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Braindumps for "642-053" Exam

Routing & Switching SE/FE Exam

 Question 1.
Which statement best describes V3PN?

A. enables triple AES encryption
B. allows customers to divide a router into multiple independent address spaces and routing 
     tables using Multi-VRF functionality.
C. Enables dynamic mesh tunnels between sites
D. Relies on NHRP
E. Enables concurrent IPSec, QoS, and IP telephony

Answer: E

Question 2.
Which two statements about LMI auto sensing are true? (Choose two.)

A. It is used to tell the router about LMI type.
B. It only works if the Frame Relay type is Cisco.
C. It involves sending full status requests to the Frame Relay switch.
D. It is used to automatically detect the Frame Relay CIRC of each PVC. 

Answer: A, C

Question 3.
Which statement best describes 802.3af?

A. provides QoS tagging for voice packets
B. enables call accounting and billing
C. provides inline power to IP phones
D. enables separate broadcast domains (voice VLANs) for IP phones
E. enables VLAN tagging

Answer: C

Question 4.

 

From the figure, which command would enable the central router to dynamically fluctuate the rate at which it sends packets to the branch site over the Frame Relay network?

A. frame-relay traffic-rate adaptive
B. frame-relay adaptive-shaping fecn
C. frame-relay adaptive-shaping becn
D. frame-relay traffic-rate dynamic

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which IOS configuration command is used to define interesting packets to trigger a DDR call?

A. dialer-list
B. dialer-group
C. dialer in-band
D. dialer rotary-group

Answer: A

Question 6.
What are three features of the VAM? (Choose three.)

A. compression
B. key generation
C. software assisted encryption
D. hardware assisted encryption

Answer: A, B, D

Question 7.
Which multilayer switching concept determines how entries are created in the MLS cache?

A. HSRP
B. XTAGs
C. Trunking
D. Flow masks
E. Tag switching

Answer: D

Question 8.
The multilayer switching process is based on which concept?

A. Switch once, route many
B. Route once, switch many
C. Route when you can, switch when you must
D. Separate the functions of routing and switching

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which three are contained in MLS-RP advertisements? (Choose three)

A. Topology changes
B. ARP cache changes
C. Access list information
D. Route additions and deletions
E. The MAC addresses used by the MLS-RP interfaces

Answer: C, D, E

Question 10.
When does the MLS-SE create a candidate MLS cache entry? (Choose two)

A. When it receives a TCP SYN packet.
B. When an MSL cache entry did not exist for the flow.
C. When the frame was destined for the MLS-RP MAC address.
D. After it forwards a pre-determined number of frames for the same flow.
E. When it receives an MLSP message from the MLS-RP to create a candidate entry.

Answer: B, C

Question 11.
Which Native IOS feature supports a forwarding approach that eliminates the supervisor from touching a frame for forwarding decisions?

A. FIB
B. MLS
C. CEF
D. DCEF

Answer: C

Question 12.
Using switch clustering, how many ports can users manage from a single IP address?

A. 240
B. 380
C. 500
D. 680
E. 800

Answer: B

Explanation:
With Cisco Switch Clustering, users can manage over 380 ports from a single IP address, and connect up to 16 switches, regardless of physical location, with a broad range of Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet media

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps637/index.html

Question 13.
Which statement describes the term "multilayer switching"?

A. switches that operate at the access, distribution, and core layer of the design model
B. an OSI Layer 1 and 2 bridging technique
C. a technique to provide hardware switching of Layer 3unicastpackets
D. a flow-based Layer 3 packet routing methodology

Answer: C

Question 14.
Which command configures a default gateway on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?

A. Switch (config) ip route ip address
B. Switch (config) set ip route address
C. Switch (config) ip route-default-gateway ip address
D. Switch (enable) set default-gateway ip address

Answer: D

Question 15.
Which method of layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base? (FIB)

A.  Route caching
B.  Flow-based switching
C.  Demand-based switching
D. Topology-based switching

Answer: D

Note:
EF is a topology-based forwarding model in which all routing information is pre-populated into a forwarding information base (FIB).As a result of the pre-population of routing information, Catalyst switches can quickly look up routing information such as IP adjacencies and next-hop IP and MAC addresses.


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Braindumps: Dumps for 2B0-104E Exam Brain Dump

Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


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Braindumps for "2B0-104E" Exam

Enterasys Certified Internetworking Engineer(ECIE)

 Question 1.
An Acceptable Use Policy for the network should define:

A. Which types of traffic trusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
B. Which types of traffic untrusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
C. Which types of traffic trusted and untrusted users are allowed to generate on the network
D. Which types of traffic guest users only are allowed to generate on the network

Answer:  C

Question 2.
A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent infected devices from being further exploited within the enterprise network, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for infected devices to the Active Edge of the network that:

A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X

Answer:  B

Question 3.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, reduces network congestion by removing legacy protocols from the network such as IPX?

A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Threat Management service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service

Answer:  A

Question 4.
In a multi-vendor environment where 3 rd party devices are located at the edge of the network and are not policy-capable, installing a policy-capable device in the distribution layer:

A. Protects the network core from internally sourced attacks
B. Protects the server farm from internally sourced attacks
C. Secures other access layer segments connected through the policy-capable distribution layer 
    device
D. All of the above

Answer:  D

Question 5.
In a multi-vendor environment, where is the placement of a policy capable device most effective in discarding malicious traffic and protecting the entire network:

A. At the access layer edge
B. At the distribution layer
C. In the DMZ
D. In the core

Answer:  A

Question 6.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from Denial of Service attacks on the network?

A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny DoS Attacks service
C. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
D. Application Provisioning - AUP service

Answer:  C

Question 7.
As defined in NetSight Policy Managers demo.pmd file, the Secure Guest Access Service Group:

A. Allows PPTP and HTTP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
B. Allows HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
C. Allows PPTP, HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic, and denies access to all other TCP/UDP ports 
    and unsupported protocols on the network
D. Discards all traffic

Answer:  C

Question 8.
The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:

A. Authenticate users
B. Authenticate a RADIUS client
C. Pass policy information to a switch to authorize an authenticated user with a level of network 
    access
D. Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server

Answer:  C

Question 9.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from a user masquerading as a valid service on the network?

A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Application Provisioning AUP service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service

Answer:  B

Question 10.
A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent an internal user from connecting to an infected device, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for malicious users to the Active Edge of the network that: 

A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X

Answer:  A


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