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Braindumps for "UM0-200" Exam

OMG-Certified UML Professional Intermediate Exam

 Question 1.
For what does an interaction operator define semantics?

A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed?
 

A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.

Answer: C

Question 3.
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?

A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised

Answer: B

Question 4.
When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined fragment would be used?

A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var

Answer: C

Question 5.
Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit). 

What does this mean?
 

A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.

Answer: C

Question 6.
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?

A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies

Answer: C

Question 7.
What does a loop node consist of?

A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards

Answer: D

Question 8.
What is a combined fragment?

A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator

Answer: D

Question 9.
Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
 

A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B.  is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D.  is an invalid trace according to Mneg.

Answer: D

Question 10.
What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?

A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]

Answer: A, F


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Braindumps: Dumps for E20-040 Exam Brain Dump

Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


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Braindumps for "E20-040" Exam

EMC Technology Foundations

 Question 1.
Name the Celerra software feature which creates a remote synchronous copy of production file systems at a remote location.

A. SnapSure
B. Celerra TimeFinder/FS
C. Celerra SRDF
D. Celerra Checkpoint

Answer: C

Question 2.
State the function of Centera Viewer for the System Administrator.

A. Create and manage volumes
B. Develop and maintain filesystem structure
C. Verify data authenticity
D. Monitor capacity and performance

Answer: D

Question 3.
Explain how free space is maintained in CLARiiON write cache.

A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations
B. Cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and Forced
C. Cache is flushed only during read operations
D. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes

Answer: B

Question 4.
Explain how cache is allocated in a CLARiiON array.

A. track
B. partition
C. page
D. segment

Answer: C

Question 5.
How much space must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL), per CLARiiON Storage Processor?

A. CPL must be same size as Source LUN
B. 256MB
C. 128MB
D. 64 MB

Answer: C

Question 6.
In addition to EMC arrays, name the other arrays which are supported by PowerPath.

A. NETAPP FAS980
B. IBM ESS(Shark)
C. IBM DS800
D. Sun StorEdge A5200

Answer: B

Question 7.
Explain what an iSCSI naming convention is.

A. DNS
B. CHAP
C. EUI
D. DHCP

Answer: C

Question 8.
Name two [2] features of Celerra Replicator.

A. Only sends changed data over the IP network
B. Synchronous data recovery
C. Point-in-time copy over IP network
D. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network

Answer: C, D

Question 9.
Name the failover mode which is provided by Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy.

A. Real-time adaptive copy
B. Full duplex asynchronous
C. Real-time semi-synchronous
D. Real-time synchronous

Answer: D

Question 10.
Name a characteristic of cache memory on a CLARiiON array with cache enabled on the SP.

A. Page size is set for the array
B. Write cache is not mirrored
C. Page size is set for each LUN
D. Write cache is always mirrored

Answer: D


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Study Guides and Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA





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