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Question 1.
Exhibit:
In an aggregate storage database, "Profit per Ounce" (Measures dimension) and "Variance %" (Scenario dimension) are dynamically calculated members. To determine Variance %, you use this formula:
((Actual - Budget)/Budget )* 100)
Which two solve order options (member - solver order) will produce the results shown in the spreadsheet shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Measures - 0 Profit Per Ounce - 0 Scenario - 0 Variance % - 1
B. Measures - 2 Profit Per Ounce - 1 Scenario - 1 Variance % - 2
C. Measures - 2 Profit Per Ounce - 0 Scenario - 0 Variance % - 1
D. Measures - 0 Profit Per Ounce - 1 Scenario - 0 Variance % - 0
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
What are two ways to improve dataload speed in block storage? (Choose two.)
A. load the file from the server
B. sort data files in order by Sparse dimensions
C. load the file from the client
D. sort data files in order by Dense dimensions
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
Time is a Dense dimension and QTR1, QTR2 and QTR3 are stored members.
How many passes through the database result from the following calculation script? (QTR1; QTR2;) QTR3;
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Answer: B
Question 4.
When creating an aggregate storage database, which three statements are true about hierarchies? (Choose three.)
A. The first hierarchy under a dimension must be stored.
B. Stored hierarchies within a Multiple Hierarchies Enabled dimension can have shared
members.
C. While not advisable, shared members can appear in the outline before their stored
counterpart.
D. Dimensions tagged as Dynamic can contain both shared members and members with
formulas.
E. When a hierarchy is tagged as Multiple Hierarchies Enabled, it must be label only.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
B: Answer B should be included as a correct answer since stored hierarchies can have shared members, so long as Multiple Hierarchies is Enabled.
See Hyperion's very own ASOSamp Basic database example:
Question 5.
You have an environment with 100 combined Hyperion Planning and Hyperion Essbase users. All 100 users require access to Planning and 50 users require additional access to native Essbase. You have purchased just enough licenses for these users.
Considering e-licensing requirements, which statement is correct?
A. You have 100 Planning licenses to accommodate both Essbase and Planning requirements.
B. You have 150 native Essbase licenses to accommodate both Essbase and Planning
requirements.
C. You have 50 native Essbase licenses and 100 separate licenses for Planning.
D. You have 100 native Essbase licenses to accommodate both Essbase and Planning
requirements.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Given the Data Prep Editor shown in the exhibit, what defines the field 3 header to build Markets dimension?
A. UDA0, Markets
B. Level1, Markets
C. Userattrib2, Markets
D. Parent0, Markets
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which two statements are true about incremental data loads? (Choose two.)
A. Incremental data loads are supported for all outlines in a block storage database.
B. Incremental data loads are supported only for outlines that do not change in an aggregate
storage database.
C. Incremental data loads are supported for outlines that change in an aggregate storage
database.
D. Incremental data loads are not supported in an aggregate storage database.
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
Which directory should be included in your backup process for your aggregate storage database?
A. Hyperion_Home\common
B. arborpath\locale
C. arborpath\bin
D. arborpath\app\appname
Answer: D
Question 9.
Members in the Attribute Calculations dimension should be _____.
A. used to create crosstab reports with other Measures
B. invoked without any Attribute dimension members involved
C. viewed in the Outline Editor
D. used in calc scripts
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the effect of deleting the sparse shared member Diet Cola assuming data values exist?
A. The page file size shrinks.
B. The block size is smaller.
C. The block density increases.
D. The outline file shrinks.
Answer: D
Question 11.
When should you select User-Defined Attribute (UDA) functionality, as opposed to Attribute dimension functionality? (Choose two.)
A. when utilizing Attribute Calculations dimensions
B. when providing filtering on Dense dimensions
C. when providing crosstab reports
D. when applying attributes to multiple dimensions
Answer: B, D
Question 12.
In block storage database, data are stored in the essn.pag file. In aggregate storage, which three locations on a file system store data? (Choose three.)
A. arborpath\app\appname\default\essn.dat
B. arborpath\app\appname\data\essn.dat
C. arborpath\app\appname\common\essn.dat
D. arborpath\app\appname\metadata\essn.dat
E. arborpath\app\appname\log\essn.dat
Answer: A, D, E
Question 13.
What does the Data Cache contain?
A. the addresses of data blocks on the disk
B. a record of recently accessed data blocks
C. compressed data blocks
D. uncompressed data blocks
Answer: D
Question 14.
What does aggregate storage partitioning support?
A. transparent partition as the target.
B. aggregate storage as the source
C. block storage as the source
D. outline synchronization
Answer: B
Question 15.
When will a default calc ( CALC ALL ) calculate Two-Pass members in one pass?
A. when Time is dense and Accounts is sparse
B. when the Time tag is used and the dimension is dense
C. when the Account and Time dimensions are dense
D. when the Accounts tag is used and the dimension is dense
Answer: C
Question 16.
Incremental Restructuring is enabled. Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions.
If you reverse the order of these two Sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication?
A. restructure deferred
B. none
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
Answer: D
Question 17.
You are using the CALC DIM command to calculate a sparse dimension.
Which SET CLEARUPDATESTATUS setting ensures that all blocks are tagged clean?
A. AFTER
B. OFF
C. ONLY
D. ON
Answer: A
Question 18.
Which two statements are true about how IFERROR operates in MaxL? (Choose two.)
A. If an executed command after the IFERROR statement fails, IFERROR skips to a predefined
label where it resumes execution.
B. IFERROR can be used only once in a batch script.
C. IFERROR can be used after every statement in a batch script
D. If a previously executed command fails, IFERROR skips subsequent statements, up to a
predefined label name.
Answer: C, D
Question 19.
What are three disadvantages of a transparent partition? (Choose three.)
A. slower query and calculation performance
B. increased network load
C. old level 0 data
D. redundant storage
E. higher degree of outline synchronization
Answer: A, B, E
Question 20.
Which statement is true about an aggregated storage database?
A. Data can be loaded to pre-aggregated views.
B. Data can be loaded to both level zero and non-level zero members.
C. Data can be loaded to level zero members only.
D. Data can be loaded to non-level zero members.
Answer: C
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Question 1. What are two ways to test the LAN connectivity on the Cisco CE520? (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following: A. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Distribution VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console. B. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Voice VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520 C. Ping default gateway from the Cisco CE520. D. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data VLAN from a device attached to the Cisco CE520 E. Ping default gateway from the Cisco UC520. F. Ping the IP address of the Cisco-Data Access VLAN from the Cisco UC520 console. Answer: B, D Question 2. Refer to the exhibit. What does "locking down" the router entail? A. disabling all the vulnerable services on the router. B. Disabling HTTPS access to Cisco SDM C. Shutting Down all the Router’s interfaces. D. Prohibiting console access to the router E. Preventing any alteration to the router’s running configuration Answer: A Question 3. What advantage does integrated messaging have over standard voice-mail systems? A. provides a toolbar to see the status of coworkers. B. provides text versions of your voice-mail messages. C. eliminates the need for a live operator to answer the phone. D. forwards voice-mail messages to your email at .wav files. Answer: D Question 4. How are voice and data devices organized in the LAN for the Smart Business Communications System? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following: A. by LAN switchport assignment B. by VLAN association C. by work group affiliation D. by WAN address Answer: B Question 5. Which Cisco support service product targets customers with up to 48 users on a network where voice communication is mission-critical to business operation? A. Cisco SMARTnet for SBCS B. Cisco Technical Assistance Center C. Cisco Smart Care Service D. Cisco Smart Foundation Service E. SMARTnet Partner Service Answer: A Question 6. Basic phone support, fee-based add-on support, and VAR tech-to-tech assistance are components of which support option? A. Smart Care Service B. Cisco Smart Foundation Service C. Cisco Small Business products support D. Cisco SMARTnet Service Answer: C Question 7. What are three functions of the NTP protocol? (Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following: A. to connect to a reference source on the Internet B. to convert internal IP addresses to external IP addresses C. to install as an Intranet-based application D. to ensure that all network devices share a common time reference E. to provide routing functions at an ISR F. to aid in the collection of call detail records for billing Answer: A, D, F Question 8. Choose the two statements that apply to a typical SPA9000 Voice System setup in a SOHO or small business. (Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following: A. Analog phones can be connected via the available analog phone ports. B. Connection to the PSTN can be provided using the POTS gateway. C. The base SPA9000 system allows for up to sixteen (16) IP phones to place or receive calls. D. The expanded SPA9000 system provides support for up to twenty (20) IP phones. E. A fax machine can be used by connecting to one of four (4) available analog phone ports. Answer: A, D Question 9. What service does the Cisco Services Accelerate Program offer to registered Cisco Channel Partners? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following: A. additional product information storage B. two new incentive programs C. ability to market Cisco technologies and solutions D. four levels of certification E. a training curriculum designed to increase services Answer: E Question 10. What are three functions provided by all ISR models in a SMB network solution? (Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following: A. wireless connections B. modular upgrades C. QoS marking D. routing to WAN and Internet E. PoE F. VPN services Answer: C, D, F Question 11. What are three attributes of the SIP protocol? (Choose three.) A. assigns text-based device addresses B. sends requests to network gateways C. offers an alternative to Q.931 D. sessions are initiated by end devices E. works in conjunction with H.245 F. provides a secure communication path Answer: A, B, D Question 12. In a Cisco Integrated Security Design model, what three security measures are considered part of Infrastructure Protection? (Choose three.) Select exactly 3 answer(s) from the following: A. port-based security B. worm mitigation C. traffic control D. anti-spoofing E. VPN connections F. disabling unused services Answer: A, C, F
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