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Question 1.
What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The ethical hacker uses the same techniques and skills as a cracker and the motive is to find the security breaches before a cracker does. There is nothing that says that a cracker does not get paid for the work he does, a ethical hacker has the owners authorization and will get paid even if he does not succeed to penetrate the target.
Question 2.
What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ethical hacking is only about defending your self or your employer against malicious persons by using the same techniques and skills.
Question 3.
Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Ethical hacker is a security professional who applies his hacking skills for defensive purposes.
Question 4.
What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The term was coined by author/critic Jason Logan Bill Sack in an article about media artist Shu Lea Cheang. Acts of hacktivism are carried out in the belief that proper use of code will have leveraged effects similar to regular activism or civil disobedience.
Question 5.
Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F
Explanation:
A Security tester should search for information everywhere that he/she can access. You never know where you find that small piece of information that could penetrate a strong defense.
Question 6.
What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Passive and active attacks are the two basic types of attacks.
Question 7.
You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their website 12 months ago but now it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Internet Archive (IA) is a non-profit organization dedicated to maintaining an archive of Web and multimedia resources. Located at the Presidio in San Francisco, California, this archive includes "snapshots of the World Wide Web" (archived copies of pages, taken at various points in time), software, movies, books, and audio recordings (including recordings of live concerts from bands that allow it). This site is found at www.archive.org.
Question 8.
User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode18/usc_sec_18_00001030----000-.html
Question 9.
Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Passive footprinting is a method in which the attacker never makes contact with the target systems. Scanning the range of IP addresses found in the target DNS is considered making contact to the systems behind the IP addresses that is targeted by the scan.
Question 10.
Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B
Explanation:
This reference is close to the one listed DNS poisoning is the correct answer. This is how DNS DOS attack can occur. If the actual DNS records are unattainable to the attacker for him to alter in this fashion, which they should be, the attacker can insert this data into the cache of there server instead of replacing the actual records, which is referred to as cache poisoning.
Question 11.
You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Archive.org mirrors websites and categorizes them by date and month depending on the crawl time. Archive.org dates back to 1996, Google is incorrect because the cache is only as recent as the latest crawl, the cache is over-written on each subsequent crawl. Download the websiteis incorrect because that's the same as what you see online. Visiting customer partners websites is just bogus. The answer is then Firmly, C, archive.org
Question 12.
A ITCertKeys security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files. He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
- At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further steps
according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file system
problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use, because an
attack has taken place.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should never assume a host has been compromised without verification. Typically, disconnecting a server is an extreme measure and should only be done when it is confirmed there is a compromise or the server contains such sensitive data that the loss of service outweighs the risk. Never assume that any administrator or automatic process is making changes to a system. Always investigate the root cause of the change on the system and follow your organizations security policy.
Question 13.
To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message was
passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that damaged their
reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a particular
person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a certain
host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E
Explanation:
A quality that prevents a third party from being able to prove that a communication between two other parties ever took place. This is a desirable quality if you do not want your communications to be traceable. Non-repudiation is the opposite quality-a third party can prove that a communication between two other parties took place. Non-repudiation is desirable if you want to be able to trace your communications and prove that they occurred. Repudiation - Denial of message submission or delivery.
Question 14.
How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time exceeded in
transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traceroute works by increasing the "time-to-live" value of each successive batch of packets sent. The first three packets have a time-to-live (TTL) value of one (implying that they make a single hop). The next three packets have a TTL value of 2, and so on. When a packet passes through a host, normally the host decrements the TTL value by one, and forwards the packet to the next host. When a packet with a TTL of one reaches a host, the host discards the packet and sends an ICMP time exceeded (type 11) packet to the sender. The traceroute utility uses these returning packets to produce a list of hosts that the packets have traversed en route to the destination.
Question 15.
Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why would you find this abnormal? (Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
.
.
.
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port 31337 is normally used by Back Orifice. Note that 31337 is hackers spelling of 'elite', meaning 'elite hackers'.
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Question 1. ITCertKeys.com wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. What must be configured? A. individual security level for each department B. separate ACL group for each department C. distinct VLAN for each department D. unique firewall context for each department Answer: D Question 2. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. ITCertKeysA, ITCertKeysB, C, and ITCertKeys4 each represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services? A. model ITCertKeysB B. model C C. model ITCertKeysA D. model ITCertKeysD Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer? A. IP spoofing B. MAC address spoofing C. port scans D. DDoS attacks Answer: D Question 4. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs? A. looped triangle B. loop-free inverted U C. loop-free U D. looped square Answer: C Question 5. Which type of HPC application requires low latency? A. financial analytics B. seismic and geophysical modeling C. digital image rendering D. finite element analysis Answer: D Question 6. Which statement best describes the data center core layer? A. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric B. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers C. is typically merged with the campus core layer D. connects to the campus aggregation layer Answer: B Question 7. Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies? A. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger C. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller D. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger Answer: B Question 8. What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments? A. simpler cabling B. longer distance support C. more sophisticated traffic management D. lower latency Answer: D Question 9. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Where is Layer 2 adjacency required? A. server-to-server only B. aggregation-to-access only C. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server D. access-to-server only Answer: D Question 10. According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the data center core layer? A. prefix filtering B. Dynamic ARP Inspection C. traffic rate limiting D. control plane protection Answer: D
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