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Braindumps for "630-008" Exam

C.P.M. Module 4: Management

 Question 1.
According to EEOC guidelines, a candidate for a position may be asked questions about which of the following during a job interview?

A. Past salaries
B. Draft status
C. Past experience
D. Citizenship

Answer: C

Question 2.
Effective techniques to prevent sexual harassment and discrimination are LEAST likely to include

A. conducting awareness training for all employees
B. encouraging employees to "think before they act"
C. treating others with respect and professionalism
D. reassigning problem employees

Answer: D

Question 3.
Reengineering is BEST described as which of the following?

A. Continual improvement in activities
B. Permanent structural changes
C. Positive and directed process changes
D. Business organized with a "flatter" structure

Answer: B

Question 4.
Collective bargaining is the process of negotiating a labor agreement between

A. management and employees
B. white and blue collar employees
C. union representatives and employer representatives
D. supervisory personnel and union members

Answer: C

Question 5.
During an interview, an applicant with promising credentials states that he has limited range of motion in his arms. You become concerned about the candidate's ability to meet the job's physical demands, which include substantial use of a computer for order processing. 

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action you can take to address your concerns?

A. Check with his current or previous employer to ascertain how they handled the candidate's job 
     requirements
B. Rewrite the job description to remove the computer-related tasks
C. Ask an ergonomics expert to check employee workstations to be sure they do not aggravate  
    any problems
D. Inform all finalists for the position that the follow-up interview will include a performance test on 
    computer usage

Answer: D

Question 6.
A purchasing operation from another division within your organization will be combined with the group you manage. Among the employees who have accepted transfers to your department is a person who uses a wheelchair. You are concerned about whether the work environment will pose a hindrance to the employee's job performance. 

Which of the following actions pertaining to this matter is MOST appropriate?

A. Contacting the employee's current manager to determine what changes (if any) were 
     necessary to accommodate the employee
B. Checking with the human resources department for information about office furniture suitable  
    for wheelchair users
C. Inviting the employee to tour the office with you to discuss any concerns the employee may  
    have
D. Asking another employee who has an office nearby a main hallway to switch offices with the  
    new employee

Answer: C

Question 7.
In general, the orientation of new employees does NOT include

A. introducing the new person to the job and the organization
B. easing feelings of insecurity in the new employee
C. discussing characteristics of fellow employees
D. describing the organization's history, products, and operations

Answer: C

Question 8.
In 1972, the Equal Employment Opportunity Act expanded the coverage of Title VII of the Federal Civil Rights Act of 1964 to include

A. coverage to firms with 15 or more employees
B. organizations employing disabled workers
C. suppliers bidding on state and local government contracts
D. the prohibition of age-based discrimination

Answer: A

Question 9.
Using peer appraisals for employee evaluations is LEAST likely to be effective under which of the following circumstances?

A. In a competitive environment
B. When there are frequent reviews
C. When evaluating team performance
D. When the department deals with many suppliers

Answer: A

Question 10.
Which of the following would be MOST helpful in promoting purchasing personnel efficiency?

A. Setting performance standards for departmental staff
B. Setting performance standards for suppliers
C. Determining the percentage of overdue orders
D. Benchmarking the number of change orders issued

Answer: A

Question 11.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered in a purchasing department evaluation?

A. Contributions to profitability
B. Quality
C. Inventory investment
D. Forms design

Answer: D

Question 12.
Which of the following postulates that managers can attain the greatest level of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?

A. Expectancy theory
B. Theory Z
C. Motivation-Hygiene theory
D. Scientific management

Answer: A

Question 13.
A purchasing manager for a dental products manufacturer implements a policy to resolve quality problems with suppliers by inserting penalty clauses within purchase orders. Whenever a supplier fails to deliver 100% defect-free parts, the penalty clause is put into effect, whereby accounts payable is instructed to withhold 30% of the invoiced amount. If the supplier corrects the problem and returns the parts without defects, the withheld amount is reduced to 10%, to cover the additional inspection costs and administration. 

The organization legal department learns of the penalty clause policy and advises against it. 

Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?

A. Omit the penalty clause and, instead, work with suppliers to develop problem solving and 
     continuous improvement efforts
B. Omit the penalty clause and, instead, find suppliers who are willing to invest in e-commerce 
     Application Service Providers
C. Track all rejects and tie the rejection rate percentage directly to the penalty clause, so as to be 
    more specific and contingent upon the exact number of rejects
D. Use the penalty clause policy as designed by the purchasing manager

Answer: A

Question 14.
When purchasing responsibility is assigned by project, purchasers must

A. be product specialists
B. be versatile in switching to different product markets
C. have technical backgrounds
D. have many years of professional experience

Answer: B

Question 15.
Smith is a purchasing manager at a telecommunications company. She heads a task force formed to respond to charges by a government agency about alleged illegal purchasing practices by her firm. Upon investigation, the task force is convinced that the allegations are unfounded. As head of the task force, Smith should offer to management the opportunity to

A. present the findings to the government agency
B. inform the press about the task force's findings
C. develop an ad to explain the company's viewpoint
D. initiate a libel suit against the government agency

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "JN0-521" Exam

FWV, Associate (JNCIA-FWV)

 Question 1.
A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall  from the client to the server. 

What is the most likely problem with the firewall?

A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.

Answer:  C

Question 2.
In the exhibit:
 
Why is the packet dropped?

A. interface down
B. route not configured
C. policy not configured
D. denied by policy 1005

Answer:  C

Question 3.
Which three options allow proper configuration of NAT-dst? (Choose three.)

A. the default address book entry of "any" in the internal zone
B. the default address book entry of "any" in the external zone
C. a secondary address on one of the interfaces in the internal zone
D. an address book entry for the address to be translated in the internal zone
E. a static route to the appropriate subnet using a private interface as the outbound interface

Answer:  C, D, E

Question 4.
Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)

A. VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B. Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C. It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D. You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using 
    an Ethernet port.

Answer:  A, C 

Question 5.
What are three major concerns when sending private data over a public medium? (Choose three.)

A. integrity
B. authority
C. capacity
D. confidentiality
E. authentication

Answer:  A, D, E

Question 6.
By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?

A. NVRAM
B. TFTP server
C. internal flash
D. PCMCIA card

Answer:  C

Question 7.
Which three must a policy contain? (Choose three.)

A. action
B. service
C. address
D. application
E. policy name

Answer:  A, B, C

Question 8.
What is the default mode for an interface in the trust zone?

A. NAT
B. route
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 3
E. transparent

Answer:  A

Question 9.
Which command is used to verify IKE Phase 1 is complete?

A. get sa active
B. get ike active
C. get ike cookie
D. get flow active

Answer:  C

Question 10.
When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?

A. TFTP server
B. PC local disk
C. internal flash
D. Compact Flash Card

Answer:  B

Question 11.
In the exhibit, in order for the SSG 20 to have full reachability to all hosts in the network,
 
How many static routes need to be added?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer:  C


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