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Braindumps for "1Y0-972" Exam

Citrix MetaFrame Password Manager Administration

 Question 1.
Which two statements are true about the MetaFrame Password Manager License Administration tool? (Choose Tow).

A. This tool is dependent on the console.
B. This tool can be used to specify the location of the license repository.
C. If multiple consoles exist, this tool is only available on one console.
D. Multiple instance of this tool should not be run at the same time.

Answer: B, D

Question 2.
What must be done in order to use an Active Directory container as the license repository?

A. The schema must be extended.
B. The type of license to be used must be determined.
C. License numbers must be added to the License Administration tool.
D. Licenses must be activated using the Citrix Activation system.

Answer: A

Question 3.
To ensure that synchronization occurs correctly, when using a shared folder as the central credential store, what is required?

A. SyncManager settings need to be configured and deployed.
B. The account used to connect to the share required full control to the shared drive.
C. The CTXDOMAINPREP.VBS script should be run to prepare the domain for credential 
    synchronization.
D. The administrative account for the system that hosts the console should be used to 
    authenticate to the share.

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which Windows 2000 registry key needs to have its DWORD value set to I in order to allow the administrator to extend the schema?

A. Update Schema
B. Allow Update Schema
C. Schema Update
D. Allow Schema Extension Update

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which utility would the domain administrator use to provide all users in the domain with the permissions needed to create, modify, and delete their SSO objects?

A. CTXUSERPREP.EXE
B. CTXDOMAINPREP.EXE
C. CTXFILESYNCPREP.EXE
D. escript CTXSCHEMAPREP.VBS

Answer: B

Question 6.
What are three requirements for using a shared folder as the central credential store? 
(Choose three)

A. Administrators must have full control permissions to the share.
B. All users must have full control permissions to he share.
C. The shared folder needs to be a UNC path with Windows NT file support.
D. The CTXFILESYNCPREP.EXE utility should be run on the system hosting the share.
E. The system hosting the shared folder should be in the same domain as the agents that it will 
     synchronize

Answer: C, D, E

Question 7.
Which statement about the agent setting SyncInterval is true?

A. SyncInerval can be defined by a user in the agent.
B. Synchronization is dependent on a user-generated event.
C. SynchInterval it sets the interval (in minutes) between automatic resynchronization

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which agent setting in the console sets the number of domain levels used as the matching criteria?

A. Auto Login
B. Default Policy
C. DNLevelsToMatch
D. Logon Manager Columns

Answer: C

Question 9.
What are two reasons for using password sharing groups? (Choose two)

A. to simplify password policy delivery
B. to avoid the need for using complex policies
C. to group applications that share backend authentication
D. to group applications regardless of backend authentication

Answer: A, C

Question 10.
Which of the following types of characters support an exclusion list?

A. uppercase letters
B. lowercase letters
C. special characters
D. numeric characters

Answer: C

Question 11.
Which statement describes a pure MetaFrame XP Presentation Server deployment

A. The MetaFrame Password Agent is installed only on the client devices
B. The MetaFrame Password Console is installed only on the client devices
C. The MetaFrame Password Agent is installed only on the MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers.
D. The MetaFrame Password Console is installed only on the MetaFrame XP Presentation 
      Servers.

Answer: C

Question 12.
An organization's network consists of MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers to deploy application. MetaFrame Secure Access Manager is used to access web and published applications. User workstations are running Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP Professional. All computers are in an Active Directory domain. The organization has three geographic regions: A headquarters in the US, a regional office in Europe, and an office in the Asia Pacific Users are located in all three regions and server farms exist in all three regions. Users are permitted to access application from all MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers regardless of location. Mandatory profiles will be used for all applications deployed by MetaFrame XP Presentation Server. Configurations: MetaFrame Password Manager Agent is installed on eh MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers and user workstations. Active Directory synchronization is setup. Which two results will be configuration have on the environment described above? (Choose two)

A. Users will have single sign on enabled to access all MetaFrame Secure Access Manager web 
     applications
B. Users will have single sign on enabled to access all MetaFrame XP Presentation Server 
     deployed applications in their region only.
C. Users who access MetaFrame XP Presentation Servers in all regions regardless of the user's 
     location will have single sign on enabled.
D. Users will have single sign on access to MetaFrame deployed applications only.

Answer: A, C

Question 13.
An administrator will implement MetaFrame Password Manager to provide SSO for users who access published applications using web interface for MetaFrame XP Presentation Server. Users currently access applications through a browser using an ICA client. Remote connections are secured through the use of secure gateway for MetaFrame XP Presentation Server. In which location should the agent be installed for this deployment scenario?

A. On the server running the Secure Gateway service
B. On the web interface for MetaFrame XP web server
C. On each MetaFrame XP Presentation Server in the farm
D. On the system with the Secure Ticketing Authority installed

Answer: C

Question 14.
What are two ways to configure Retry Timeout settings? (Choose two)

A. Manually
B. Per application
C. By application type
D. Per defined application

Answer: B, C

Question 15.
Which three can be used to create an application definition? (Choose three)

A. Templates
B. APPLIST.INI
C. Access Manager
D. Manual configuration
E. Add Application Wizard

Answer: A, D, E


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Braindumps for "000-094" Exam

Application Development with IBM WebSphere Integration Developer

 Question 1.
An SCA client executes the following code:
Service myService = (Service) serviceManager.locateService("myService");
DataObject myOutput = (DataObject) myService.invoke("someOperation", myInput);
where myInput is of type DataObject.

Which of the following is true about the service being invoked?

A. The interface must be Java.
B. The interface can be either WSDL or Java.
C. The service can be invoked synchronously or asynchronously.
D. Data will be passed by value during the service invocation.

Answer:  B

Question 2.
A process contains an invoke activity with the continue on error checkbox selected. This long-running process fails and no fault handler exists to catch the fault. 

The business process engine will do which of the following?

A. Create a fault representing the failure and raise it to a higher scope.
B. Create an administrative task for the administrator so that he/she can correct the error.
C. Place the activity in a stopped state.
D. Place the process in a stopped state.

Answer:  A

Question 3.
Under what circumstances should additional Java and J2EE projects be added to an integration application through use of the dependency editor?

A. When the corresponding projects are already supporting other non-SCA applications.
B. When the use of support projects should be minimized when developing and deploying 
    integration applications.
C. When that contained logic needs to be shared across multiple applications.
D. When the contained logic is needed to support the implementation of a Java component.

Answer:  D

Question 4.
Which of the following should a developer create to map business data from one service to another?

A. Create an interface map and a data map and associate the data map with the interface map.
B. Create an interface map and a data map.
C. Create an interface map.
D. Create an interface map and a data map, map the parameters in the data map, and associate 
    the data map with the interface map.

Answer:  D

Question 5.
Several modules must use artifacts from the same shared library. 

How is the shared library to be deployed to the WebSphere Process Server?

A. Inside all of the modules
B. Inside a separate J2EE project
C. Stand-alone to the WPS server
D. Inside one of the modules

Answer:  A

Question 6.
A developer needs to invoke an external web service from business process. 

Which statement accurately describes an action that the developer must take?

A. Copy the wsdl file describing the business process into the project containing the web service.
B. Copy the wsdl file describing the external service into the module where the process resides.
C. Create an export in the web project containing the web service.
D. Create an export in the module where the business process resides.

Answer:  B

Question 7.
Which of the following should a developer do when using a data map for mapping business data from a member of a complex type to a simple type?

A. Use a move parameter mapping to move the data from the source to the target interface.
B. Create an assign parameter mapping to move the data from the source interface to the simple 
    type.
C. Write an XPATH statement to pull the data from the source using a move parameter mapping.
D. Use an extract parameter mapping between the source and target interfaces.

Answer:  D

Question 8.
The figure shows a business process that contains three invoke activities within a scope. The fault handler only contains a single compensate activity that does not specify a target activity. Both debit A and credit B have completed successfully before record raises a fault. 

Which of the following will happen when the fault is caught by the fault handler?
 
A. Without the target activity selected, no compensation would take place.
B. The compensation handler of credit B is triggered and then the compensation handler of debit 
    A.
C. The compensation handler of debit A is triggered and then the compensation handler of credit 
    B.
D. Only the 'record' compensation handler would be triggered.

Answer:  B

Question 9.
As part of the order process, the CRM system (Siebel) initiates the order, which includes the customer information and sends it to the ERP system. This is modeled in an existing BPEL. The current ERP system (PeopleSoft) does not necessarily have the customer record. The condition needs to be handled where the customer is updated in the CRM but is actually created in the ERP. 

What is the best component to handle this requirement if the enterprise may change the ERP to SAP at a later time?

A. An Interface Map.
B. An additional integration BPEL, specific to PeopleSoft.
C. The existing order BPEL.
D. A standard Adapter Import configuration.

Answer:  B

Question 10.
A business integration solution must synchronize data between Siebel and PeopleSoft. During the synchronization process, business rules must be applied to determine which data should be sent to the destination system. 

If the Siebel and PeopleSoft services may change in the future, what is the BEST way to design this solution?

A. Three modules: one for BPEL and business rules, another for Siebel maps and services, a 
    third for PeopleSoft maps and services.
B. One module consisting of BPEL, business rules, Siebel maps & services, and PeopleSoft 
    maps & services.
C. Four modules: one for BPEL, another for business rules, a third for Siebel maps and services, 
    and a fourth for PeopleSoft maps and services.
D. Two modules: one for BPEL and business rules, another for Siebel maps and services and 
    PeopleSoft maps and services.

Answer:  A


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