|
Passed , was 4 cases, 48 questions. Enchantment Lakes, Just Togs, Hiabuv Toys, Hanson Brothers. Study specially the drag & drop questions ( add a lot of score ) One more to go for my MCSE. Bye..
|
Please send if you can. singromala_256@hotmail.com Thanks much!
|
Can someone send me the Microsoft preparation book in pdf for the exam 70-291 to the adress freddy484@hotmail.com. Thanks.
|
Plz upload new dump, advance thankx..
|
Question 1. What is the minimum cable type required for 100BASE-TX? A. 50 ohm coaxial cable B. Category 3 UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) C. Category 6 UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) D. Category 5 UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) Answer: D Question 2. In spanning tree algorithm, the switch with the is elected as the root bridge. A. most number of active ports B. lowest numerical bridge ID C. highest numerical bridge ID D. None of these Answer: B Question 3. What happens if the following CLI command is executed? create fdbentry 00:E0:2B:12:34:56 vlan corporate port 4 A. Adds a temporary static entry to the FDB B. Adds a permanent static entry to the IPFDB C. Adds a permanent static entry to the IPARP D. Adds a permanent static entry to the FDB Answer: D Question 4. What is the well-known port number for Telnet? A. 25 B. 110 C. 22 D. 23 Answer: D Question 5. In an Extreme switch, if MAC address learning is disabled on a port, no traffic destined to a permanent MAC address matching that port number will be forwarded, not even broadcast traffic. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Question 6. If you change and then forget the only remaining password for the CLI Administrator account ability to log on to an Extreme switch, how can you recover the password without loosing the configuration? A. Provide dial-up, modem access to the switch console port for Extreme support to dial in B. Contact the local Extreme Systems Engineer C. You can RMA the switch and return to Extreme Corporate offices D. All of these Answer: D Question 7. BGP, OSPF and RIP are interior gateway protocols supported by ExtremeWare. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Question 8. What is the meaning of the following CLI command: con ipr a bl 10.11.12.0/24? A. Configure a blackhole route that blocks traffic destined to the 10.11.12.0/24 network. B. Configure a default route that forwards traffic destined to the 10.11.12.0/24 network. C. Configure a static route that forwards traffic destined to the 10.11.12.0/24 network. D. None of these. Answer: A Question 9. The default settings for the console port of an ?chipset switch are: 9600 bps/8 data-bits/one stop-bit/no parity/software flow control A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A Question 10. The Alpine series switches are provided with a passive backplane. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Question 11. In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the: A. least-cost path to the root bridge B. highest bridge priority C. lowest port cost on all ports D. None of these Answer: A Question 12. In Extreme Ware, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: A Question 13. A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the Ethernet frame. A. TRUE B. FALSE Answer: B Question 14. Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in Extreme Ware? A. OSPF B. TCP C. NETBIOS D. All of these Answer: C Question 15. What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface? A. disable rip learningB. configure rip rxmode none C. configure rip interface passive D. None of these Answer: B
|
Question 5.
A ITCertKeys switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet.
What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located on the same LAN segment. Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or interaction with other workgroups.
Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead of physically relocating devices. Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later. A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches. Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.
Question 6.
A new switch is installed in the ITCertKeys network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network.
Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply).
A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode.
B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain.
C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge.
D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version.
E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version.
F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging.
G. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks.
Answer: A, B, F, G
Explanation:
For the VLAN information to pass automatically throughout the network, VTP must be set up correctly. In order for VTP to work, a VTP server is needed, the VLAN's must be in the same VTP domain, and the encapsulation on each end of the trunk must both set to either 802.1Q or ISL.
Incorrect Answers:
C. Root bridges and other functions of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) have no impact of the VTP configuration.
D, E. There is only one version of VTP and STP.
Question 7.
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network.
What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role of the Root Bridge?
A. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.
B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
C. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex
operation.
D. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of
root bridge.
E. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
F. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
For all switches in a network to agree on a loop-free topology, a common frame of reference must exist. This reference point is called the Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is chosen by an election process among all connected switches. Each switch has a unique Bridge ID (also known as the bridge priority) that it uses to identify itself to other switches. The Bridge ID is an 8-byte value. 2 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for a Bridge Priority field, which is the priority or weight of a switch in relation to all other switches. The other 6 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for the MAC Address field, which can come from the Supervisor module, the backplane, or a pool of 1024 addresses that are assigned to every Supervisor or backplane depending on the switch model. This address is hardcoded, unique, and cannot be changed.
The election process begins with every switch sending out BPDUs with a Root Bridge ID equal to its own Bridge ID as well as a Sender Bridge ID. The latter is used to identify the source of the BPDU message. Received BPDU messages are analyzed for a lower Root Bridge ID value. If the BPDU message has a Root Bridge ID (priority) of the lower value than the switch's own Root Bridge ID, it replaces its own Root Bridge ID with the Root Bridge ID announced in the BPDU. If two Bridge Priority values are equal, then the lower MAC address takes preference.
Question 8.
Which of the protocols below, operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. RIP
B. STP
C. IGRP
D. CDP
E. VTP
F. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
STP (spanning tree protocol) operates on layer 2 to prevent loops in switches and bridges.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C. RIP and IGRP are routing protocols, which are used at layer 3 to maintain a loop free routed environment.
D. CDP does indeed operate at layer 2, but it doest not provide for a loop free topology. CDP is used by Cisco devices to discover information about their neighbors.
E. VTP is the VLAN Trunking Protocol, used to pass VLAN information through switches. It relies on the STP mechanism to provide a loop free network.
Question 9.
By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost?
A. It is the individual link cost based on latency
B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth
C. It is the total hop count
D. It is dynamically determined based on load
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
"The STP cost is an accumulated total path cost based on the available bandwidth of each of the links."
Reference: Sybex CCNA Study Guide 4th Edition (Page 323)
Note: A path cost value is given to each port. The cost is typically based on a guideline established as part of 802.1d. According to the original specification, cost is 1,000 Mbps (1 gigabit per second) divided by the bandwidth of the segment connected to the port. Therefore, a 10 Mbps connection would have a cost of (1,000/10) 100. To compensate for the speed of networks increasing beyond the gigabit range, the standard cost has been slightly modified.
The new cost values are: You should also note that the path cost can be an arbitrary value assigned by the network administrator, instead of one of the standard cost values.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: The STP process does not take into account the latency or load of a link. STP does not recalculate the link costs dynamically.
C. Hop counts are used by RIP routers to calculate the cost of a route to a destination. The STP process resides at layer 2 of the OSI model, where hop counts are not considered.
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments.
B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
E. To prevent routing loops in networks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
STP is used in LANs with redundant paths or routes to prevent loops in a layer 2 switched or bridged LAN.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: The primary purpose of STP is to prevent loops, not for monitoring or management of switches or VLANs.
D. VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple collision domains, but the STP process alone does not do this.
E. Routers are used to prevent routing loops at layer 3 of the OSI model. STP operates at layer 2.
Question 11.
Which two of the following values does STP take into consideration when it elects the root bridge? (Select two answer choices)
A. The BPDU version number
B. The access layer bridge setting
C. The Bridge ID
D. The spanning-tree update number
E. The bridge priority
F. The VLAN number
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
The bridges elect a root bridge based on the bridge IDs in the BPDUs. The root bridge is the bridge with the lowest numeric value for the bridge ID. Because the two part bridge ID starts with the priority value, essentially the bridge with the lowest priority becomes the root. For instance, if one bridge has priority 100, and another bridge has priority 200, the bridge with priority 100 wins, regardless of what MAC address was used to create the bridge ID or each bridge/switch.
Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA ICND Exam Certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-083-X) Page 39
Question 12.
Which of the following are spanning tree port states? (Select three answer choices)
A. Learning
B. Spanning
C. Listening
D. Forwarding
E. Initializing
F. Filtering
G. Permitting
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
There are 4 STP states that a bridge port can be in: Blocking, Listening, Learning, and Forwarding:
Question 13.
What are the switch and bridge port characteristics of a layer two spanning-tree network that is fully converged?
A. All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state.
B. All switch and bridge ports are in the stand-by state.
C. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports.
D. All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state.
E. All switch and bridge are either blocking or looping.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a switch first comes up, it will be in the listening and learning states. This is needed so that the switch learns the MAC addresses of the devices on the LAN, and to learn where any loops in the network may exist. After this initial period of listening and learning, the ports will be forwarding to the hosts, or blocking certain ports that create a loop in the network.
An example of this is shown below:
In the above figure, after the network has converged, spanning tree protocol puts each port either in designated (Forwarding) or Non-designated (Blocking) state. So, Choice D is correct.
If you get a converged spanning-tree network, you have only two port states.
Forwarding and Blocking. Forwarding: all traffic will be forwarded
Blocking: all traffic to devices that will create a loop in a spanning-tree network will be blocked. It is possible to get redundant paths in large switched and routed networks.
Question 14.
The ITCertKeys LAN consists of 6 switches connected together as shown in the diagram below:
What is the name of the potential problem of this switch setup, and what protocol can prevents its occurrence. (Select only one answer choice)
A. Routing loops, hold down timers
B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. Routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VTP
E. Routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP
Answer: F
Explanation:
The spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
Question 15.
In a switched LAN network, what is the Spanning-Tree algorithm used for?
A. It is used to provide a mechanism for routing updates in switched environments.
B. It is used to prevent routing loops in networks with redundant routes.
C. It is used to prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched routes.
D. It is used to manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches.
E. It is used to segment a network into multiple collision domains.
F. None of the above.
G. All of the above are functions of STP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To avoid loops, all bridging devices, including switches, use STP. STP causes each interface on a bridging device to settle into a blocking state or a forwarding state. Blocking means that the interface cannot forward or receive data frames. Forwarding means that the interface can send and receive data frames. By having a correct subset of the interfaces blocked, a single currently active logical path will exist between each pair of LANs. STP resides at the data link layer, so it is used to prevent loops within a switched network. It is not used to prevent routing loops; that is the function of the mechanisms within a routing protocol.
Reference:
CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) page 248.
Question 16.
In which Spanning-Tree states does a switch port learn MAC addresses? (Select two)
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Learning
E. Relaying
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
STP uses a couple of port states besides forwarding and blocking.
1. Listening - Listens to incoming Hello messages to ensure that there are no loops, but does not forward traffic. This is an interim state between blocking and forwarding.
2. Learning - Still listens to BPDUs, plus learns MAC addresses from incoming frames. It does not forward traffic. This is an interim state between blocking and forwarding.
3. Disabled - Administratively down.
Reference: Cisco CCNA intro 640-821
Question 17.
Three ITCertKeys switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below:
Study the Exhibit carefully. All switches have the default STP configuration and all links are Fast Ethernet.
Which port on which switch will Spanning Tree place in blocking mode?
A. Switch ITK1 - Port Fa1/1
B. Switch ITK1 - Port Fa1/2
C. Switch ITK2 - Port Fa1/2
D. Switch ITK2 - Port Fa1/1
E. Switch ITK3 - Port Fa1/1
F. Switch ITK3 - Port Fa1/2
Answer: F
Explanation:
Switch ITK1 will become the ROOT BRIDGE because it has the lowest MAC address. Its both ports will become designated ports so choice A and B are wrong. Next Election will be of ROOT PORTS. Port FA1/1 of both the switches ITK2 and ITK3 will become ROOT ports because they have minimum path cost to reach the root bridge. So, choices D and E are also wrong. Next Election will be of Designated Ports on the segment connecting ITK2 and ITK3 . ITK2 has lower MAC address so, its port FA1/2 will become designated port and FA1/2 of ITK3 will be placed in a BLOITKING state to avoid switching LOOPS.
Question 18.
Four ITCertKeys switches are connected together as shown below:
The network shown in the exhibit was designed to provide reliability through redundancy. Both of the IDF switches, ITK3 , and ITK4 , are connected to both of the MDF switches, ITK1 and ITK2 .
Which configuration scenario will provide a loop-free switching environment?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on all switches.
B. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the MDF switches ITK1 and ITK2 .
C. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the IDF switches ITK3 and ITK4 .
D. Spanning Tree Protocol should be run only on the root bridge.
E. Spanning Tree Protocol is not needed in this network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/ ITK3 89/ ITK6 21/tsd_technology_support_protocol_home.html
|
Best For You u must visit itcertkeys.com it is best for u thanks
|
Question 1.
With Cisco WAAS advanced compression DRE, which three functions are performed during the DRE process? (Choose three.)
A. Pattern matching
B. Synchronization
C. LZ compression
D. Fingerprint and chunk identification
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
Do you know how often the Cisco WAAS automatic discovery takes place?
A. Once per user
B. Every hour
C. On a Connection-by-Connection basis
D. Once per office
Answer: C
Question 3.
What is the status of Cisco WAAS optimization after completing the quick start process on all devices and installing the enterprise license? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco WAAS is ready for the Central Manager to be configured to optimized traffic
B. Cisco WAAS is ready for bandwidth settings to be defined for communication
C. Cisco WAAS application optimizers are enabled
D. Default optimizations are applied traffic passing through the Cisco WAE devices
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Which two statements describe what is required for read-only disconnected mode to be automatically activated during a prolonged WAAS disconnect? (Choose two.)
A. The WAE must be configured for Windows Authentication
B. The Windows server must be configured for operating in disconnected mode
C. The WAE must be able to access a Window Domain Controller
D. The WAE must be joined to the same workgroup as the Windows Server
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
Which three are high-availability Cisco WAE solutions for a branch office? (Choose three.)
A. PBR
B. WCCP
C. Multiple Cisco WAE devices with inline cards
D. Firewall load-balancing Cisco WAE devices
Answer: A, B, C
Question 6
The Cisco WAAS design of your customer calls for the Central Manager to be deployed on the Core WAE, which is a WAE-612 with 2 GB of RAM. The customer initially configured the WAE as an application accelerator and then issued the device mode central-manager command to enable Central Manager Service.
Now the customer complains that the WAE is no longer accelerating traffic why?
A. The Central Manager and application accelerator cannot be deployed on the same WAE
B. The device mode central-manager command must be issued before the device mode
application-accelerator command
C. At least 4 GB of RAM must be installed for the WAE to serve as both Central Manager and
application accelerator
D. Central Manager is consuming too much CPU time on the WAE. The Central Manager service
should be implemented on a less-utilized edge WAE
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which two benefits can we get by using Cisco WAAS with Cisco security devices such as Cisco PIX, Cisco ASA and Cisco IOS Firewalls? (Choose two.)
A. The security devices will speed Cisco WAAS transport
B. The security devices support the TCP sequence number jump that Cisco WAAS uses
C. Cisco WASS requires Cisco Security devices to be installed
D. The security devices can be configured to support Cisco WAAS automatic discovery
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
In Order to ensure Cisco WAAS Mobile transport and management, which three protocols and ports need to be allowed through corporate firewalls? (Choose three.)
A. TCP 80
B. TCP 8080
C. UDP 8080
D. UDP 1182
Answer: A, B, D
Question 9.
SACK improves performance for which type of traffic?
A. Short-lived TCP connections
B. Traffic on high-BDP networks
C. Traffic on lossy networks
D. Traffic on low-BDP networks
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which parameter should be taken into consideration while selecting a Cisco WAE model for a Cisco WAAS deployment?
A. Bandwidth of the largest WAN Link
B. Total WAN throughput
C. Concurrent TCP sessions to be optimized
D. Bandwidth of the smallest WAN link
Answer: C
|
anyone have to ad it thanks
|
Sample Questions plz help me thanks
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.