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Question 1.
When configuring the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified IP IVR, how is the return on no answer configured for agents?
A. in Cisco Unified ICM agent desk settings
B. in Cisco Unified ICM PG Explorer as a Peripheral Configuration Parameter
C. in the Cisco Unified IP IVR Queue Loop
D. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager as a Forward on No Answer setting
Answer: A
Question 2.
In order to run the setup program for a Cisco Unified ICM Server, what are the minimum permissions that must be granted to a user?
A. domain admin, read only
B. local user, read only
C. local admin, read write
D. domain admin, read write
E. SQL admin, read write
F. ICM admin, read write
Answer: C
Question 3.
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, how are CTI route points and CTI ports created in the Unified IP IVR 4.0(x)?
A. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration menu. The CRS
Administration will automatically create and associate the CTI route points and CTI ports in
Unified Communications Manager.
B. CTI route points and CTI ports are created and associated to the IP IVR user in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Administration prior to configuring the CTI route points in the IP IVR
in the CRS Administration menu.
C. CTI route points and CTI ports can either be created from the CRS Administration menu or
from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration as long as the CTI route
points and CTI ports are associated to the correct IP IVR user profile.
D. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration first and then the CTI
route points and CTI ports are associated to the correct user using Unified Communications
Manager Administration manually.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Exhibit:
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with IP IVR, ring-no-answer dialed number processing is set in the Agent Desk Settings tool of ConfigManager.
Given this setup, what are two impacts of using this setting this way if the CMPG_RC.INBOUND_8001 dialed number is the same number the calls arrived on originally? (Choose two.)
A. The ring-no-answer calls will be put at the bottom of the queue and have to wait again for an
agent to becomeavailable .
B. The caller will be disconnected as a call cannot be hair-pinned back on itself with Cisco Unified
IP IVR.
C. The ring-no-answer calls will be "double counted" in the inbound 8001 call type.
D. The caller will hear hold music while the call is transferred back to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
E. The caller will be re-directed to a different routing script.
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, with IP IVR for queuing, if the agent's Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber fails, what is the expected result?
A. The call in progress is put on hold while the phone re-registers to another subscriber in the
cluster and is automatically reconnected when the phone is reset.
B. The call in progress is not impacted; however, the phone re-registers at the end of the call.
C. The call in progress is dropped and the agent has to log in again after the phone resets.
D. The call in progress is not impacted and the agent can transfer/conference and perform other
phone features without any impact.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Where is the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable configured and what is this variable used for?
A. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the
CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used
to track callers as they progress through a self-service application.
B. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable
assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate the status of the call at
different points in a self-service application.
C. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the
CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used
to troubleshoot VRU errors.
D. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable
assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate tracing levels in the IP IVR.
Answer: B
Question 7.
In the Cisco Unified ICM database servers, which Microsoft SQL Server Agent rights setting is not allowed on the server local Security Policy Settings?
A. act as part of an operating system
B. log on as a batch job
C. log on as a service
D. allow log on locally
Answer: D
Question 8.
The Cisco Unified ICM 7.2 implementation may require high-priority addressing on the servers if QoS marking is performed at the network edge.
Which of the following servers require high-priority addresses identified on the visible network?
A. ICM Call Router
B. Administrative Workstation
C. Logger / Database Server
D. Peripheral Gateway
Answer: A
Question 9.
The Cisco Unified ICM Call Type Manager is accessed from the ICM Script Editor.
Which two options are purposes of the Call Type Manager? (Choose two.)
A. to create a dialed number mapping to a call type
B. to determine what call type data is available for reporting
C. to map caller entered digits to the call type
D. to schedule a routing script
E. to schedule an administrative script
Answer: A, D
Question 10.
Which of the following is not recommended to reside on the C: drive partition of any Cisco Unified ICM Server?
A. Unified ICM Historical Data Server Database
B. Core Unified ICM software
C. Microsoft SQL Server log files
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: A
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Question 1. A team has a heavily conventional group style. Their solutions are below average and they do not achieve synergy. The team members feel that the group could be doing somewhat better. What is the best suggestion for minimizing the negative impact of this style? A. Emphasize the importance of arriving at a consensus decision - one that all members can buy into. B. Establish a feeling of unity among group members. Remind the team that when the group wins, everyone wins. C. Play "devil's advocate" when group members keep proposing the same safe solution. Ask probing questions to pinpoint the pros and cons of their solution. D. Encourage the more reserved group members to speak up. They may be able to supply missing information and a fresh perspective. Make sure to include them so they understand their value to the team. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following best describes an example of subordinating all decisions to the output capability of the constriction, or bottleneck? A. Additional capacity is obtained by purchasing the capital equipment needed to keep up with demand. B. The output of all operations in front of the bottleneck, including release, is reduced to match that of the constriction. C. The output capabilities for processes downstream from the bottleneck are increased so that product will move quickly once it passes the constriction. D. Capacity figures for all resources are reviewed and compared with demand in order to determine the bottleneck department so that work schedules can be established. Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following is the best definition of Manufacturing Cycle Time? A. It is the total time it takes to process, ship and deliver a product to a customer. B. It is the total time that it takes to process a product through a Manufacturing line. C. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials to stock through delivery to the customer. D. It is the total time it takes to process a product from receipt of raw materials through the last manufacturing operation excluding non-value-added process steps. Answer: B Question 4. Which of the following best describes the benefits of Takt Management in a manufacturing line? A. Hourly output is monitored versus hourly demand so that production shortfalls can be identified and addressed. B. Hourly fluctuations in WIP are monitored and reasons for special cause variation are identified and addressed. C. As constrictions, or bottlenecks, move throughout the manufacturing line, the bottleneck is identified and Takt targets are increased. D. Ongoing process improvement is achieved by identifying enhancers and detractors to output resulting in improvement opportunities for the line. Answer: D Question 5. Which of the following is a constructive cultural characteristic of an effective team? A. The team leader is expected to provide initiative. B. The team takes a "failure is not an option" attitude when identifying goals. C. Individual accomplishment is recognized and rewarded as a model for other team members. D. People are encouraged to be decisive, take moderate risks, take initiative and be accountable. Answer: D Question 6. One of an organization's productivity values is "Prioritization is a major barrier to production." Which of the following run rules supports that value? A. First In First Out (FIFO) will be practiced in all areas. B. Engineering builds are exempt from any prioritization run rules. C. Complete Takt charts hourly. D. Respect customer Kanban limits. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following is a critical rule for the successful implementation of a Kanban system? A. Limits may be violated by the supplier only. B. Once established, limits should never change, regardless of the reason. C. Limits should be reviewed regularly, and changed when necessary by a central authority. D. A customer should feel free to request a violation of established limits for any reason, because they best recognize their own needs. Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following is an attribute of an effective team? A. Works toward reaching consensus B. Expects conformity from team members C. Uses a democratic process for decision-making D. Encourages discussion until the leader closes the topic Answer: A Question 9. Which of the following is the most effective technique for performing queuing analysis? A. Process Mapping B. Pareto Analysis C. Simulation Modeling D. Statistical Process Analysis Answer: C Question 10. Which of the following WIP management techniques promotes the concept of root cause analysis? A. A capacitated release strategy implementation B. Dynabans implementation C. Kanbans implementation D. Takt management implementation Answer: D
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