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Braindumps for "E20-535" Exam

Networked Storage - NS Implementation

 Question 1.
File system fs01 is 1 TB and quotas are not currently required. If this changes, however, configure quotas at a later time must not be affected. How do you satisfy this requirement?

A. Do not enable quotas when fs01 is created. Turn on quotas at off peak hours when enabling.
B. Enable quotas when fs01 is create. Then pause the quota service on the Data Mover.
C. Do not enable quotas when fs01 is created. Use the "param quotas Background Process=1" 
    parameter when they are enabled.
D. Enable quotas when fs01 is created. Do not set any quota limits.

Answer: D

Question 2.
You can access the hidden ".ckpt" directory, which is created by Snap Sure, using which two of the following methods? (Choose two)

A. Append .ckpt to the path shown when mapping a network drive.
B. Enter the entire path into Start > Run > \\serverx\SnapSure\ckpt
C. Browse to the .ckpt directory using Windows Explorer
D. Type the entire path directly into the Address bar in Windows Explorer

Answer: B, D

Question 3.
Of the following, which three are NOT configuration rules for NAS System LUNs on an
NS system? (Choose three)

A. LUNs within the System RAID Group must be owned alternatively by SPA and SPB
B. Celerra Control LUNs must be configured on a dedicated NAS 4+1 Raid5 group
C. LUNs in the System RAID Group must be divided into 2, 4 or 8 equal LUNs
D. LUNs within the System RAID Group are not restricted to SAN or NAS

Answer: A, C, D

Question 4.
 

ITCertKeys.com has two Celerras that are located in London and Boston. You need to develop A NAS solution that retains a copy of the Celerra data on a Sun server in Hong Kong, as well as an HP server in Sydney. 

Which is a suitable NAS solution that will satisfy ITCertKeys.com's requirements?

A. Symmetrix Remote Data Facility
B. Replicator
C. On Course
D. Far Copy

Answer: C

Question 5.
Windows users' home directories are configured on a Celerra CIFS server by using which procedure?

A. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user. Enable the home directory 
     option on the Data Mover. Create a directory in the correct location for each user. Edit the  
     profile of each existing user's account.
B. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain user. Enable the home directory 
     option on the Data Mover. Export the appropriate path as the share name HOME. Edit the  
     profile of each users account.
C. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain. Export the path as the share name 
     HOME. Enable the home directory option on the Data Mover. Edit the profile of each user's  
     account using the %user% variable.
D. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain. Enable the home directory option on 
     the Data Mover. Create a directory in the correct location for each user. Edit the profile of each 
     user's account using the %user% variable.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Virtual Data Mover's root file system stores which of the following?

A. Usermapper configuration
B. NTP
C. FTP root directory
D. Local Groups

Answer: D

Question 7.
In which location would you find Internal Usermapper?

A. at the Virtual Data Mover level
B. on the Control Station
C. at the physical Data Mover level
D. spread over all Usermapper servers

Answer: C

Question 8.
Identify the components of this usrmap.cfg file entry by placing them in their appropriate positions.

 

Answer:

 

Question 9.
Network segments are isolated by which network component?

A. ISL
B. STP
C. LACP
D. VLAN

Answer: D

Question 10.
For high availability in a high application transaction environment, which of the following is recommended?

A. CIFS
B. FTP
C. TFTP
D. NFS

Answer: D



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Braindumps for "350-020" Exam

CCIE SP Optical Qualification

 Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?

A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference

Answer: A

Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:

A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes

Answer: A

Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km ? (worst case)?

A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?

A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm

Answer: C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

Router ITK1 has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router ITK2 has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). 

What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?

A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000

Answer: E

Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:

A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.

Answer: B

Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?

A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84

Answer: C

Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.

What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?

A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.

Answer: C

Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:

A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP

Answer: A

Question 10.
Exhibit:
 

In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards, ____ restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on _____protection.

A. 50 ms, STP
B. STP, STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms

Answer: A


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