|
Question 1.
What Fibre Channel port type links switches for fabric expansion?
A. N-Port
B. F-Port
C. E-Port
D. NL-Port
Answer: C
Question 2.
Companyxyz.com has 80% of the total storage space directly connected to servers. The storage space needs are growing at 50% per year. Given these facts, which solution is recommended?
A. Increase in server capacity
B. Server consolidation
C. Storage expansion
D. SAN consolidation
Answer: C
Question 3.
What protocol provides backup and restore services in the NAS architecture?
A. DAFS
B. SRDF
C. HORC
D. CIFS
E. NDMP
Answer: E
Question 4.
What are three host characteristics that are crucial when planning a SAN design? (Choose three)
A. host operating system
B. data replication
C. application I/O throughout
D. type of file system
E. CPU and memory resources
F. multipathing
Answer: B, D, E
Question 5.
You've designed a converged network to carry voice calls on-net as close as possible to the destination to avoid long distance charges.
Which two are reasons that a VoIP call could go off net earlier than designed? (Choose two)
A. remote voice gateway sending busy-back signal
B. destination routing not configured on local and remote gateways
C. call manager server is too busy to process the call
D. the telephone user dials an access code
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What technology minimizes the potential for service interruption on SAN extension links?
A. FCIP
B. VRRP
C. VSANs and IVR
D. Port Channeling
Answer: B
Question 7.
A customer recently deployed a core-edge storage network infrastructure that consists of several Cisco MDS directors and fabric switches. The directors are deployed in the core of the network, and the fabric switches are deployed as edge devices. The edge devices are connected to the core by Port Channels, which consist of four links. The customer is interested in in-band management of the fabric using TCP/IP.
Which two configurations are required for enabling in band management of the fabric using TCP/IP? (Choose two.)
A. VRRP
B. FCIP
C. IPFC
D. synchronization of management users and passwords
E. VSAN IP addresses
Answer: C, E
Question 8.
You are giving a lecture at Companyxyz.com. During the lecture you are required to drag the most appropriate application to its corresponding N-tier layer.
Applications, Select from these
N-tier layer Application, Place here
Answer:
N-tier layer Application, Place here
Question 9.
A customer currently has 10 IBM AIX servers. A production IBM AIX database server has 1 TB of direct-attached storage that is dedicated to database files and log files, of which 800 GB is used.
The database files and log files are synchronized from the production database server to the data-mining servers for the purposes of data extraction only. The data-mining servers each have 1 TB of direct-attached storage that is dedicated to the replicated database files and log files. The customer is considering purchasing the Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switch and utilizing the read-only zoning feature to enable the data-mining servers to read from the production-server volume on the disk array.
How much storage capacity could be reclaimed by using this approach?
A. 800 GB
B. 1 TB
C. 7.2 TB
D. 8 TB
E. 9 TB
Answer: E
Question 10.
What are three reasons to implement VSANs in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose three.)
A. to reduce network infrastructure requirements
B. to increase data security
C. to enable port-channeling
D. to enable TCP/IP routing
E. to share SAN extension capability using EISLs
Answer: A, B, E
Question 11.
What is considered the optimal topology for deployment of Fibre Channel SANs using Cisco MDS family products? (Choose two.)
A. mesh
B. ring
C. core-edge
D. collapsed core
E. core-edge with VSAN
Answer: D, E
Question 12.
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. A customer plans to add a tape backup subsystem to its existing storage network.
What location is most appropriate for this device?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Question 13.
Exhibit:
Refer to the exhibit. What topology allows the customer network, made up of several SAN islands, to be integrated into a single SAN topology, and still retain its existing functionality?
A. Core-Edge Topology
B. VSAN with Collapsed-Core Topology
C. VSAN with Core-Edge Topology
D. Single Large SAN Fabric
Answer: B
Question 14.
In the design of an iSCSI implementation in conjunction with a Cisco MDS-based SAN, which technology provides for diverse connections into multiple SAN switches and is used to provide automatic failover using a single target IP address?
A. multipathing
B. Ether Channel
C. VRRP
D. OSPF
Answer: C
Question 15.
When designing a SAN, what is considered to be the most significant security threat?
A. Denial of Service attacks
B. Management Access
C. WWN Spoofing
D. FC_ID Spoofing
E. Host to Storage data paths
Answer: B
Question 16.
Select three common attributes of Gigabit Ethernet compared to Fibre Channel as a storage transport service. (Choose three.)
A. high bandwidth
B. low bandwidth
C. high latency
D. low latency
E. long distance
Answer: B, C, E
Question 17.
In a core-edge SAN implementation, which statement is true about oversubscription?
A. When using full-rate mode ports, there is no oversubscription in a core-edge implementation.
B. A core-edge design has manageable oversubscription, but at the cost of used ISL ports.
C. Oversubscription in a core-edge design is implemented by using N_Ports.
D. When using a core-edge design, there is only oversubscription when it is implemented in a
heterogeneous environment.
Answer: B
Question 18.
Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. an ASM or SSM card that is installed in the switch
D. non disruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: A
Question 19.
A customer is considering designing a new storage-network infrastructure to simplify storage network management. The existing solution uses ten 16-port 1-Gbps Fibre Channel switches.
Two of the switches are deployed as core switches, and the remaining eight switches are deployed as edge switches. Each edge switch has an ISL to each of the two core switches. The disk array has four 1-Gbps Fibre Channel interfaces. Two interfaces connect to each of the core switches. Each of the 96 servers has a single 1-Gbps Fibre Channel host bus adapter.
Which configuration would provide equivalent or better performance while simplifying infrastructure management?
A. two Cisco MDS 9140 Fabric Switches
B. two Cisco MDS 9216 Fabric Switches, each with one 32-port Fibre Channel line card
C. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with two 16-port Fibre Channel line cards and two 32-
port Fibre Channel line cards
D. one Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director with four 32-port Fibre Channel line cards
Answer: D
Question 20.
Which factor would enable an administrator to determine the maximum amount of I/O traffic that can be supported by a given server?
A. the operating system
B. the application suite
C. the ability to multiplex I/O streams
D. the number of I/O buses and the bandwidth of each bus
Answer: A, B, D
|
Question 1.
The Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is an appliance-based, all-inclusive solution that provides unmatched insight and control of your existing security deployment.
Which three items are correct with regard to Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.)
A. There are three types of rules.
B. Rules can be deleted.
C. Rules can be created using a query.
D. Rules trigger incidents.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 2.
Which three benefits are of deploying Cisco Security MARS appliances by use of the global and local controller architecture? (Choose three.)
A. A global controller can provide a summary of all local controllers information (network
topologies, incidents, queries, and reports results).
B. A global controller can provide a central point for creating rules and queries, which are applied
simultaneously to multiple local controllers.
C. A global controller can correlate events from multiple local controllers to perform global
sessionizations.
D. Users can seamlessly navigate to any local controller from the global controller GUI.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Which item is the best practice to follow while restoring archived data to a Cisco Security MARS appliance?
A. Use Secure FTP to protect the data transfer.
B. Use "mode 5" restore from the Cisco Security MARS CLI to provide enhanced security During
the data transfer.
C. Choose Admin > System Maintenance > Data Archiving on the Cisco Security MARS GUI to
perform the restore operations on line.
D. To avoid problems, restore only to an identical or higher-end Cisco Security MARS appliance.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A Cisco Security MARS appliance can't access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue.
Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue?
A. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways
B. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways
C. Use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol
D. Use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which two options are for handling false-positive events reported by the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose two.)
A. mitigate at Layer 2
B. archive to NFS only
C. drop
D. log to the database only
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
What is the reporting IP address of the device while adding a device to the Cisco Security MARS appliance?
A. The source IP address that sends syslog information to the Cisco Security MARS appliance
B. The pre-NAT IP address of the device
C. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via SNMP
D. The IP address that Cisco Security MARS uses to access the device via Telnet or SSH
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which statement best describes the case management feature of Cisco Security MARS?
A. It is used to conjunction with the Cisco Security MARS incident escalation feature for incident
reporting
B. It is used to capture, combine and preserve user-selected Cisco Security MARS data within a
specialized report
C. It is used to automatically collect and save information on incidents, sessions, queries and
reports dynamically without user interventions
D. It is used to very quickly evaluate the state of the network
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which two configuration tasks are needed on the Cisco Security MARS for it to receive syslog messages relayed from a syslog relay server? (Choose two.)
A. Define the syslog relay collector.
B. Add the syslog relay server application to Cisco Security MARS as Generic Syslog Relay Any.
C. Define the syslog relay source list.
D. Add the reporting devices monitored by the syslog relay server to Cisco Security MARS.
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
Here is a question that you need to answer. You can click on the Question button to the left to view the question and click on the MARS GUI Screen button to the left to capture the MARS GUI screen in order to answer the question. While viewing the GUI screen capture, you can view the complete screen by use of the left/right scroll bar on the bottom of the GUI screen. Choose the correct answer from among the options.
What actions will you take to configure the MARS appliance to send out an alert when the system rule fires according to the MARS GUI screen shown?
A. Click "Edit" to edit the "Operation" field of the rule, select the appropriate alert option(s), then
apply.
B. Click on "None" in the "Action" field, select the appropriate alerts, then apply.
C. Click "Edit" to edit the "Reported User" field of the rule, select the appropriate alert
option(s),then apply.
D. Click on "Active" in the "Status" field, select the appropriate alerts, then apply.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely or by just logging them to the database?
A. Inactivating the rules
B. Creating system inspection rules using the drop operation
C. Deleting the false-positive events from the events management page
D. Creating drop rules
Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.