating system
Answer: A
Question 11.
You work as a buyer at Company.com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement process.
Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and
operating manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized
service agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
Answer: A, B, C
Question 12.
Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received
B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists
D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A
Question 13.
With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
Answer: D
Question 14.
Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an organization's integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant
B. Involvement in product design
C. Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B
Question 15.
Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
Answer: D
Question 16.
Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier's strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing, production,
and engineering.
Answer: C
Question 17.
If a supplier's level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer's company at the supplier's plant
B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer's
company's quality control department
D. Label "Quality of Material is Critical" on the purchase order
Answer: A
Question 18.
If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76 centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3 standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20 centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
The startup procedure for a WLM-managed stored procedure address space contains a DD statement for CEEDUMP. The Language Environment writes a small diagnostic dump to CEEDUMP when a stored procedure terminates abnormally. The output for this sump waits to print until the stored procedures address space terminates. The dump can be obtained by
A. issuing the stored procedure address space's print dump command.
B. Restarting the stored procedure environment with dump print mode on
C. Terminating work load manager for the stored procedure address space
D. Stopping the stored procedures address space running the stored procedure
Answer: D
Question 2.
Given the following syntax:
CREATE TABLESPACE CERTTSPT
IN DB2CERT
USING STOGROUP CERTSTG
PRIQTY 240
SECQTY 120
FREEPAGE 20
SEGSIZE 8
ERASE NO
LOCKSIZE PAGE
LOCKMAX SYSTEM
CLOSE NO;
How often will DB2 leave a page of free space when the table space is initially loaded or reorganized?
A. Every 7th page will be empty
B. Every 8th page will be empty
C. Every 20th page will be empty
D. Every 21st page will be empty
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following catalog tables in the test environment should the DBA query to calculate the number of data sets to be added to production prior to migrating a new database?
A. SYSTABLES and SYSINDEXES
B. SYSTABLEPART and SYSINDEXPART
C. SYSTABSTATS and SYSINDEXSTATS
D. SYSTABLESPAC and SYSINDEXSPACE
Answer: B
Question 4.
If adding a second highly-correlated column, CITY, to an index on ZIPCODE (postal code), which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Queries requiring only these two columns may benefit from index-only access.
B. The index will become larger, potentially increasing I/0 and reducing buffer pool hit ratios.
C. FIRSTKEYCARDF and FULLKEYCARDF will reflect correlation between these two columns
when RUNSTATS are collected for the index.
D. Two matching columns on the index will provide greater filtering than one matching column on
ZIPCODE.
Answer: D
Question 5.
When a new TSO user is connected to a RACF group, when does the change become visible to DB2?
A. Immediately
B. At the next TSO logon
C. After the RACF group is refreshed
D. After the DB2 subsystem is recycled
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of the following catalog statistics can be used to determine when to run REORG INDEX?
A. AVGROWLEN
B. FREESPACE
C. NACTIVEF
D. PSEUDO_DEL_ENTRIES
Answer: D
Question 7.
An index IX1 is defined on table T1 using column COL1 in ASC order. An application declares a cursor using table T1 with an ORDER BY COL1 DESC. The application needs the data in table T1 in descending order on COL1. The application DBA wants to minimize resources and avoid a sort.
Which of the following is the best solution to allow the access path to avoid a sort yet get the application data in the correct order?
A. Do nothing; DB2 will use index index IX1 using a backward index scan.
B. Remove the ORDER BY COL1 DESC from the SELECT statement.
C. Rewrite the query using ORDER BY COL1 ASC and use a FETCH LAST statement.
D. Define another index IX2 on table T1 using column COL1 DESC DB2 will use this index and
avoid a SORT.
Answer: A
Question 8.
BACKUP SYSTEM FULL utility includes which TWO of the following?
A. BSDS copy pool
B. Logs copy pools
C. Buffer pool copies
D. Work files copy pools
E. Database copy pools
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
The following command is issued:
-DESPLAY DB (DBTST1A) SPACE ( * ) RESTRICT LIMIT ( * )
The result of the command show that table space TS1 PARTITIONS 03, 04, and 05 have the following status; RW,REORP.
Based on the status information, which of the following should the DBA use to remove the restrictions and prepare the data production access?
A. LOAD DATA RESUME YES PART 3:5
B. RECOVER TABLESPACE DBTST1A.TS1
C. REORG TABLESPACE DBT1A.TS1 PART 3:5
D. REORG TABLESPACE DBTST1A.TS1 PART 3:5 SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
Answer: C
Question 10.
The current design of a transaction table has divided the data into 13 partitions. Each partition contains one month of data that partitioned on the transaction date. At the end of the month the data from the oldest month will be discarded. The DBA wants to maintain availability of the partitions and to reuse the old partition for the new month's data.
Which of the following monthly jobs would best accomplish the design requirement?
A. Add a new high partition for the new month and drop the oldest partition.
B. Unload the existing data, drop and re-create the table space and reload the data.
C. Alter the table partition and rotate the first partition to be the last partition.
D. Alter the high-key values for each partition and reorganize the table space to redistribute the
data.
Answer: C
Question 11.
A table encounters heavy insert processing every night. Although the number of inserts remains unchanged, the time that the insert processing takes increase each night.
What should the DBA examine?
A. DB2 log parameters
B. Free space allocation
C. Buffer pool threshold
D. Primary space allocation
Answer: B
Question 12.
Which of the following tool automatically keeps administrators up-to-date on database performance
A. DB2 Extender
B. Health Center
C. Command Center
D. Visual Explain
Answer: B
Question 13.
A single index is defined with two columns: COL1 and COL2. Which of the following WHERE clauses is eligible to utilize this index for matching multi-index access?
A. WHERE COL1 = 1 OR COL2 = 'AB'
B. WHERE COL1 IN (1,2,3,4,5)
C. WHERE COL1 = 1 OR COL < > 2 AND COL2 = 'AB')
D. WHERE COL1 = 1 OR (COL1 = 2 AND COL2 < > 'AB')
Answer: D
Question 14.
After applying DB2 maintenance, a static SQL statement no longer performs as it did prior to applying the maintenance. A row currently exist in the plan_table for this SQL statement.
Which of the following steps can be performed to re-establish the SQL's previous performance without modifying the original SQL statement?
A. Run EXPLAIN for this SQL statement specifying the use of optimizer hints.
B. Update the appropriate columns in the plan_table to enable an optimizer hint and REBIND
package.
C. Insert a row in the plan_table for this SQL statement that uses an optimizer hint and BIND
package.
D. Delete current row in plan_table for this SQL statement, turn on the hint feature and REBIND
package.
Answer: B
Question 15.
An MEPL (module entry point list) can be used to determine the maintenance level of a DB2 module.
Which of the following utilities can be used to get this information?
A. REPAIR
B. DIAGNOSE
C. DSN1 COPY
D. DSN1PRINT
Answer: B
Question 16.
A statement in the global cache is dependent on table space TS1.
Which of the following processes or actions will invalidate statements that refer To TS1 that are in the global cache?
A. Run REORG against the DB2 catalog.
B. Run RUNSTATS against table space TS1
C. Run CHECK DATA against table space TS1
D. Issue the - SET CACHE, TS1 REFRESH command.
Answer: B
Question 17.
Which of the following best describes the impact to a trigger when the table on which the trigger is dependent is dropped?
A. The trigger rows are removed from SYSIBM.SYSTRIGGERS and SYSIBM.SYSPACKAGE.
B. The triggers rows are marked as invalid in SYSIBM.SYSTRIGGERS, and the
SYSIBM.SYSPACKAGE.
C. The trigger rows are removed from SYSIBM.SYSTRIGGERS, and the triggers package is
marked as invalid and non-operative in SYSIBM.SYSPACKAGE.
D. The trigger rows are removed from SYSIBM.SYSTRIGGERS, and the triggers package is
marked as invalid but is still operative in SYSIBM.SYSPACKAGE.
Answer: A
Question 18.
Which of the following DB2 traces would allow the DBA to determine if there any failures for the log data sets occurring in the DB2 subsystem throughout the day?
A. Log
B. Audit
C. Statistics
D. Accounting
Answer: C
Question 19.
A newly created partitioned table space has been created with the DFINE NO attribute.
Which of the following is the best way to ensure partition parallelism when initially loading the table?
A. No special considerations needed partition parallelism will always be enforced.
B. For a PARTITIONED TABLE SPACE WITH define no, THE INITIAL LOAD CANNOT USE
PARTITION PARALLELISM.
C. Run a load job without specifying the PART n clause. DB2 will automatically use partition
parallelism when possible.
D. Run a load job with a empty data file for the first partition. Then run the load jobs for each
partition in parallel.
Answer: D
Question 20.
The PAYROLL table is defined with AUDIT ALL.A TSO user has the user ID DBA 007 with primary authorization-id JONES and secondary authorization-id PAYGROUP.
This user updates a row in the PAYROLL TABLE after issuing a SET CURRENT SQLID = 'PAYGROUP'. In this situation, what authorization-id used in a DB2 audit trace record?
A. JONES
B. DBA007
C. DISTSERV
D. PAYGROUP
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
A Hyperion Business Rule (HBR) is being created to calculate benefit expense by Entity based on total salaries, which have been calculated for individual employees. Total Entity benefits need to be displayed when the calculation is complete.
What is the correct sequence order of the components within HBR?
A. custom calculation, aggregate benefits, aggregate salaries
B. custom calculations, aggregate salaries, aggregate benefits
C. aggregate salaries, custom calculation, aggregate benefits
D. aggregate benefits, aggregate salaries, custom calculations
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which Financial Reporting features are specific to using the Planning Details ADM driver? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Planning Unit Annotations
B. Meta Data Security
C. Row and Column Templates
D. Supporting Details
E. Account Annotations
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
The budget process is now closed. The application contains a User Group that all users are included in. They want to change access on the budget Scenario from write to read only for all budget users.
What is the correct way to change access?
A. modify the NT User Group access to read only
B. update the User Group Web Forms access to read only
C. edit the User Group Access on the budget Scenario to Read
D. change the Group Security Filters to read only in Essbase Application Manager
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which three choices describe the functionality of time periods that apply to Scenarios? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Modify the start and end year
B. Add years to the application
C. Specify to use Beginning Balance for a time period
D. Years and periods outside of the range are read-only on Web forms
Answer: A, C, D
Question 5.
If you choose the Use Calculator Cache option in the Aggregate Data component, what two statements are true? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. The CALCCACHE setting must be included in the Essbase.cfg file.
B. It can significantly improve calculation performance.
C. It only improves calculation performance on two pass calculations.
D. In the Analytic Services setting, the CALCCACHE setting must be selected.
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
What option contributes to making an Enhanced Calc Script more flexible over a native Calc Script?
A. Can be run from the Planning web
B. @CALCMODE function
C. Run-time prompts
D. Run on save
Answer: C
Question 7.
When refreshing the database in a multi-currency application, what can be selected to create a Currency Conversion Calc Script?
A. Currency, Scenario, Version Type, and Version
B. Currency, Scenario, Year, Exchange Rate Type, and Version
C. Currency, Scenario, Year, Version Type, and Version
D. Currency, Scenario, Year, and Exchange Rate Type
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two are valid steps to help identify the relational databases associated with Hyperion Planning applications? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. View the Hsp Js Home. properties file.
B. View the HSX_DATASOURCES table in the repository.
C. View the Connection tab in the relevant UDL files.
D. Within the Planning Desktop, view Application Creator Security Group.
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
What are three valid variables to consider about Hyperion Planning application Web performance? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Network bandwidth
B. Number of users that exist within the application
C. Server hardware specifications
D. Design of existing web forms
Answer: A, C, D
Question 10.
In an application outline, Product is a custom dimension, Accounts is dense, and the summary time periods (Quarters and Year Total) on the Time Periods dimension are set to Dynamic Calc.
How can an administrator accurately build a calculation for Gross Margin % by product for all Time Periods?
A. Use a Hyperion Business Rule (HBR)
B. Use Hyperion Analytic Services MaxL
C. Use an Analytic Services calc script
D. Use a member formula with dynamic calc storage
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which step is necessary prior to loading attribute values using Hyperion Application Link?
A. collapse the dimension in the Hyperion Planning Dimension Editor
B. add the attribute dimension in Analytic Administration Services
C. assign the attribute to a dimension in the Hyperion Planning Dimension Editor
D. refresh the database
Answer: C
Question 12.
Which two statements are true about assigning members to plan types? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. If you have more than one plan type in an application, you cannot assign more than one plan
type to an individual dimension member.
B. If the plan type is not assigned to a member, that member's children will not have access to
that plan type or its aggregation options.
C. If you use a User-defined custom dimension, you can specify the source plan type for the
members.
D. If User-defined custom dimension has been assigned to a plan type in the application, you
cannot assign which members are valid in that plan type.
Answer: B, D
Question 13.
Which Hyperion Application Link Adapter can be used for loading data values?
A. Hyperion Analytic Services Adapter
B. Hyperion Planning Adapter
C. Hyperion Business Rules Adapter
D. Hyperion Smart View for Office Adapter
Answer: A
Question 14.
Supporting Detail can have which two properties? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Data can be in hierarchical form and include aggregation of values.
B. It can only be text information, no data can be input.
C. Data can be filled across a series of columns.
D. Detail cannot be deleted once created.
E. Detail can be retrieved in the Spreadsheet Add-in.
Answer: A, C
Question 15.
What is necessary prior to loading shared members using Hyperion Application Link?
A. Refresh the database
B. Load the base member
C. Expand the dimension in the Hyperion Planning Desktop
D. Create the shared member's parent members in Analytic Administration Services
Answer: B
Question 16.
Which two statements about account level annotations are true? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Account level annotations can have 1500 characters.
B. A specific option must be selected in the display options page to enable the account level
annotations.
C. To enable the account level annotations, the Web form design does not matter.
D. Only parent level members can have account level annotations.
Answer: A, B
Question 17.
Which three Data Types are valid for the Account dimension? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Non-Currency
B. Currency
C. Statistical
D. Percentage
E. Average
Answer: A, B, D
Question 18.
Which three statements about Shared Members are correct? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Access cannot be assigned to a shared member.
B. Shared Members are only available for the Entity Dimension.
C. There is no limit to the number of shared members you can create for the base member.
D. Shared Members cannot be moved to a new parent.
E. Custom Attributes and Member Formulas are not allowed for Shared Members.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 19.
Which three statements differentiate the Currencies dimension from the HSP_Rates dimension? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Currency is displayed in the Available Currencies Link on the Enter Data page on the Web.
B. Currency includes reporting currencies.
C. Currency includes non-reporting currencies.
D. Currency stores foreign currency exchange rates.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 20.
What are two best practices for using Hyperion Planning User Groups? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Assigning access to Web Forms
B. Assigning access to Hyperion Business Rules (HBR)
C. Assigning access to Financial Reporting
D. Assigning access to Dimension Members
Answer: A, D
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