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Braindumps for "HP0-841" Exam

Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions

 Question 1.
On an NFS server, which commands can you use to determine which clients have mounted exported file systems? (Select two.)

A. more /etc/rmtab
B. mount -v
C. showmount -a
D. more /etc/mounts
E. more /etc/nfstab

Answer: A, C

Question 2.
What is the main script that controls the start up of system services?

A. /sbin/preinitrc
B. /sbin/ioinitrc
C. /sbin/bcheckrc
D. /sbin/rc

Answer: D

Question 3.
Which features are enabled by the HP-UX WBEM (Web-Based Enterprise Management) provider instrumentation? (Select three.)

A. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) user configuration
B. HP SIM and SMH display of system health and properties
C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) inventory reports
D. HP Systems Management Homepage (SMH) display of component health
E. Management processor display of health of the server it is managing
F. HP System Management Homepage (SMH) configuration snapshots and inventory reports
G. HP-UX Software Assistant capabilities

Answer: B, C, D

Question 4.
Which Ignite command makes a recovery tape of all files in vg00?

A. make_tape_recovery -x inc_entire=/dev/vg00 -a /dev/rmt/1mn
B. make_recovery -x inc_entire=/dev/vg00 -a /dev/rmt/1mn
C. make_tape_recovery -x inc_vg00=all -a /dev/rmt/1mn
D. make_net_recovery -x inc=/dev/vg00 -d /dev/rmt/1mn

Answer: A

Question 5.
What does the pvcreate command create?

A. the physical links
B. a hard partition
C. the lvm disk resident structures
D. a physical volume device file

Answer: C

Question 6.
Which protocol is used to assign an IP address to hosts?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. BOOTP
D. BIND

Answer: B

Question 7.
On an NFS client, which configuration file is used to name the local mount point when mounting a file system from an NFS server during system boot?

A. nfs.conf
B. fstab
C. exports
D. nfstab

Answer: B

Question 8.
Why do you use the HP-UX System Management Homepage (SMH) and its functional areas? (Select three.)

A. to manage a small number of systems in your environment
B. to see the health of the system and its components
C. to configure the HP-UX Event Monitoring System
D. to perform HP-UX management tasks such as configuration
E. to run inventory reports and snapshot comparisons on the HP-UX system
F. to manage Web-Based Enterprise Management subscriptions and view events on the system

Answer: B, D, F

Question 9.
Which statements are true regarding threads and processes? (Select two.)

A. A thread is a component of a process.
B. A process is a container for a set of instructions that carry out a task of the program.
C. A thread forces the entire process to run on a single set of resources.
D. Threads and processes have nothing to do with each other.
E. A process is a component of a thread.

Answer: A, B

Question 10.
What do physical volume links provide in HP-UX 11i v2?

A. access to a spare disk
B. an alternate path to a disk
C. automatic load balancing
D. improved RAID performance

Answer: B

Question 11.
Which feature of HP CIFS allows a Unix uid or gid to be mapped to a Windows account or group?

A. smbclient
B. winbind
C. nmbd
D. smbd

Answer: B

Question 12.
Which command configures an IP address on an HP-UX system?

A. ifconfig
B. netconfig
C. lanconfig
D. ipconfig

Answer: A


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Braindumps for "350-040" Exam

CCIE Storage Networking

 Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. 

What is the operational state of VSAN 9?

A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down

Answer: E

Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. 

User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?

A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30

Answer: C

Question 3.
What statement is true?

A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.

Answer: E

Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?

A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.

Answer: A

Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?

A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP

Answer: E

Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:

A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected

Answer: A

Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:

A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP 
    addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in 
    The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses 
     in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same 
     subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP 
    Addresses in the same subnet

Answer: B, D

Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?

A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.

Answer: D

Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?

A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?

A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems

Answer: B, C


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