|
Question 8.
In DMT DSL transmission systems, what is the effect of turning off half of the available downstream carriers (tones)?
A. The downstream DSL bandwidth is reduced
B. The downstream line rate and throughput remains unchanged, but FEC efficiency is reduced.
C. The upstream DSL bandwidth can be increased, since more carriers become available for
upstream traffic.
D. Downstream RS error correction effectiveness is reduced.
Answer: A
Question 9.
The major difference between DMT and CAP is:
A. CAP uses a single center frequency, DMT is multiple-carrier
B. DMT is single-carrier, CAP is multiple-carried
C. CAP is used in IDSL; DMT is used in ADSL
D. DMT is used in VDSL; CAP is used in ADSL
E. CAP is used in ADSL; DMT is used in SDSL
Answer: A
Question 10
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What does the TCP PUSH flag indicate?
A. The data in the TCP receive buffer should be sent to the application listening to this TCP
connection without waiting for further data.
B. Any data being buffered by routers between the source and destination for this connection
should be sent immediately.
C. The sender should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
D. The session is about to end.
Answer: A
Question 11.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What is true concerning interleaved versus fastpath mode in DMT DSL service?
A. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL rates.
B. Interleaved mode allocates traffic to more than one ATM PVC
C. Interleaved mode allows greater forward error correction (FEC).
D. Fastpath mode gives data precedence over voice traffic.
Answer: C
Question 12.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What is the use of a VC class in IOS configuration?
A. It defines a template for virtual circuits which can be applied to a(sub)interfaces such that all
PVCs on that (sub)interface which will inherit the configuration from that template.
B. It defines various priorities for the PVCs to enable priority queuing of cells transmitted on a
sub(interface).
C. It is another name for Virtual Paths.
D. It is used to classify incoming cells on a physical interface as CBR/ABR/ and UBR traffic.
E. It defines a template for switching ATM pvcs from one interface to another.
Answer: A
Question 13.
You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com.
A DSL subscriber reports that the CPE modem untrains and retrains several times each hour, but tot at regular intervals. The subscriber has a DMT modem operating on 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm cable).
The provisioned downstream rate is 2 mbps, and the provisioned upstream rate is 256 kbps. When the modem retrains, the downstream DLS may be as low as 512 kbps.
Sometimes manually retraining the modem allows it to return to a 2 mbps line rate, and sometimes manually retraining the modem does not improve the DSL line rate.
Which options would cause the intermittent train/untrain symptom as described? (Select two)
A. A telephone on the same phone line was installed without a microfilter.
When the telephone handset is take off-hook, the phone causes excessive attenuation of the
DSL frequencies and the resulting high error rate results in a retrain. Because of the degraded
signal levels while the phone is off-hook, the modem can not retrain at 2 mbps.
B. There is an interfering signal in the same cable.
When the interfering signal is present, an excessive error rate results. The modem retrains at a
lower line rate in order to recover an acceptable noise margin and error rate.
C. The noise margin was incorrectly set too high.
Reducing the noise margin will correct the symptom.
D. ADSL DMT will not permit 2 mbps downstream rates at 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm
cable). ADSL 2 megabit service will always be unreliable and intermittent on this cable length
and wire size.
E. The DMT profile is using interleaved mode. Changing to fastpath will correct the symptom.
F. The ATM QoS is UBR, and the subscriber’s traffic is yielding to VBR or CBR traffic.
Answer: A, B
Question 14.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What is true concerning fastpath versus interleaved mode in DMT DLS service?
A. Fastpath mode provides lower latency (delay) than interleaved mode.
B. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL trained rates.
C. Fastpath mode allows higher effective throughput on noisy transmission lines.
D. Interleaved mode ensures that all provisional ATM PVCs on a DSL line are given equal
bandwidth.
Answer: A
Question 15.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is….
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
same network.
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update.
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path.
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 16.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What is the effect of changing DMT interleaved delay from 16 milliseconds to 2 milliseconds?
A. Fewer ATM PVCs can be provisioned on the DSL line.
B. Latency is reduced, but error correction effectiveness may also be reduced.
C. Latency remains the same, but faster error correction occurs.
D. Latency remains the same, but throughput is increased
Answer: B
Question 17.
Your boss at ITCertKeys.com is curios about DSL.
What ADSL DMT line rate requires (occupies) the most bandwidth on a telephone line?
A. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
B. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 9 kft (2.75 km) of cable.
C. 1 mbps downstream, 256 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
D. 512 kbps downstream, 128 kbps upstream on 17 kft (5.2 km) of cable.
Answer: A
Question 18.
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com.
A DMT DSL modem is working on a “shared line” with standard telephone service (POTS). When the subscriber picks up the telephone handset, the DSL modem untrains, then retrains at a lower DSL rate. When the telephone is not off-hook, the DSL modem will train at the subscribed rate (normal operation).
Which of the following is the probably cause of this symptom?
A. An improper DSL line rate was provisioned for shared lines.
B. A microfilter or splitter was not correctly installed between the telephone and the line.
C. The noise level on the telephone line will not allow DSL and POTS voice at the same time.
D. An incorrect DMT operating mode was provisioned in the DSLAM.
Answer: B
Question 19.
Network topology exhibit
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com.
Host ITCertKeys1 and Host ITCertKeys2 are on Ethernet LANs in different buildings. A serial line is installed between two Cisco routers using Cisco HDLC serial line encapsulation. Routers ITCertKeysA and ITCertKeysB are configured to route IP traffic. Host ITCertKeys1 sends a packet to Host ITCertKeys2. A line hit on the serial line causes an error in the packet.
When this is detected, the retransmission is sent by:
A. Host ITCertKeys1
B. Host ITCertKeys2
C. Router ITCertKeysA
D. Router ITCertKeysB
E. Protocol analyzer
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network.
What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
B. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
C. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
D. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network , if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP-derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ipnetw
ork
Question 2.
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other's routes.
What is the solution?
A. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
B. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke
routers.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.
By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces.
Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken. However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface on RTA, so they are not receiving each other's routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.
Question 3.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured on all routers in the network.
On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
A. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out
inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24.
B. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out
before it declares the neighbor unreachable.
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent out
about network 10.6.1.0/24.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The "show ip eigrp topology" command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route. Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state. The fields to note in this output are as follows: P- Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A- Active; EIGRP computations are "actively" being performed for this destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem. Both are symptoms of the SIA problem. U- Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q- Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R- Reply; a reply packet was sent to this destination. Route information- IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible successor.
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130
172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D EX 172.209.1
[170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239
62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D EX 99.3.215.0/24
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
25.248.17.0/24
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001
62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
D 62.113.1.227/32
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14
A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command
for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 5.
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces
Answer: B
Explanation:
The show ip eigrp traffic command displays the number of Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) packets sent and received.
Example:
The following is sample output from the show ip eigrp traffic command:
Router# show ip eigrp traffic
IP-EIGRP Traffic Statistics for process 77
Hellos sent/received: 218/205
Updates sent/received: 7/23
Queries sent/received: 2/0
Replies sent/received: 0/2
Acks sent/received: 21/14
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1828/products_command_reference_chapter09186a00800ca5a9.html#wp1018815
Question 6.
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
B. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the
network.
C. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
D. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
E. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
Answer: A, C, E
Question 7.
Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP
topology table.
B. An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C. DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown
state.
D. A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only after all the
query requests have been replied to.
E. The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
F. EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process.
Answer: A, E
Question 8.
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
B. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
C. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
D. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
F. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
Answer: B, C, E
Question 9.
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All the routes are in the passive mode because R1 is in the query process for those routes.
B. R1 is in AS 200.
C. R1 will load balance between three paths to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix because all three
paths have the same advertised distance (AD) of 40512000.
D. 40512000 is the advertised distance (AD) via 192.168.1.66 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28
prefix.
E. All the routes are in the passive mode because these routes are in the hold-down state.
F. The best path for R1 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix is via 192.168.1.66.
Answer: B, D, F
Explanation:
It can be determined that AS 200 is used, from the fact that the IS-IS process ID is labeled as 200. The best path to reach the network 192.168.1.48/28 is the first one displayed in the routing table. This can be further demonstrated by the fact that the metric is less than the alternative route, via serial 0. Finally, the AD can be found by viewing the second number within the parentheses, which in this case is 40512000.
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured with the default configuration on all routers. Auto summarization is enabled on routers R2 and R3, but it is disabled on router R1.
Which two EIGRP routes will be seen in the routing table of router R3? (Choose two.)
A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 172.16.10.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 10.10.10.0/24
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 10.10.0.0/16
Answer: D, E
Question 11.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on routers R1 and R2. However, R1 does not show R2 as a neighbor and does not accept routing updates from R2.
What could be the cause of the problem?
A. The no auto-summary command has not been issued under the EIGRP process on both
routers.
B. Interface E0 on router R1 has not been configured with a secondary IP address of 10.1.2.1/24.
C. EIGRP cannot exchange routing updates with a neighbor's router interface that is configured
with two IP addresses.
D. EIGRP cannot form neighbor relationship and exchange routing updates with a secondary
address.
Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.