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Hi all, do you have a 642-103 study guide ? Pl send me anaqua@yahoo.com thanks &Rgds
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Question 1. ITCertKeys.com is adding a new branch office with 60 access points and 120 users that requires WDS to support a wireless VoIP application on a single subnet. Additionally, the customer requires local authentication services to provide authentication capability in the event of a WAN failure. Which product will support the customer requirements? A. Cisco 2811 Integrated Services Router B. Cisco 3745 Multiservice Access Router C. Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Router D. Cisco 2851 Integrated Services Router Answer: C Question 2. The Cisco wireless LAN controller supports multiple secure authentication types. Which authentication type provides Layer 3 security? A. WPA2 B. Cranite C. AirFortress D. IPSec Answer: D Question 3. The Cisco WCS logs which two security events? (Choose two.) A. TKIP and MIC Failures B. Securitymisconfigurations on the controller C. Wireless Protocol analyzer Detection D. Rogue access points E. Rogue Clients Answer: D, E Question 4. Which EAP authentication is used by the Cisco Wireless LAN controller for local authentication? A. EAP-MD5 B. No EAP authentication is used. C. EAP-TLS D. PEAP-MSCHAP E. PEAP-GTC Answer: B Question 5. Which method is used to determine the best path across a wireless mesh network? A. AWP B. hop count C. STP D. EIGRP Answer: A Question 6. OFDM provides which improvement over DSSS in the 2.4-GHz range? A. greater resistance to multipath interference B. more bandwidth per channel C. more nonoverlapping channels D. full duplex communication Answer: A Question 7. DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, is curious about the Cisco Compatible Extensions program. You tell her that it is divided into three phases. Match the phases with the appropriate definitions. Use each phase once and only once. Answer: Question 8. Which two activities are included in a Wireless Security Posture Assessment? (Choose two.) A. scan all host systems and log all open ports B. check access point configurations and compare them against recommended security practices C. ensure that the client is using a strong password policy D. check all systems to ensure that the patches are being applied in a timely manner E. find WLAN traffic that is leaking from the customer building Answer: B, E Question 9. Which three authentication methods are supported on the WLSE Express local authentication server? (Choose three.) A. EAP-TTLS B. EAP-Cisco Wireless (LEAP) C. EAP-SIM D. EAP-FAST E. EAP-MD5 F. EAP-PEAP Answer: B, D, F Question 10. DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, is curious about the advanced feature set products. You are required to detect and move the correct three. Answer: Explanation: The "CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine" is the management of the Core Feature set products. This is the description for the class -"Cisco Wireless LAN Advanced Topics (CWLAT)v1.0": This course is designed to give students a firm understanding of the components, features and proper deployment of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network. The course focuses on advanced WLAN design, integrating Cisco wireless components into a wired infrastructure. Deployment topics include managing the WLAN by using the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) to manage the advanced feature set and using the CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solutions Engine (WLSE) to manage the core feature set.
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Question 1.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.
Answer:
Question 2.
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Answer: D, E
Question 3.
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not
supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Answer: D
Question 5.
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Answer: F
Question 6.
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA
propagation
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic
flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Answer: C
Question 9.
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Answer: A, B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.
Answer:
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Question 1.
Quality of service is analyzed at which service component within the Cisco Unified Communications plan phase?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Application Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Operation Readiness Assessment
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which optimize phase service component assesses the current state of the network management infrastructure of a customer to identity issues and opportunities that lead to recommendations for improving the ability to manage their Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Deployment Assessment
B. Technology Assessment
C. Security Assessment
D. Operations Assessment
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which statement most accurately describes the account planning service component in the prepare phase for Cisco Unified Communications?
A. It performs a detailed financial analysis, including current phone network costs, training, and
return of investment.
B. It researches unique challenges and conducts competitive analysis to determine a vertical
approach and strategy.
C. It identifies the key players, high-level solution requirements, timelines, and scope of the
opportunity.
D. It provides the partner with information regarding customer acceptance of the new solution.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which phase includes conducting Cisco Unified Communications network traffic analysis and capacity planning in order to ensure high availability?
A. Design
B. Prepare
C. Maintain
D. Optimize
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which two of the following activities are included in the Cisco Unified Communications staff development? Select two.
A. Collect Cisco Unified Communications Training Materials
B. Develop Job Role Training Requirement
C. Request for Training Budget
D. Develop Curriculum Map
E. Develop Informal Basic Training
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which Service component in Cisco Unified Communications operate phase identifies and solves reoccurring incidents by analyzing incident trends to identify patterns and systemic conditions?
A. Problem Management
B. Incident Management
C. Change Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which service component in the design phase describes developing a detailed, site-specific plan for implementing the new technology system or solution?
A. Implementation Plan Development
B. Detailed Design Development
C. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
D. Staging Plan Development
Answer: A
Question 8.
The final documentation that records detailed implementation information for customers, including specific design requirements, are delivered at which server component within the Cisco Unified Communications implement phase?
A. Project Closeout
B. As-Built Documentation
C. Operations Setup
D. Post-Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which service component in the plan phase evaluates the readiness of your current facilities infrastructure to support Cisco Unified Communications system development?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Operation Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Application Readiness Assessment
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following three service requirements are included in the Cisco Unified Communications optimize phase? Select three.
A. Business Case Alignment
B. Security Assessment
C. Incident management
D. Operations Readiness Assessment
E. Technology Assessment
Answer: A, B, E
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Question 1.
What command can be used to list the Linux firewall rules in effect?
A. iptables -L
B. cat /proc/firewall
C. cat /etc/firewall.conf
D. chkconfig -l iptables
Answer: A
Question 2.
As part of the installation procedure, the customer wants to ensure that Linux can provide file sharing services to MS Windows clients.
Which of the following tasks must be accomplished?
A. Use the package selection feature of the installation procedure to ensure that the SAMBA
package will be installed.
B. Ensure that the SAMBA administrator user is created as part of the installation procedure.
C. Ensure that the Linux file system is formatted as either FAT or FAT32.
D. Create a SAMBA shared called windowsfs.
Answer: A
Question 3.
A customer with a Linux partition will create a subnet with a mask of 255.255.255.252. The subnet will provide two usable IP addresses that are 172.27.16.5 and 172.27.16.6.
What will the network ID be?
A. 172.27.16.0
B. 172.27.16.2
C. 172.27.16.4
D. 172.27.16.7
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the minimum user authority needed to create a Linux partition on an HMC?
A. SuperAdmin
B. Operator
C. PE
D. Admin
Answer: B
Question 5.
A System i customer successfully installed a hosted Linux partition using all virtual resources on a model 520 with an HMC. After logging onto the Linux partition through the console, the administrator attempts to setup the network but could not find the LAN adapter in the Linux partition.
Which of the following is the probable cause for the missing LAN adapter?
A. The virtual LAN adapter was not created during the initial partition creation.
B. The FC #5706 Ethernet adapter in the system unit was not assigned to the Linux partition as a
desired device.
C. The virtual IOP driving the virtual Ethernet adapter was not assigned as a required device.
D. The hosting partition virtual TCP IP host servers were not started.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What authority does an SST profile need in order to connect to the Linux virtual console via i5/OS?
A. Service tool security
B. Hardware Service Manager
C. Partition remote panel key
D. System partitions - administration
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which task will enable Linux to access an i5/OS image catalog?
A. Vary off the image catalog and allocate it to the Linux partition
B. Link the image catalog to the NWSD
C. fsmount to the /dev/vrtcdrom
D. Mount the CD
Answer: D
Question 8.
A customer with multiple divisions needs to ensure the Linux kernel and tool set used at each division are the same.
Which of the following would ensure kernel uniformity at each division?
A. Use IBM Supplied Linux fixpack SI99607.
B. Copy NWSSTG feature in i5/OS.
C. Use IBM flashcopy in binary mode.
D. Install a Linux distribution from the United Linux Standards Base.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A customer wants to implement a Linux instance on System i that lets them take advantage of the features presented by the Secure Enterprise Linux (SELinux) initiative.
Which of the following Linux distributions provides this capability?
A. Ubuntu
B. Novell/SUSE
C. Red Hat
D. turbolinux
Answer: C
Question 10.
A customer with a uniprocessor 9406-270 (FC 2248, 150 CPW) at V5R2 running at 85% processor utilization with 50% disk utilization plans to add a small Linux application and needs a dedicated Ethernet connection for the application.
Which of the following actions best meets the customer's requirements?
A. Implement LPAR on the 270 and purchase a LAN card and a Linux license.
B. Migrate to an eServer i5 520 and implement LPAR with a LAN card in the Linux partition and a
Linux license.
C. Order an MES upgrade to a dual processor 270 and implement LPAR with a LAN card in the
Linux partition and a Linux license.
D. Install the Linux binary in the PASE environment.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which ports should be used when ITCAM for WebSphere Data Collectors are being installed in a network deployment environment?
A. HTTP port of the deployment manager
B. SOAP port of the deployment manager
C. the SOAP port of the local admin server
D. the bootstrap port of the local admin server
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which command will show if any Data Collectors are currently registered with the Managing Server?
A. amctl.sh status
B. klctl.sh status
C. dcctl.sh status
D. am-check.sh status
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is one protocol used by the Managing Server to communicate with the Data Collectors?
A. IMS
B. RMI
C. SQL
D. XML
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which component of IMS Connect must be installed in the WebSphere Application Server JVM to support composite transactions that invoke IMS?
A. IMS load libraries
B. IMS resource adapter
C. WebSphere MQ for IMS
D. IMS exit program DFSMSCE0
Answer: B
Question 5.
When determining the network bandwidth needed for a Data Collector, what is the most dominant factor?
A. number of Web applications
B. number of active transactions
C. number of transactions monitored in L3
D. number of data collectors providing data
Answer: C
Question 6.
Identify the two situations below in which the silent install is either the best option or the only choice? (Choose two.)
A. Data Collectors are being installed on many physical servers.
B. When there are some settings that can only be made by using the silent install.
C. When the silent install provides additional logging and can help with problem determination.
D. When the host on which the Data Collector is being installed does not have X Window System
available.
E. When a Data Collector install is to be done on x/Linux which does not have a desktop such as
Gnome or KDE, though it has X Window System.
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
Which three configurations generate correlation for composite transaction? (Choose three.)
A. WebSphere accessing DB2 on z/OS
B. CICS transaction invoking IMS DBCTL call
C. WebSphere calling IMS using IMS Connect
D. WebSphere calling Web Services running on another WebSphere
E. CICS transaction using Distributed Program Link (DPL) to another CICS region
F. WebSphere connecting to Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) application using messaging
Answer: C, D, E
Question 8.
If the Typical (embedded) installation method is used to install ITCAM for WebSphere, what component is installed in the Managing Server environment?
A. Publishing Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Global Publishing Server
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
Answer: C
Question 9.
The ITCAM for WebSphere Managing Server is composed of which components?
A. Kernel, Publisher Server, Archive Agent, Message Dispatch, Local Publish Server,
Visualization Engine
B. Kernel, Publishing Server, Archive Agent, Polling Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish
Server, GUI
C. Kernel, Publish Server, Archive Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish Server,
Visualization Engine
D. Kernel, Published Server, Archive Agents, Polling Agent, Message Dispatcher, Global Publish
Server, Visualization Engine
Answer: C
Question 10.
After completing an ITCAM for WebSphere Typical (embedded) install, what could be done first to verify a successful installation of WebSphere?
A. create a schedule
B. configure a data collector
C. check for ITCAM process ID
D. log on to the WebSphere Administrative console
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which three are contained in the Safety Plans application? (Choose three.)
A. Job Plan
B. Hazard(s)
C. Attached Documents
D. Equipment or Location
E. Condition Monitoring Point
Answer: B, C, D
Question 2.
Which two types of locations can be created in MAXIMO's Location application? (Choose two.)
A. Repair
B. Salvage
C. Equipment
D. Work Order
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
Which three steps are involved in transferring an item between storerooms using the Issues and Transfers application? (Choose three.)
A. select items for transfer
B. perform a Transfer In transaction
C. perform a Transfer Out transaction
D. perform a material receipt to the storeroom
E. select the Work Order, Location, or GL Account code
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
How should you create a Primary System in the Locations application?
A. It is created automatically.
B. enter it in to the System area
C. use the System toolbar button
D. click Select Action | Manage Systems
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which two fields are required on the Preventive Maintenance (PM) main screen to generate a Work Order? (Choose two.)
A. Route
B. Supervisor
C. Next Job Plan
D. Work Order Status
E. Location, Equipment, or GL Account
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
What are three steps for entering Problem, Cause, and Remedy Codes on a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A. click the Failure Reporting tab and enter the codes
B. enter Problem, Cause, and Remedy Codes on the Work Order main tab
C. enter the Failure Class and Problem Code on the Work Order main screen, click the Failure
Reporting tab, and enter the Cause and Remedy Codes
D. if the Failure Class is present, enter the Problem Code on the Work Order main screen, click
the Failure Reporting tab, and enter the Cause and Remedy Codes
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Which application is used to modify delivered MAXIMO reports?
A. BRIO Workbench
B. Actuate ReportCast
C. eReport Designer Professional
D. Actuate Administrative Desktop tool
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which application can move equipment to another location or equipment parent?
A. Inventory
B. Equipment
C. Work Request
D. Issues and Transfers
Answer: B
Question 9
Which three data elements does the Equipment record store? (Choose three.)
A. serial number
B. model number
C. installation date
D. replacement date
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
What is the best action to create a Work Order when additional work is required?
A. select the Work Order in question;
click Select Action | Duplicate Work Order
B. select the Work Order in question;
click Select Action | Generate Follow-up Work
C. select the Work Order in question;
write down the Work Order number;
click the New Work Order icon;
write in the original Work Order number in the Originating WO field
D. select the Work Order in question;
go to the Work Order field and copy the Work Order number;
click Select Action | Duplicate Work Order;
copy the original Work Order number in the Originating WO field
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 3.
Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may be
shared by objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it
implements.
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts
Answer: D
Question 7.
Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely
surviving intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and attribute
types before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which allows
users to define the systems look and feel
Answer: A
Question 9.
An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes share the same superclass.
Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?
A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()
Answer: A
Question 10.
An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system.
Which area of focus is essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which configuration requires two power zones to be enabled on the power enclosure management modules?
A. any configuration that mixes a single phase and three-phase power
B. full 42U rack with four 3U power enclosures connected by mini bus bars
C. full 42U rack with four 3U power enclosures connected by scalable bus bars
D. any configuration that has two or more 3U power enclosures connected to the facility DC
power
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the recommended environment for using high-voltage modular power distribution units (PDUs)?
A. when using 1U power enclosures
B. when using 3U, single-phase power enclosures
C. when using 3U, three-phase power enclosures and redundant power
D. when using 3U, three-phase power enclosures and non-enhanced server blade enclosures
Answer: A
Question 3.
You have an enhanced server blade enclosure connected to a single 3U power enclosure. Only side A of the server blade enclosure is connected to the power enclosure.
Which server blade enclosure bays receive DC power?
A. bays 1 through 8
B. bays 1 through 8, plus the interconnect bays
C. bays 1 through 4, plus the interconnect bays
D. bays 1 through 4, plus the interconnect bay on side A
E. bays 5 through 8, plus the interconnect bay on side A
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the recommended environment for using high-voltage PDUs?
A. when using single-phase power and 3U power enclosures
B. when using facility DC power with a fully-populated 42U rack
C. when using 3U power enclosures with the non-enhanced server blade enclosures
D. when using a large number of server blades that place a high load on the power bus
E. when using the enhanced server blade enclosure in a redundant power configuration
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which UPS supports the p-Class infrastructure and is 3U high?
A. HP R1500XR
B. HP R3000XR
C. HP R5500XR
D. HP R12000XR
Answer: C
Question 6.
When must the load-balancing cable be installed?
A. when one or more power enclosure pairs are installed in a rack
B. when an odd number of power enclosures are installed in a rack
C. when a three-phase power enclosure is connected to the original server blade enclosure
D. when one power enclosure provides redundant power to the original server blade enclosure
Answer: A
Question 7.
What is the maximum combination of power and enhanced server blade enclosures that can be connected to a mini bus bar?
A. 1 power and 2 server blade enclosures
B. 1 power and 3 server blade enclosures
C. 2 power and 2 server blade enclosures
D. 2 power and 3 server blade enclosures
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which power distribution option requires the dual power input kit for power redundancy?
A. mini bus bar
B. power bus box
C. scalable bus bar
D. facility DC power
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the default administrator account username and password for the Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch?
A. admin/admin
B. admin/password
C. administrator/
D. administrator/password
Answer: B
Question 10.
You are creating a VLAN on a GbE2 Interconnect Switch. This VLAN must include the crosslink ports.
Which ports must you include?
A. ports 1 and 2
B. ports 3 and 4
C. ports 15 and 16
D. ports 17 and 18
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Question 1.
You think users on your corporate network are disguising the use of file-sharing applications by tunneling the traffic through port 80.
How can you configure your Cisco IPS Sensor to identify and stop this activity?
A. Enable all signatures in the Service HTTP engine.
B. Assign the Deny Packet Inline action to all signatures in the Service HTTP engine.
C. Enable all signatures in the Service HTTP engine. Then create an event action override that
adds the Deny Packet Inline action to events triggered by these signatures if the traffic
originates from your corporate network.
D. Enable the alarm for the non-HTTP traffic signature. Then create an Event Action Override that
adds the Deny Packet Inline action to events triggered by the signature if the traffic originates
from your corporate network.
E. Enable both the HTTP application policy and the alarm on non-HTTP traffic signature.
Answer: E
Question 2.
A user with which user account role on a Cisco IPS Sensor can log into the native operating system shell for advanced troubleshooting purposes when directed to do so by Cisco TAC?
A. administrator
B. operator
C. viewer
D. service
E. root
F. super
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which character must precede a variable to indicate that you are using a variable rather than a string?
A. percent sign
B. dollar sign
C. ampersand
D. pound sign
E. asterisk
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which statement accurately describes Cisco IPS Sensor automatic signature and service pack updates?
A. The Cisco IPS Sensor can automatically download service pack and signature updates from
Cisco.com.
B. The Cisco IPS Sensor can download signature and service pack updates only from an FTP or
HTTP server.
C. You must download service pack and signature updates from Cisco.com to a locally
accessible server before they can be automatically applied to your Cisco IPS Sensor.
D. When you configure automatic updates, the Cisco IPS Sensor checks Cisco.com for updates
hourly.
E. If multiple signature or service pack updates are available when the sensor checks for an
update, the Cisco IPS Sensor installs the first update it detects.
Answer: C
Question 5.
How can you clear events from the event store?
A. You do not need to clear the event store; it is a circular log file, so once it reaches the
maximum size it will be overwritten by new events.
B. You must use the CLI clear events command.
C. If you have Administrator privileges, you can do this by selecting Monitoring > Events > Reset
button in Cisco IDM.
D. You should select File > Clear IDM Cache in Cisco IDM.
E. You cannot clear events from the event store; they must be moved off the system using the
copy command.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the partial output shown, which of these statements is true?
A. The module installed in slot 1 needs to be a type 5540 module to be compatible with the ASA
5540 Adaptive Security Appliance module type.
B. The module installed in slot 1 needs to be upgraded to the same software revision as module 0
or it will not be recognized.
C. Module 0 system services are not running.
D. There is a Cisco IPS security services module installed.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which action does the copy /erase ftp://172.26.26.1/sensor_config01 current-config command perform?
A. erases the sensor_config01 file on the FTP server and replaces it with the current
configuration file from the Cisco IPS Sensor
B. copies and saves the running configuration to the FTP server and replaces it with the source
configuration file
C. overwrites the backup configuration and applies the source configuration file to the system
default configuration
D. merges the source configuration file with the current configuration
Answer: C
Question 8.
Match each evasive technique on the left to the proper description on the right.
Answer:
Question 9.
Which of the following is a valid file name for a Cisco IPS 6.0 system image?
A. IPS-K9-pkg-6.0-sys_img.sys
B. IPS-4240-K9-img-6.0-sys.sys
C. IPS-K9-cd-11-a-6.0-1-E1.img
D. IPS-4240-K9-sys-1.1-a-6.0-1-E1.img
Answer: D
Question 10.
Drag the IPS appliance software bypass mode description on the left to match the correct mode on the right.
Answer:
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