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Question 1.
What is another term for a network security manager who acts as a potential hacker (a person looking for security loopholes)?
A. An agent
B. An auditor
C. An assessor
D. An analyzer
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the essential element in the implementation of any security plan?
A. Testing to make sure any server-side scripts are secure.
B. Testing patch levels.
C. Proper firewall configuration.
D. Auditing
Answer: D
Question 3.
A malicious user has connected to your system and learned that specifics of your operating system, including its current patch levels and the operating system name. What is the term for this type of scanning attack?
A. SYN detection
B. TCP priming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Stack fingerprinting
Answer: D
Question 4.
What is the most important step in securing a Web server?
A. Logging all HTTP activity.
B. Enabling system-wide encryption.
C. Placing the operating system, Web server program, and server files on the same partition.
D. Placing the operating system, Web server program, and server files on separate partitions.
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the primary security risk in SNMP?
A. Login names and passwords are not encrypted.
B. Damaging programs can be executed on the client.
C. Damaging programs can be executed on the server.
D. Passwords and data are transferred in cleartext.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Lucy is a systems administrator who wants to block all NNTP traffic between her network and the
Internet. How should she configure her firewall?
A. Configure the firewall to block all incoming and outgoing packets except for those with the source and destination port of 119. Then, allow all traffic with destination ports above 1024 to traverse the firewall.
B. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the source port of 119, and outgoing
packets with a source port lower than 1024.
Then, block all packets with the destination port of 119 and with a source port lower than 1024.
C. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the destination port of 119, and to
block outgoing packets with the destination port of 119.
D. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the source port of 119.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which port or ports are used for SMTP?
A. 20 and 21
B. 25
C. 53
D. 161 and 162
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which type of attack causes a remote host to crash because it cannot respond to any new TCP connection requests?
A. Crack attack
B. Smurf attack
C. SYN flood
D. ICMP flood
Answer: C
Question 9.
How are servers able to conduct a simple authentication check using DNS?
A. Forward DNS lookup
B. Reverse DNS lookup
C. RARP
D. Nslookup
Answer: B
Question 10.
Part of a fire protection plan for a computer room should include:
A. Procedures for an emergency shutdown of equipment.
B. A sprinkler system that exceeds local code requirements.
C. The exclusive use of non-flammable materials within the room.
D. Fireproof doors that can be easily opened if an alarm is sounded.
Answer: A
Question 11.
What network mapping tool uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)?
A. Port scanner
B. Map scanner
C. Ping scanner
D. Share scanner
Answer: C
Question 12.
Which of the following would be most effective in preventing network traffic sniffing?
A. Deploy an IDS (Intrusion Detection System).
B. Disable promiscuous mode.
C. Use hubs instead of routers.
D. Use switches instead of hubs.
Answer: D
Question 13.
A user wants to send an e-mail and ensure that the message is not tampered with while in transit.
Which feature of modern cryptographic systems will facilitate this?
A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which of the following type of attack CANNOT be deterred solely through technical means?
A. Dictionary
B. Man in the middle
C. DoS (Denial of Service)
D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Question 15.
An organization is implementing Kerberos as its primary authentication protocol.
Which of the following must be deployed for Kerberos to function?
A. Dynamic IP (Internet Protocol) routing protocols for routers and servers.
B. Separate network segments for the realms.
C. Token authentication devices.
D. Time synchronization services for clients and servers.
Answer: D
Question 16.
Which of the following is likely to be found after enabling anonymous FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
read/write access?
A. An upload and download directory for each user.
B. Detailed logging information for each user.
C. Storage and distribution of unlicensed software.
D. Fewer server connections and less network bandwidth utilization.
Answer: C
Question 17.
Net Bus and Back Orifice are each considered an example of a(n):
A. Virus
B. Illicit server
C. Spoofing tool
D. Allowable server
Answer: B
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Question 1.
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic
before forwarding data packets
B. NBX phones tag voice packets usingDiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
D. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Users can use a TAPI4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
B. Can use the computer default media player to listen to a message
C. Requires NBXpcXset client software
D. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM and full-duplex sound card
Answer: B, E, F
Question 3.
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communication System? (Choose three.)
A. Is a combination of two required chassis ?the Network Call Processor and the interface
chassis
B. Offers optional hot-swap power supply
C. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are
Installed on a LAN
D. Provides one 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
E. Has 7 card slots, 6 of which are useable with the top useable slot designated for the Network
Call Processor Card
F. Requires a Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
Answer: C, E, F
Question 4.
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped
for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route
decisions
B. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be
mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps
incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP
routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the NBX administrator get both internal and external calls to use Timed Routes?
A. Create the necessary entries in the Dial Plan using the keywords "inbound" and " outbound" to
specify call direction
B. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and External Dial Plan tables
C. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and Incoming Dial Plan tables
D. The Dial Plan has an inbound and outbound section where the specific Timed Routes are
coded
E. The Dial Plan does not support alternate routes for inbound calls
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
C. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
answered at a phone
D. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if
They are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
E. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
F. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end
of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
Answer: A, C, E
Question 7.
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems support software version R5.0? (Choose three.)
A. NBX 25
B. VCX 7000
C. VCX 6000
D. NBX 100
E. NBX V5000
F. NBX V3000
Answer: D, E, F
Question 9.
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data
network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX system and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from
the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
C. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each site,
Users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via
a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a single NBX system at HQ andpcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call
to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
B. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card,
etc.
C. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
D. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
F. New software version
Answer: A, C, F
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Question 1.
What information is required to create a new local user under the User section of the admin GUI? (Choose three.)
A. authentication server
B. user name
C. password
D. group name
E. description
Answer: A, B, C
Question 2.
You configure a user role to load a specific start page rather than the IVE bookmark page.
What must you do to allow the user to access the page?
A. Create a resource profile for the page to allow access.
B. Create a resource policy for the page to allow access.
C. Create a caching policy
D. Do nothing, access is automatically granted.
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is the purpose of Host Checker?
A. to determine the security status of the remote machine
B. to distribute software to the remote machine
C. to capture sign-in credentials of the remote user
D. to remove unwanted files from the remote machine
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose two.)
A. Tera Term
B. Windows Terminal Service
C. SecureCRT
D. Citrix ICA
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
What are two features of J-SAM? (Choose two.)
A. Map network drives using NetBios.
B. Encapsulate dynamic UDP port client and server traffic.
C. Encapsulate static TCP port client and server traffic.
D. Support for only Windows, Linux, and Solaris platforms.
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
Which three functions are performed by user roles? (Choose three.)
A. defining user session parameters
B. allowing access to specific services
C. allowing access to types of services
D. establishing session settings and options
E. selecting user authentication methods
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. persistent session
B. roaming session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C
Question 8.
You receive an IVE from the factory. Which Web address should you access if you want to initially configure the device using a browser?
A. You cannot initially configure the IVE from a browser.
B. https://192.168.0.1
C. Obtain IP address using DHCP.
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
Answer: A
Question 9.
Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. network connect
B. secure meeting
C. Web applications
D. terminal services
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Answer: C, D
Question 11.
When configuring a Sign-in Page, which two may be changed? (Choose two.)
A. text for login screen displays
B. authorization server
C. authentication policy
D. custom HTML file for help
Answer: A, D
Question 12.
Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. LDAP
C. SiteMinder
D. SAML
E. ACE
Answer: A, B, E
Question 13.
Which two statements about a server certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. A server certificate is a digital document vouches for the identity of the server.
B. A server certificate is an electronic "drivers license" that establishes client credentials when
doing business or other transactions on the Web.
C. A server certificate is required for HTTP to function.
D. A server certificate contains information about the server itself and the organization that owns
the server.
Answer: A, D
Question 14.
Which two tools allow an administrator to work with an end user to identify an access problem? (Choose two.)
A. Events log
B. policy simulation
C. policy trace
D. User Access log
Answer: C, D
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Question 1.
A QoS STA is permitted to send which frame types of a Hybrid Coordinator?
A. QoS Data + CF-ACK + CF-Poll
B. Data + CF - Poll
C. QoS Null
D. PS-Poll
E. CF-End + CF -Ack
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
WMM-PS trigger frames can be what type of IEEE 802.11 frames?
A. Reassociation
B. PS-Poll
C. QoS Data
D. QoS + CF-Poll
E. QoS Null
F. CTS
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
Given: ITCertKeys.com has an IEEE 802.11 WLAN secured by strong authentication (PEAP-EAP-MSCHAPv2) and encryption (CCMP/AES). They wish to implement wVoIP phones but have notices that the phones they have selected only supports WPA-Personal using TKIP/RC4.
How can ITCertKeys.com maintain their current level of data security while allowing the wVoIP phones network access?
A. Enable application layer encryption for the voice protocol and implement a wireless intrusion
prevention system (WIPS) on the wVoIP network segment
B. Use a secure DHCP server that can restrict access to layer 3 addresses based on user
authentication
C. Use MAC filtering to the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used
D. Use a separate SSID for the wVoIP phones and map this new SSID to a separate VLAN on
the wired infrastructure
E. Using RBAC, allow only the appropriate voice protocol (SIP, H.323 etc) to a specific
destination address on the network segment where the wVoIP phones will be used
Answer: D, E
Question 4:
On an Enterprise IEEE 802.11 WLAN supporting both voice and data, why is WPA2-Personal security often preferred over WPA2-Enterprise Security for voice-enabled devices?
A. WPA2-Personal imposes less encryption overhead than WPA2-Enterprise, resulting in better
performance
B. WPA2-Personal is more easily configured on the voice-enabled client devices than WPA2-
Enterprise
C. WPA2-Personal supports IEEE 802.11 fast/secure roaming between access points, whereas
WPA2-Enterpise deployments may not
D. Voice-enabled devices uses application layer (L7) security mechanism, minimizing the need
for scalable data link (L2) security
E. WPA2-Enterprise voice-enabled devices consume battery life at rate of almost double that of
WAP2-Personal
Answer: C
Question 5.
Given: An ingress frame arrives on the Ethernet port of an autonomous AP marked with an IEEE 802.1D user priority value:
Which IEEE 802.1D user priority values (by name) will assure the data payload carried by the Ethernet frame gets assigned to the highest priority WMM queue?
A. Voice
B. Network Control
C. Best Effort
D. Controlled Load
E. Video
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
A QoS STA obtains a TXOP for an access category (AC) after what two parameters are met?
A. After a Block ACK Response
B. After a scheduled service period ends
C. The medium is idle at the AIFS[AC] slot boundary
D. After a Target Beacon Transmission Time (TBTT)
E. The backoff time for that AC has expired
Answer: C, E
Question 7.
Given: An EDCA QoS BSS is operating as a Robust Security Network (RSN). Two QoS STAs in the QoS BSS are using a Direct Link to communicate.
When the RTS/CTS threshold is exceeded for a frame to be transmitted between the two QoS STAs, what is the frame exchange sequence, including interframe spaces?
A. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
B. AIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-DIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
C. DIFS-RTS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
D. RIFS-RTS-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
E. DIFS-RTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-CTS-SIFS-ACK-SIFS-DATA-SIFS-ACK
Answer: A
Question 8.
All successful frame transmissions within an EDCA TXOP are separated by what IEEE 802.11 entity?
A. TBTT
B. ACK
C. SIFS
D. AIFS
E. PIFS
F. CAP
Answer: C
Question 9.
Given: ITCertKeys.com has recently installed its first access point. The access point is an ERP unit and both ERP and HR-DSSS client stations will be used on the wireless network simultaneously. The network administrator has appropriately configured the access point and all of the company's HR-DSSS wireless client stations to use short preambles for CCK transmissions. A visitor begins using a Personal Data Assistant (PDA) with an integrated HR-DSSS radio configured for use of long preambles on ABC's wireless network
Which statement describes what the network administrator will se with a wireless protocol analyzer?
A. Once the visitor's PDA is associated to the access point, all HR-DSSS stations associated to
the access point will being using long preambles
B. The visitor's PDA will communicate with the access point using long preambles and the access
point will communicate with all other client stations using short preambles
C. The visitor's PDA will not be able to associate to the wireless network and it will cause
significant interference for other wireless stations
D. The visitor's PDA will associate to the access point using MMPDUs with long preambles but
then begin sending Data frames using short preambles since data frames can't use long
preambles
Answer: A
Question 10.
Given: Shown are frames captured from an IEEE 80.1X/LEAP authentication. This WLAN is a Robust Security network (RSN) using the CCMP cipher suite.
Exhibit:
Using the information given in the screenshot, calculate how long it takes for only the frames that are part of the 4-Way handshake to complete.
A. 210.443 ms
B. 243.743 ms
C. 3.018 ms
D. 5.820 ms
E. 237.753 ms
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of the following commands will display a list of installed AIX software on a server?
A. installp
B. lpstat
C. lppchk
D. lslpp
Answer: D
Question 2.
There is a database running in an AIX partition on a p570 server. The database administer wants a script run to cleanly shut down the database before the operating system is shut down.
As system administrator, which of the following would meet the database administrator requirement?
A. Use the chitab command to change the Action field of the appropriate /etc/inittab entry from
espawn to nce
B. Create a script to shut down the database in the /etc/rc.d/rc2.d directory
C. Create a DLPAR script on the HMC that issues an operating system command to run the
database shut down script whenever a hutdown LPAR command is run on the HMC
D. Create an /etc/rc.shutdown file containing instructions to shut down the database
Answer: D
Question 3.
A System p administrator is doing an AIX 5.3 New and Complete Overwrite installation on a system with a 64-bit processor using the default settings.
Which of the following options will be the resulting installed environment?
A. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 64-bit kernel will be enabled
B. Only the 32-bit kernel will be installed and enabled
C. Only the 64-bit kernel will be installed and enabled
D. Both the 32-bit and 64-bit kernel will be installed and the 32-bit kernel will be enabled
Answer: D
Question 4.
An administrator wants to copy the contents of /apps to tape.
Which of the following would accomplish this?
A. cpio -itv < /dev/rmt0
B. tar -xvf /dev/rmt0 /apps
C. find /apps -print | backup -i -v -f /dev/rmt0
D. find /apps -print | tar -tvf /dev/rmt0
Answer: C
Question 5.
How would an administrator reboot a system into maintenance mode?
A. init 0
B. reboot -m
C. bosboot -ad
D. shutdown -Fm
Answer: D
Question 6.
A user is having unrecognizable characters appear on their IBM 3153 terminal when using the ksh shell. The administrator examines the user's .profile in their home directory and it contains this related section of code.
A. 'TERM=ibm3151' should read 'TERM=ibm3153'
B. 'set TERM' should be changed to 'export TERM'
C. 'set TERM' should appear before the 'TERM=ibm3151'
D. 'set TERM' should read 'set $TERM'
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is an advantage of DLPAR?
A. Real mode address memory requirements have been increased for contiguous blocks of
physical memory for large-memory partitions therefore improving performance for large
applications.
B. Since at least 1 Gig of memory is required most applications will run better.
C. DLPAR provides the ability to add/remove processing capacity to an LPAR without disrupting
applications.
D. After reallocating resources DLPAR partitions reboot faster making the changes to those
partitions readily available.
Answer: C
Question 8.
During reboot, the system hangs with LED 0581 that indicates "Configuring TCP/IP."
Which of the following recovery procedures should be taken?
A. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and check the /etc/inittab for corruption.
B. Boot in maintenance mode after verifying the network connection, access the rootvg and check
the /etc/rc.net file.
C. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and rebuild the boot image using the bosboot
command.
D. Boot in maintenance mode, access the rootvg and run /etc/tcp.clean.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which command is used to wait for a process to exit and display the status?
A. pwait
B. procwait
C. pstat
D. ps
Answer: B
Question 10.
A System p administrator needs to verify that the symbolic links associated with a fileset are correct as indicated in the Software Vital Product Data (SWVPD) database.
Which command will provide this information?
A. instfix -l
B. lslpp -h
C. installp -v
D. lppchk -l
Answer: D
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth.
How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously?
A. 23
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8
Answer: D
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed.
What will happen when the three staff members join the conference?
A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing
resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR.
B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the
hardware conferencing resources.
C. The staff members will all join the conference normally.
D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only
supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator.
C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes.
D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect.
E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command.
Answer: C
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?
A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches
identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp
farm profile.
C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.
D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone.
Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured
under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of
914085550150 configured under the AAR Settings.
Answer: D, E
Question 7.
How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The
SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.
B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the
SRST gateway.
C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their
registration with the SRST gateway.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose).
Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true?
A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device
Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same.
B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group
remained the same.
C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility
Group.
D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is
conferencing a user at his home location.
Answer: C
Question 9.
As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan.
Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use
the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Implement Mobile Connect.
E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
Answer: E
Question 10.
A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost.
Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls.
C. The default service must be enabled globally.
D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer.
F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones.
Answer: A, C, D
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