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Question : 1.
Exhibit.
1. public class Test [
2. public static void aMethod() throws Exception {
3. try {
4. throw new exception();
5. } finally {
6. System.out.println(“finally”);
7. }
8. }
9. public static void main(String args[]) [
10. try [
11. aMethod();
12. } catch (Exception c) {
13. System.out.println(“exception”);
14. }
15. System.out.println(“finished”);
16. }
17. }
What is the result?
A. finally
B. exception
finished
C. finally
exception
finished
D. Compilation fails.
Answer: C
Question : 2.
Which four can be thrown using the throw statement/ (Choose four.)
A. Error
B. Event
C. Object
D. Throwable
E. Exception
F. RuntimeException
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question : 3.
Which statement is true?
A. catch(X x) can catch subelasses of X.
B. The error class is a RuntimeException.
C. Any statement that can throw an Error must be enclosed in a try block.
D. Any statement that can throw an exception must be enclosed in a try block.
E. Any statement that can throw a RuntimeException must be enclosed in a try block.
Answer: A
Question : 4.
Exhibit
1. public class X {
2. public static void main(String [] args) {
3. try [
4. badmethod();
5. System.out.print(“A”);
6. ]
7. catch (Exception ex) {
8. System.out.print(“B”) ;
9. }
10. finaly {
11. System.out.print(“C”);
12. }
13. System.out.print(“D”);
14. }
15. public static void badMethod() {
16. throw new RuntimeException();
17. }
18. }
What is the result?
A. AB
B. BC
C. ABC
D. Bcd
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: D
Question :5.
What is the maximum payload that can be delivered under the Fibre Channel stander?
A. 24 bytes
B. B. 1024 bytes
C. C. 2112 bytes
D. D. 2048 bytes
Answer : C
Question : 6.
Given:
1. public class Exception Test [
2. class Test exception ectends Exception { }
3. public void run Test() throws TestException { }
4. public void test() /* Point X */ {
5. run Test();
6. }
7. ]
At Point X on line4, which code is necessary to make the code compile?
A. No code is necessary.
B. Throws Exception
C. Catch ( exception c )
D. Throws RuntimeException
E. Catch ( testException c )
Answer: B
Question : 7.
Given:
11. try {
12. int x = 0;
13. int y = 5 / x;
14. } catch (Exception c) {
15. System.out.println(“Exception ac) {
16. } catch (arithmeticexception ac) {
17. System.out.println(“Arithmetic Exception”);
18. }
19. System.out.println(“finished”);
What is the result?
A. finished
B. Exception
C. Compilation fails.
D. Arithmetic Exception
Answer: C
Question : 8.
A customer has a problem with date periodically becoming unavailable. They are continually
having to replace failed connectivity components just to make the date available. The arrays are
SCSI attached arrays. Which solution could you implement to solve this customer’s problem
without adding new servers or storage devices, at the lowest cost to the customer?
A. You CANNOT do this. You must replace the SCSI arrays with SAN-capable arrys.
B. Connect each storage device to a SAN through two bridges. Add two dual port HBAs to
each server and connect all devices to both of two switches.
C. Connect each storage device to a SAN through a bridge. Add two dual port HBAs to each
server a connect all devices to both of two switches.
D. Connect each storage device to a SAN through two bridges. Add two dual port HBAs to
each server and connect all devices to the same switch.
Answer: B
Question : 9
Given:
2. public class Foo {
3. public static void main(String[] arge) {
4. try {
5. return;
6. } finally {
7. System.out.println( “finally” );
8. }
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. Finally
B. Compilation fails.
C. The code runs with no output.
D. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A
Question : 10.
Exhibit .
1. public class X {
2. public static void main(string [] args) {
3. try {
4. badMethod();
5. System.out.print(“B”) ;
6. }
7. catch (Exception ex) {
8. System.out.print(“B”);
9. }
10. finally {
11. System.out.print(“C”);
12. }
13. System.out.print(“D”);
14. }
15. public static void badMethod() {
16. throw new RuntimeEXception();
17. }
18. }
What is the result?
A. AB
B. BC
C. ABC
D. BCD
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: D
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Question 1. When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first? A. media resource device list B. media resource group list C. media resource group D. media resource pool Answer: B Question 2. Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.) A. DNA B. SQL Server Service Manager C. RTMT D. DBLHelper E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences? A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL. B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs. C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS. D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool. Answer: A Question 4. A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. How can you access the information generated by this call? A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP Drag drop Answer: Question 6. How is a backup target changed to a backup server? A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server. B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server. C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target. D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server. Answer: D Question 7. What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for? A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. Answer: C Question 8. Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined? All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long distance and international numbers. Executives can call all numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones. A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 Answer: B Question 9. What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server? A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers. B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files. C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server. D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information. E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones. F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones. Answer: B Question 10. Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.) A. geographic proximity B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration C. common device type D. common use ofcodecs E. common MOH source F. common class of service Answer: A, B, D, E
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Question 1.
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Answer: D
Question 2.
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
C. Problem alerts for operations personnel
D. User Tracking to track IP telephones
E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate
range of CTI ports.
C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications
Manager IP address.
D. No special configuration is needed.
Answer: C
Question 4.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for
this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for
overflow.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the
Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the
Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Question 8.
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.
D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Cluster Setup page
B. Server Setup page
C. Publisher Activation page
D. Component Activation page
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent's CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record.
Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?
A. IPCC Express Premium
B. IP IVR
C. IPCC Express Standard
D. IPCC Express Enhanced
E. IPCC Enterprise
Answer: D
Question 11.
What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Common Service Queue
B. Contact Skill Queue
C. Common Skill Queue
D. Contact Service Queue
E. Competence Skill Queue
F. Competence Service Queue
Answer: D
Question 12.
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which statement is true about the hardware requirements of MPLS?
A. Because you do not need to run a routing protocol on P-routers, they require less memory than
routers supporting classic IP routing.
B. Because of the additional processing and memory requirements needed to build the LFIB,
MPLS is only available on high end routers.
C. MPLS is available on low end routers, built their use is limited because of the additional
processing and memory requirements needed to build the LFIB.
D. Because P-routers do not need to carry routes outside the MPLD domain, they require less
memory than routers that support the same application using classic IP routing.
Answer: C
Question 2.
If aggregation (summarization) were to be used on a network with ATM LSRs.
What would result?
A. LSPs would be broken in two.
B. There would be extra LFIB entries.
C. The size of the LFIB table would increase.
D. There would be extra LIB entries
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is true of MPLS TE?
A. Only the ingress LSR must see the entire topology of the network.
B. Every LSR needs additional information about links in the network, available resources, and
constraints.
C. Every core router must be able to create an LSP tunnel on demand.
D. Both RSVP and CR-LDP are used in conjunction to establish traffic engineering (TE) tunnels
and to propagate the labels.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What is a major drawback of using traditional IP routing over an ATM network when connecting multiple sites?
A. Each ATM switch in the path has to perform Layer 3 routing lookup.
B. ATM virtual circuits have to be established between the different sites.
C. There is high ATM management overhead between the ATM switch and the router at each
site.
D. Each ATM switch has to be manually configured to participate in Layer 3 routing.
E. There is high PNNI overhead.-
Answer: B
Explanation:
Drawbacks of Traditional IP Forwarding IP over ATM
1) Layer 2 devices have no knowledge of Layer 3 routing information - virtual circuits must be manually established.
2) Layer 2 topology may be different from Layer 3 topology, resulting in suboprtimal paths and link use.
3) Even if the two topologies overlap, the hub-and-spoke topology is usually used because of easier management.
Question 5.
What is true of MPLS TE?
A. Only the ingress LSR must see the entire topology of the network.
B. Every LSR needs additional information about links in the network, available resources, and
constraints.
C. Every core router must be able to create an LSP tunnel on demand.
D. Both RSVP and CR-LDP are used in conjunction to establish traffic engineering (TE) tunnels
and to propagate the labels.
Answer: B
Question 6.
In order for MPLS to be implemented on ATM switches, what requirements must the ATM switch meet? Select two.
A. become Layer 3 aware by running a routing protocol
B. use MPLS LDP or TDP to distribute and receive MPLS label information
C. use BGP to exchange MPLS VPN labels in the data plane
D. use RSVP to exchange MPLS traffic-engineering labels in the data plane
E. establish a full mesh of Layer 2 ATM virtual circuits between all the ATM switches in the MPLS
domain
F. use cell-mode MPLS and insert MPLS label in the ATM AAL5 header
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
When running basic MPLS in conjunction with VPNs, how many labels does each packet contain?
A. Each packet contains one label that identifies the VPN.
B. Each packet contains at least two labels. One label identifies the path to the egress router and
one that identifies the VPN.
C. Each packet contains at least three labels. One label identifies the ingress router, one
identifies the egress router and one identifies the path that will be taken.
D. Each packet contains at least three labels. One label identifies the ingress router, one label
identifies the path to the egress router, and one identifies the VPN.
Answer: B
Question 8.
On ingress, a label is imposed to a packet. Which process is responsible for this function?
A. LDP process.
B. Control plane process
C. Penultimate hop process.
D. Forwarding plane process.
Answer: B
Question 9.
How could you check for potential MTU size issues on the path taken by a PE-to-PE LSP?
A. Because MPLS packets are label switched, MTU problems can only be detected by the user
applications.
B. Use the ping vrf command with packet size set to the largest MTU along the path and DF bit
set from the local PE-router to ping the remote PE-router.
C. Use the ping vrf command with packet size set to the smallest MTU along the path and DF bit
set from the local PE-router to ping the remote PE-router.
D. Because MPLS packets are label switched, packets are automatically fragmented and
reassembled by the PE-routers. Therefore, there are no potential MTU issues.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which one of the following is true regarding MPLS independent control label allocations?
A. The LSR can always assign a label for a destination prefix, even if it has no downstream label.
B. The LSR can assign a label for a destination prefix only if it has already receives a label from
the next-hop LSR, otherwise, it must request a label from the next-hop LSR.
C. The LSR will assign a label to a destination prefix only when asked for a label by an upstream
LSR.
D. The label for a destination prefix is allocated and advertised to all LDP peers, regardless of
whether the LDP peers are upstream or downstream LSRs for the destination prefix.
E. The LSR stores the receives label in its LIB, even when the label is not received from the next-
hop LSR.
F. The LSR stores only the labels received from the next-hop LSR, all other labels are ignored.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies. You are configuring a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to utilize QoS and have configured the platinum queue on the controller.
However, the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch to provide the necessary QoS for voice clients on the wireless network?
A. Enable 802dot1p
B. Config wlan qos wlan-id platinum
C. Swithchport priority extend cos 5
D. Mls qos trust dscp
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which properties are of an AP in H-REAP mode?
A. Allows some SSID/VLAN traffic to be switched locally while other SSID/VLAN traffic has full
LWAPP functionality
B. Support Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming
C. Can switch client data traffic locally
D. Perform client authentication locally when its connection to the controller is lost
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 3.
Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. UDP 12222 and 12223
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. TCP 16666 and 16667
Answer: A
Question 4.
The IEEE 802.11 standards define different encryption mechanisms.
Which is the basic of defining the most secure encryption solution in IEEE 802.11 standards?
A. WEP
B. AES-CCMP
C. IPSEC
D. TKIP
Answer: B
Question 5.
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational
B. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known
D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller
Answer: A
Question 6.
A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network by use of controllers. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)
A. On the Cisco WCS
B. On the RADIUS Server
C. On the Access Point
D. On the Client
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error.
Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?
A. Show exlusionlist
B. Show database summary
C. Show sysinfo
D. Show wps summary
Answer: B
Question 8.
Can you tell me when a client will provide an AP with its version of Cisco Compatible Extensions for WLAN devices?
A. In an 802.11 association or reassociation request frame
B. When the AP sends an unsolicited update embedded in a beacon packet
C. Upon successful EAP or dot1x authentication to the AP
D. In a Broadcast probe request packet
Answer: A
Question 9.
Wi-Fi Multimedia is a technology maintaining the priority of audio, video and voice applications in a Wi-Fi network so that other applications and traffic are less likely to slow them.
A. Definition of the differentiated services filed
B. Enhanced Distributed Coordination Function mechanism
C. Four Access categories: A label for the common set of Enhanced Distributed Channel Access
parameters that are used by a WMM STA to contend for the channel in order to transmit
MSDUs with certain priorities
D. Unscheduled Service Period. The service period that is started when a WMM STA transmits a
trigger frame to the WMM AP
Answer: B, C, D
Question 10.
Before sending a frame over a medium and verifying that the medium is free, which process does a wireless client go through?
A. Send an RTS frame, receive a CTS frame, then transmit the frame
B. Verify that NAV = 0, then transmit the frame
C. Send a CTS frame, receive an RTS frame, then transmit the frame
D. Check that NAV = 0, generate a random backoff, verify that the channel is free, verify that slot
times = 0, then transmit the frame
Answer: D
Question 11.
The 2.4-GHz wavelength is about 4.92 inches (12.5 cm), if you want to support diversity on a 2.4-GHz radio, at what distance is it recommended you put two separate antennas?
A. 12.2 inches (30.99)
B. 7.6 inches (19.30 cm)
C. 24.6 inches (62.5 cm)
D. 4.92 inches (12.5 cm)
Answer: D
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Question 1.
According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router B and Router C are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently.
How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it?
Exhibit:
A. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router B and Router C
B. create another link between Router A in AS1 and ISP A
C. configure iBGP between Router B and Router C to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2
D. configure two static routes in Router A for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router B and Router C
Answer: A
Question 2.
Study the topology provided in this exhibit. Which configuration change will maximize the efficiency of both the routing design and data forwarding plane?
Exhibit:
A. Configure Router B with a static route for the aggregate to Null0
B. Configure Router A to advertise 10.0.0.0/8 instead of the default route to Router B
C. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes in addition to the aggregate
D. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes instead of the aggregate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Null0 is an interface that doesn’t exist. The null0 interface can be used with static routes to route a packet into a black hole of sorts. In other words, if you have traffic that you do not want to reach a particular destination, you can create the static route for that destination with the next-hop interface pointing to null0. Any traffic that enters the Router destined for the network specified in the static route will be sent to the null0 interface and dropped.
When working with classless and classful routing, you should crate a static route with the classful variant of the classless route and point it to interface null0.
Example: ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null0
Question 3.
Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two)
A. To reduce the amount of information any specific Router within the network must store and
process
B. To isolate the impact of DDoS attacks
C. To improve optimal routing within the network
D. To reduce the impact of topology changes
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Route aggregation, or route summarization, is the process of advertising a single route for multiple routes. This is useful in limiting the number of routes that will be stored in a routing table, thus cutting down on the amount of memory and processing power required.
Question 4.
Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.)
A. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network.
B. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes.
C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs.
D. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs.
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding and Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers. In OSPF environment either we can summarize routes in ASBR or ABR. ASBR can summarize the external routes and ABR can summarize internal routes between Area.
Example:
Inter-Area Route summarization:
Router(Config)#Router ospf 1
Router(Config-Router)#Area area-id range address mask
External Route Summarization:
Router(Config)#Router ospf 1
Router(Config-Router)#summary-address ip mask
Question 5.
EIGRP performs route summarization at the interface level with the “ip summaryaddress” command.
Which three statements correctly describe EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three)
A. By default, EIGRP automatically summarizes internal routes, but only each time a major
network boundary is crossed.
B. EIGRP route summarization can reduce the query diameter to help prevent SIA problems.
C. Summary routes are inserted in the routing table with a next hop of null 0 and a high
administrative distance, to prevent black holing of traffic.
D. The metric for each summarized route is inherited from the lowest metric of the component
routes.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Why build link state flooding domain boundaries in large-scale networks running OSPF or IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. Doing so provides logical break points at which to troubleshoot individual parts of the network,
rather than trying to troubleshoot the whole network at once.
B. Doing so limits the extent of SPF and allows the use of PRC for some best path calculations.
C. Flooding domain borders block the transmission of external routing information in the network,
which improves scaling and convergence times.
D. Network administrators can quickly find specific destinations when detailed link state
information is sorted by flooding domain in the link state database.
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
Which two options are true about the impact flooding domain boundaries have when built in OSPF? (Choose two)
A. They decrease convergence time by reducing the complexity and size of the shortest path
trees in the individual areas.
B. They isolate network failures within a domain.
C. They decrease convergence time by automatically summarizing reachability information
transmitted through the network, thereby decreasing the number of routes that must be
installed in each Router's routing table.
D. They increase convergence time by adding the time required to run two full Shortest Path First
computations on the area border Routers.
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.)
A. To provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
B. To segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
C. To aggregate reachability information
D. To increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Low-speed links and large numbers of spokes may require multiple flooding domains or areas to be supported effectively. You should balance the number of flooding domains on the hub against the number of spokes in each flooding domain. The link speeds and the amount of information being passed through the network determine the right balance. Design for these situations must balance the number of areas and the Router impact of maintaining an LSA database and doing Dijkstra calculations per area against the number of remote Routers in each area
Question 9.
What are three reasons to summarize link state topology information? (Choose three)
A. To reduce the amount of routing information being advertised
B. To create boundaries for containing potential network changes and instabilities
C. To permit traffic engineering between areas
D. To hide detailed topology information
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding, Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers.
Question 10.
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?
A. Redundant servers at the access level
B. High port densities at the access level
C. Modular block design at the access level
D. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary objectives in the design of a large-scale, shared-enterprise server farm are:
• Performance— Up to 10 Gbps outbound bandwidth capacity is required from the server farm for most enterprises.
• Scalability— A critical requirement in every server farm. Server load balancing is most often deployed. As the number of servers requiring higher-bandwidth connections increases, port densities can exceed the capacity of a single switch or server farm block. Applying a modular block design to server farm deployments permits flexible growth.
• Availability— Availability is generally ensured through the overall network design. Networks are designed to minimize the occurrence of service problems and the time to recover from problems, for example, with backup recovery policies and procedures.
• Security— Security is an integral part of the network design. A single vulnerability could compromise the enterprise. Specialized security expertise is often required.
• Manageability— Manageability means much more than knowing if a server or other network element is up or down. Good manageability tools and qualified personnel lower operations costs and reduce wasted time, and they yield higher overall satisfaction.
Reference:
CCDP Self-Study: Designing Cisco Network Architectures (ARCH) by Keith Hutton; Amir Ranjbar
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Question 1.
Which type of voice port will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN or a PBX?
A. FXO
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
E. BRI
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which of the following scenarios would a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?
A. In any cases as long as the switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. If the Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. If the Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only if both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.
Answer: C
Question 3.
The SBB Company is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. The company uses five-digit extensions and would like to be able to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO's home. The CEO's telephone number is 866-555-2222.
Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which Cisco Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C
Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about SIP trunk are true? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk configuration is always needed for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed only to provide internet access for your data users.
C. SIP trunk configuration parameters should be provided to your service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is needed only if you are using voice mail to supply the Message Waiting Indicator
value to the Cisco Unity Express module.
E. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service
provider.
F. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.
Answer: E, F
Question 6.
A customer wants to use a signaling protocol on the voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What protocol should be recommended?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SRTP
D. MGCP
Answer: D
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
After deploying a UC500 system, you receive a support call from a user reporting that callers are going straight to the operator instead of going to members of the hunt group.
Which two tabs have configuration parameters that are most likely going to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Device
B. System
C. Network
D. SIP Trunk
E. Voice Features
F. Dial Plan
Answer: E, F
Question 9.
What is the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?
A. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames.
B. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames.
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames.
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones
whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?
A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which value does an administrator assign to option 150 for DHCP to operate correctly in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express environment?
A. IP address of the DNS server
B. IP address of the TFTP server
C. MAC address of the TFTP server
D. MAC address of the DHCP server
E. MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
F. IP address of the PC on which the Cisco Unity Express module is installed
Answer: B
Question 12.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which identifies the amplitude of an analog signal stream?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A x C
E. Voltage/Time
F. Voltage/Time x B/C
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
B. access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 3030
C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
Answer: D
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.
Answer:
Question 3.
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent
Answer: A
Question 4.
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below:
Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class-default"?
A. inspect
B. drop
C. police
D. pass
Answer: B
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
Answer:
Question 6.
Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration?
A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicit deny all.
B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted.
C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0.
D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the
source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet.
Answer: C
Question 7.
For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1?
A. pre-shared key
B. integrity check value
C. XAUTH
D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct?
A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.
Answer: C
Question 9.
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OTP
B. OOB
C. SAFE
D. MARS
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. L2F tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. GRE tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel
Answer: D
Question 11.
As a candidate for CCNA examination, when you are familiar with the basic commands, if you input the command "enable secret level 5 password" in the global mode , what does it indicate?
A. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
C. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
D. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
E. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
Answer: C
Question 12.
Examine the following options ,when editing global IPS settings, which one determines if the IOS-based IPS feature will drop or permit traffic for a particular IPS signature engine while a new signature for that engine is being compiled?
A. Enable Signature Default
B. Enable Engine Fail Closed
C. Enable Default IOS Signature
D. Enable Fail Opened
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which statement best describes Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?
A. A router interface can belong to multiple zones.
B. Policy maps are used to classify traffic into different traffic classes, and class maps are used to
assign action to the traffic classes.
C. The pass action works in only one direction.
D. A zone-pair is bidirectional because it specifies traffic flowing among the interfaces within the
zone-pair in both directions.
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which feature is a potential security weakness of a traditional stateful firewall?
A. It cannot support UDP flows.
B. It cannot ensure each TCP connection follows a legitimate TCP three-way handshake.
C. It cannot detect application-layer attacks.
D. The status of TCP sessions is retained in the state table after the sessions terminate.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
For the following items .which one correctly describes fading?
A. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
B. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
C. A time varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. ReaD. write access is not available; only reaD. only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not
nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Question 3.
As a network technician, you must know Cisco WiSMs . Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 24
D. 5
Answer: B
Question 4.
You work as a network technician read this subject carefully .then answer the question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D
Question 5.
What are the four types of wireless networks? (Choose four)
A. Wireless PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. VLAN
E. WAN
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 6.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options .which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
What happens when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero ?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Client exclusion is disabled.
C. Clients are never excluded.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D
Question 9.
How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is the typical maximum range of a wireless PAN?
A. 45 feet
B. 50 feet.
C. 55 feet
D. 60 feet
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which one of the following CLI commands displays the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is shown on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show run-config
B. show config
C. show run config
D. show running-config
Answer: D
Question 12.
Observe the following attacks, which two does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.
A. War Driving
B. Man-in-thE. Middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B, D
Question 13.
Which device(s) will Lightweight access points send control traffic to?
A. The Wireless Control System.
B. Other access points.
C. The Wireless Controller.
D. Lightweight access points don't send control traffic.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A
Question 2.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C
Question 3.
Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C
Question 4.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B
Question 5.
Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: B, E
Question 6.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
What does "XXXXX" represent in the diagram?
A. Control word
B. Outer label
C. Inner Transport label
D. Service VC label
Answer: D
Question 7.
True or False? Nodes that are not directly connected by a physical link cannot participate in a VPN
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following SAP encapsulations supports only a single service on a port?
A. Dot1Q
B. Null
C. Q-in-Q
D. ATM
E. BCP
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following are considered to be services on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 Service Router? (Choose all that apply)
A. IES
B. VPRN
C. VPLS
D. Apipe
E. Mirroring
F. MPLS
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Question 10.
Which CLI command on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is needed to obtain the following output?
A. Show service description
B. Show service id
C. Show service customer
D. Show service information
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. An SDP is used to transport customer traffic between two nodes over a transport tunnel
B. A distributedEpipe service needs one SAP and one SDP on each node
C. For a service to be bi-directional, a SDP must be provisioned on each node participating in the
service
D. All of the above
Answer: D
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