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Question 1.
At a customer site, you have defined VLAN 128 on a ProCurve Switch 5300xl and on a connected Access Point 530. You must now configure an Access Profile in Identity Driven Manager that will assign Marketing users to this VLAN. However, the VLAN is not listed among the choices for the Access Profile.
Which step is necessary to make the VLAN available?
A. Define the AP 530 as a Location.
B. Perform a rediscovery of the switch.
C. Define the VLAN as a Network Resource.
D. Import Marketing users from Active Directory.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which applications must be hosted on the same computer to enable ProCurve Manager Plus/Identity Driven Manager to function in a Windows environment? (Select two.)
A. PCM+ server
B. DHCP server
C. Identity Driven Manager
D. Internet Authentication Service
E. Active Directory domain controller
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
At a customer site, you must configure Identity Driven Manager to enforce access policies for users who will use 802.1X authentication to connect through an Ethernet port on a ProCurve Switch 5300xl.
Where can you enter the RADIUS shared secret?
A. CLI of the Switch 5300xl
B. network setup for client computers
C. Remote Access Policy on RADIUS server
D. Location setting in Identity Driven Manager
Answer: A
Question 4.
At a customer site where PCM+/IDM is deployed, 50 new users are added to Active Directory groups already imported into IDM.
When will these users appear in IDM?
A. when PCM+/IDM performs auto-discovery
B. when the IDM RADIUS Agent polls Active Directory
C. when the users are authenticated through RADIUS
D. when the IDM Access Policy is deployed to the realm
Answer: C
Question 5.
In Identity Driven Manager, which object contains the Time, Location, and System parameters?
A. Identity Profile
B. Access Profile
C. Access Policy Group
D. Network Resource Access Rule
Answer: C
Question 6.
In Identity Driven Manager, which user-defined object identifies specific switch ports and access points where users connect to the network?
A. Location
B. Access Profile
C. Connection Profile
D. Network Resource
Answer: A
Question 7.
At a customer site, a technician creates a new Sales group in Active Directory and adds 20 new users to the group. When the technician imports the users into IDM, they are all assigned to the Default Access Policy Group.
What is the cause of this assignment?
A. The technician did not include the Sales group in the import.
B. The technician did deploy the policy to the realm after importing users.
C. The technician did not enable the IDM RADIUS Agent before importing users.
D. The technician did not create a Sales Access Policy Group before importing users.
Answer: A
Question 8.
At a customer site, a technician configures 802.1X authentication for four switch ports on a ProCurve Switch 5300xl. The technician does not issue a command specifying an unauthenticated VLAN ID. Presuming DHCP is properly configured for all VLANs, how will this configuration affect VLAN membership and IP addressing for unauthenticated users?
A. The users will receive addresses in the range associated with VLAN 1.
B. The users will receive addresses in the range associated with the untagged VLAN on the ports
where they connect.
C. The users will be assigned addresses in the range associated with the VLAN ID returned by
the RADIUS server.
D. The users will not be assigned to any VLAN. Windows XP clients will receive private
addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
Answer: D
Question 9.
In a Windows environment, what is a role of the IDM RADIUS Agent?
A. to add RADIUS attributes to a RADIUS-ACCEPT packet from IAS
B. to act as a RADIUS proxy server for all clients associating through Locations defined in IDM
C. to monitor the Windows Active Directory and IAS for evidence of unauthorized logins or access
attempts
D. to ensure that user accounts created in RADIUS databases on ProCurve access points and
are correctly added to Active Directory on the Domain Controller
Answer: A
Question 10.
What does the session information shown in the exhibit indicate about this user?
A. The user received an IP address in the range of 10.0.10.0/24.
B. The user received an IP address in the VLAN 1 address range.
C. The user received an IP address in the VLAN configured on the switch port where the user
connected.
D. The user received an IP address in the VLAN associated with the Marketing profile in Identity
Driven Manager.
Answer: C
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Question 1. What command would be entered to restart VSAN 100? A. no vsan 100 start vsan 100 start B. no vsan 100 resume vsan 100 resume C. vsan 100 restart non-disruptive D. vsan 100 restart disruptive E. vsan 100 suspend no vsan 100 suspend Answer: E Explanation: VSAN restart: vsan 100 suspended, no vsan 100 suspended Question 2. Persistent binding is: A. binding an IP address to a NIC card and target ID number B. Binding WWN of an initiator to a target port and target ID C. Binding PWWN of an initiator to a target port Pwwn AND A TARGET id NUMBER D. Binding target WWPNpWWN to an initiator instance and target ID number E. Binding target Nwwn TO AN INITIATOR INSTANCE AND TARGET id NUMBER Answer: B Explanation: Persistent binding. Question 3. What is used for in-band management of MDS switches? A. FCIP B. IP over Ethernet C. IPFC D. DNS E. VRRP Answer: C Explanation: Inband management: IPFC Question 4. AAA(TACACS+Radius) protocols can be used to authentication and/or authorize what on MDS? A. Telnet and Console access B. SSH C. RBAC D. Dhchap for fabric security E. All the above Answer: E Explanation: AAA can be used for Telnet, console, SSH, RBAC, DHCHAP Question 5. Network Data Management Protocol is used primarily for: A. Coordinating hierarchical storage management B. Mirroring file systems between disk subsystems over an IP network C. Backing up Network Attached Storage devices D. Synchronizing databases between multiple vendors E. A common protocol and API to provision storage for different subsystem vendors Answer: C Explanation: NDMP for NAS backup Question 6. Exhibit: In the above picture, switch 3 and switch 5 are not IVR capable switches. All the ISLs are 1 GB links. Switches 2,4 and 6 are IVR-capable switches. What is the FSPF costs from Switch 1 to reach Points 1,2, and 3? A. 501.1502.2502 B. 1001.30025002 C. 501.1503.2505 D. 1000.3000.5000 E. 500.1500.2500 Answer: B Explanation: IVR with FSPF cost Question 7. During an E-port initialization, what internal link service is used to exchange Link Parameters and the operating environment of the two interconnecting ports as well as the capabilities of the switches connected by them? A. EFP B. FLOGI C. PLOGI D. ELP E. SW_RSCN Answer: A Explanation: EFP: Exchange Fabric Parameter Question 8. What load balancing option should best utilize all available ISLs on port Channel? A. Flow Based B. Source FCID based C. Frame based D. Source/Destination FCID Exchange based E. Source and Destination FCID based Answer: D Explanation: Best load balancing utilization Question 9. When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required? A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link B. Two or more VSANs in configuration C. IVZ active for host to access storage D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs Answer: A Question 10. What does MDS FC-SP functionality mode “auto-active” represent? A. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication after ESC. B. Port will actively listen, but will not initiate authentication C. Port will successfully complete FC-SP authentication only if remote end is in passive mode D. Port will initiate FC-SP authentication with TACACS server as default E. Port will use default of no authentication. Answer: A Explanation: FC-SP auto-active: after ESC, it will initiate FC-SP authentication
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