|
Question 1. A medium sized company has a small SAN with three Thunder 9580V subsystems. They have purchased HiCommand Device Manager as a way to centrally manage the storage. You dispatch HiCommand Device Manager agents on each server on their SAN. What are two advantages of adding the agents to the servers? (Choose two.) A. to provision host-side storage B. to retrieve HBA performance metrics C. to retrieve information about the visible storage on the host D. to retrieve zoning information from the Fibre Channel switch Answer: A, C Question 2. HDS Adaptable Modular Storage models (AMS200 and AMS500) provide efficient cost-effective storage for medium and small businesses. Which three attributes characterize the AMS product line? (Choose three.) A. high availability B. cache partitioning C. ease of management D. large-scale virtualization E. heterogeneous storage consolidation Answer: A, B, C Question 3. Which three tools or resources are used to script Shadow Image operations? (Choose three.) A. HORCM files B. CMD devices C. Raid Manager D. Storage Navigator E. Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager Answer: A, B, C Question 4. TrueCopy offers synchronous and asynchonous capabilities. What are two advantages of synchronous operation? (Choose two.) A. no data loss B. faster disaster recovery C. supports longer distances D. lesser impact on host performance Answer: A, B Question 5. A Hitachi Data Systems customer's IT department cannot determine why they are experiencing an application performance bottleneck. They need a tool which will allow them to monitor and analyze all hardware and software components that support the application. Which software tool will accomplish this task? A. Performance Maximizer B. HiCommand Tuning Manager C. HiCommand Device Manager D. HiCommand Tiered Storage Manager Answer: B Question 6. HiCommand Tuning Manager has an export functionality that exports the data collected from network resources and applications into an external file. Which format is used by the HiCommand Tuning Manager's export functionality? A. XML B. HTML C. Tab Separated Values (TVS) D. Comma Separated Values (CVS) Answer: D Question 7. Which two are core functionalities of the HiCommand Tuning Manager software? (Choose two.) A. auto-failover B. failure monitoring C. resource analysis D. hardware management Answer: B, C Question 8. What are two values that HiCommand Device Manager software provides about storage management? (Choose two.) A. an error reporting interface to the HiTrack software B. performance data on the HDS storage subsystems C. storage provisioning across multiple operating systems D. a single point to manage multiple storage systems over multiple HDS platforms Answer: C, D Question 9. Which two additional license based features can be enabled on an AMS storage subsystem using the Storage Navigator Modular GUI? (Choose two.) A. HiTrack B. True Copy C. Hitachi Graph Track D. Hitachi Data Retention Utility Answer: B, D Question 10. You have created a P-Vol/S-Vol pair. Which two commands can you use to check that the P-Vol and S-Vol are synchronized? (Choose two.) A. raidscan B. paircheck C. pairstatus D. pairdisplay Answer: A, D Question 11. ITCertKeys.com wishes to minimize disruptions due to planned or unplanned outages. Which two features of Hitachi Copy-on-Write Snapshot facilitate these requirements? (Choose two) A. metadata cache copy B. background copy of data to snapshot C. non-disruptive backups from a Copy-on-Write Snapshot V-Vol D. periodic point-in-time copies for rapid restore of corrupted data Answer: C, D Question 12. An AMS500 is able to connect to a port of a TagmaStore USP storage array, providing storage virtualization. USP ports that are dedicated to connecting to other storage arrays have a special descriptor. What is the correct name for this type of port? A. internal B. special C. modular D. external Answer: D Question 13. Which two additional license based features can be enabled on an AMS storage subsystem using the Storage Navigator Modular GUI? (Choose two.) A. HiTrack B. True Copy C. Hitachi Graph Track D. Hitachi Data Retention Utility Answer: B, D Question 14. ITCertKeys.com needs to immediately apply a security patch to an application and is worried about corrupting data in that process. Which local replication tool allows the immediate creation of a point-in-time copy of data that can be used for a restore in the event of data corruption? A. True Copy B. Shadow Image C. Quick Copy Plus D. Copy-on-Write Snapshot Answer: D Question 15. ITCertKeys.com has a WMS100 array to support an archiving solution. Archiving solutions are batch processes that have low performance requirements. Which configuration alternative is supported on the WMS100? A. SATA or FC disks B. one or two controllers C. one or two host FC ports per controller D. one or two back-end loops per controller Answer: B Question 16. An IT operations manager needs to forecast hardware purchases for the coming fiscal year. The manager has been assigned a HiCommand Tuning Manager login in order to accomplish this task. Which security level is appropriate for the manager? A. users B. operators C. managers D. administrators Answer: A Question 17. ITCertKeys.com is using a 9585V storage array and is evaluating whether to upgrade to an AMS500 for performance reasons. Which statement is true? A. The AMS500 supports larger drive sizes. B. The AMS500 provides more back-end loops. C. The AMS500 supports faster back-end loops. D. The AMS500 supports faster Fibre Channel host connections. Answer: D Question 18. IT centers running business applications on MS Windows 2003 servers often need to run in a clustered configuration to support Service Level Agreements (SLA). Which two cluster environments are supported by Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager for modular storage? (Choose two.) A. Oracle RAC B. TruCluster Server C. Veritas Cluster Server D. Novel Netware Cluster Server Answer: A, C Question 19. ITCertKeys.com has a high performance application that creates a bottleneck at the front-end ports. Which two arrays are supported Hitachi Data Systems configurations? (Choose two.) A. AMS500 with four 4Gb/s host ports B. AMS500 with eight 2Gb/s host ports C. Thunder 9585V with four 4Gb/s host ports D. Thunder 9585V with eight 2Gb/s host ports Answer: A, D Question 20. ITCertKeys.com requires an array that can sustain a power outage without losing write data in cache. Which two ways does an HDS modular array protect write data in cache? (Choose two.) A. cache RAID 5 B. battery backup C. mirror write I/O to NVRAM D. mirror write I/O to other controller's cache Answer: B, D
|
Question 1.
Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies. You are configuring a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to utilize QoS and have configured the platinum queue on the controller.
However, the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch to provide the necessary QoS for voice clients on the wireless network?
A. Enable 802dot1p
B. Config wlan qos wlan-id platinum
C. Swithchport priority extend cos 5
D. Mls qos trust dscp
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which properties are of an AP in H-REAP mode?
A. Allows some SSID/VLAN traffic to be switched locally while other SSID/VLAN traffic has full
LWAPP functionality
B. Support Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming
C. Can switch client data traffic locally
D. Perform client authentication locally when its connection to the controller is lost
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 3.
Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. UDP 12222 and 12223
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. TCP 16666 and 16667
Answer: A
Question 4.
The IEEE 802.11 standards define different encryption mechanisms.
Which is the basic of defining the most secure encryption solution in IEEE 802.11 standards?
A. WEP
B. AES-CCMP
C. IPSEC
D. TKIP
Answer: B
Question 5.
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational
B. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known
D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller
Answer: A
Question 6.
A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network by use of controllers. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)
A. On the Cisco WCS
B. On the RADIUS Server
C. On the Access Point
D. On the Client
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error.
Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?
A. Show exlusionlist
B. Show database summary
C. Show sysinfo
D. Show wps summary
Answer: B
Question 8.
Can you tell me when a client will provide an AP with its version of Cisco Compatible Extensions for WLAN devices?
A. In an 802.11 association or reassociation request frame
B. When the AP sends an unsolicited update embedded in a beacon packet
C. Upon successful EAP or dot1x authentication to the AP
D. In a Broadcast probe request packet
Answer: A
Question 9.
Wi-Fi Multimedia is a technology maintaining the priority of audio, video and voice applications in a Wi-Fi network so that other applications and traffic are less likely to slow them.
A. Definition of the differentiated services filed
B. Enhanced Distributed Coordination Function mechanism
C. Four Access categories: A label for the common set of Enhanced Distributed Channel Access
parameters that are used by a WMM STA to contend for the channel in order to transmit
MSDUs with certain priorities
D. Unscheduled Service Period. The service period that is started when a WMM STA transmits a
trigger frame to the WMM AP
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
Before sending a frame over a medium and verifying that the medium is free, which process does a wireless client go through?
A. Send an RTS frame, receive a CTS frame, then transmit the frame
B. Verify that NAV = 0, then transmit the frame
C. Send a CTS frame, receive an RTS frame, then transmit the frame
D. Check that NAV = 0, generate a random backoff, verify that the channel is free, verify that slot
times = 0, then transmit the frame
Answer: D
Question 11.
The 2.4-GHz wavelength is about 4.92 inches (12.5 cm), if you want to support diversity on a 2.4-GHz radio, at what distance is it recommended you put two separate antennas?
A. 12.2 inches (30.99)
B. 7.6 inches (19.30 cm)
C. 24.6 inches (62.5 cm)
D. 4.92 inches (12.5 cm)
Answer: D
Question 12.
Your work as a network engineer at Your company. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:
Assume that a WLAN Controller has two AP and three Cisco 7921 IP Phones:
In order to have good Voice quality, which item is true with regard to the RF configuration displayed?
A. 802.11a channels are manually configured. This is not allowed in a DFS environment
B. The configured channels (Ch-36 and Ch-40) are "side/adjacent channels". The 5 GHz
channels overlap their adjacent channels so there should be at least 1 channel of separation
for adjacent APs
C. Cisco Recommends using 802.11b/g deployment for voice to prevent interferences with
microwave ovens and Bluetooth devices
D. The configured "'Fragmentation Threshold" (2346) is too low for a voice deployment
Answer: B
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.