Question 1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network. 

Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?

A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above

Answer:  D

Explanation:
The biggest benefit of using switches instead of hubs in your internetwork is that each switch port is actually its own collision domain. (Conversely, a hub creates one large collision domain.) But even armed with a switch, you still can't break up broadcast domains. Neither switches nor bridges will do that. They'll typically simply forward all broadcasts instead. Switch creates the collision domain per port, so we can say switch increase the number of collision domains.

Question 2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?

A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.

Answer:  E

Explanation: 
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a 
    network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN. 
    Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice, 
    switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to 
    them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.

Question 3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)

A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each 
    frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.

Answer:  B, C

Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports 
    than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic 
    remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating 
    additional, smaller collision domains.

Question 4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)

A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above

Answer:  A, C, F

Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers 
    do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can 
    not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment.
D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default. 
    Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the 
    router level.

Question 5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeysCorporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.

Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater

Answer:  D, E

Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.

Question 6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space. 

What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)

A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization

Answer:  B, C

Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.

Question 7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN. 

Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)

A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Answer:  B, E, F

Question 8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. 

Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1

Answer:  A, C, D

Explanation:
Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with very low latency rates. Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both operates on Data link layer.

Question 9.
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)

A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains

Answer:  A, D

Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.

Question 10.
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)

A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages

Answer:  B, D

Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network. 
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.

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Braindumps for "642-061" Exam

Routing and Switching Solutions for System Engineers (RSSSE)

 Question 1.
In a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch, in which slots can the Sup2 card be installed?

A. slots 1 and 2
B. slots 1 through 9
C. any slot
D. slots 3 and 4
E. slots 5 and 6

Answer:  E

Question 2.
Which two standards enable the PVDM module on the ISR to provide secure communications with IP Phones? (Choose two.)

A. SRTP
B. AES encryption
C. MD5 hash
D. IPSec
E. RSA signature
F. RUDP

Answer:  A, B

Question 3.
Which of these features makes a Cisco 7300 Series Router the preferred choice when hardware-accelerated IP processing is required?

A. NPE-G2 network processing engine
B. high-speed switching bus
C. Parallel Express Forwarding (PXF)
D. optimized port adapter-to-port adapter traffic flow

Answer:  C

Question 4.
You have a customer that is looking to mitigate DDOS attacks. 

Which two of the following Cisco security products would you recommend to meet this need? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IOS Firewall
B. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector Module
C. Cisco Firewall Services Module
D. Cisco IPS
E. Cisco ASA
F. Cisco Anomaly Guard Module

Answer:  E, F

Question 5.
What queue-scheduling algorithm does the Optical Services Module PXF use to provide QoS features?

A. FIFO
B. Modified Deficit
C. Versatile Traffic Management Services
D. Weighted Round Robin

Answer:  C

Question 6.
What are the three most common transport network options for connecting a branch office network to the campus core? (Choose three.)

A. radio links
B. PSTN
C. Internet
D. MPLS VPN
E. LAN
F. Private WAN

Answer:  C, D, F

Question 7.
Which security feature of a Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switch can be used to prevent clients from acquiring an IP address from unauthorized servers?

A. MAC address notification
B. DHCP snooping
C. port security
D. 802.1X in conjunction with Cisco Secure ACS

Answer:  B

Question 8.
A small business wants to deploy IP telephony across its enterprise but lacks the expertise and staffing to plan and deploy the service. Its concerns include cost, ensuring voice quality, and time to deployment. 

Given only these requirements, what is the appropriate option to recommend?

A. Use CBWFQ.
B. Configure NBAR for stateful packet inspection.
C. Configure each router to mark VoIP packets as CoS 5.
D. Provision the network using AutoQoS VoIP.

Answer:  D

Question 9.
You are required to upgrade the network of a multistory branch office building to support Cisco 7970 IP Phones throughout. 

Given that each phone uses 15.4 W, how many phones can a Cisco Catalyst 3750 support using Cisco Intelligent Power Management in a 48-port PoE configuration?

A. 8
B. 32
C. 48
D. 16
E. 24

Answer:  E

Question 10.
In the Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch, which slots support the Supervisor Engine 720 and Supervisor Engine 32?

A. slots 7 and 8
B. any slot
C. slots 5 and 6
D. slots 1 and 2
E. slots 12 and 13

Answer:  A

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Braindumps for "642-072" Exam

Cisco Unity Design and Networking

 Question 1.
When installing Cisco Unity into a Lotus Domino messaging environment, one requirement is to install at least one Cisco Unity server per Domino _____.

A. nsf group
B. domain
C. site
D. routing group

Answer:  B

Question 2.
Some Cisco Unity Unified Messaging users complain that they cannot make a TRaP connection when attempting to play and record messages through their desktops. 

What is a possible cause of this?

A. The Cisco Unity server does not have a sufficient number of Unified Messaging licenses.
B. These users need to have their Exchange mailboxes modified to allow access.
C. These users are not licensed for Unified Messaging.
D. A firewall separates these users from Cisco Unity.

Answer:  D

Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com sells wireless communications services to customers throughout the eastern United States. In 1999, ITCertKeys.com acquired a smaller wireless communications company, Snafu inc. Snafu inc provides similar services to ITCertKeys.com in the New England area. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Dulles, Virginia (3253 employees) and its branch offices are located in Richmond, Virginia (1131 employees), Baltimore (748 employees), Washington, D.C. (442 employees), Philadelphia (115 employees), and Trenton, New Jersey (26 employees). Snafu inc has its headquarters in New York City (414 employees), and its branches are in Boston (212 employees) and Providence, Rhode Island (89 employees). ITCertKeys.com will be implementing a centralized Cisco Unity deployment. When customers call an employee, the company wants to provide quick service on those directory lookups. 

Which implementation does the best job of delivering the service?

A. Build multiple directory handlers that break the company population into groups arranged 
    alphabetically by last name; make four groups as equal as possible in size; build an 
    introductory call handler from the opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of the 
    four groups.
B. Buy a Platform Overlay 3 server with extra memory and processor speed to provide the 
    quickest service.
C. Build a directory handler for each office; put each subscriber in a distribution list for that office; 
    make that list limit the directory handler search; build an introductory call handler from the 
    opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of the offices.
D. Build two directory handlers: one for ITCertKeys.com, and one for Snafu inc; add subscribers 
    to the appropriate subscriber template and use that template to limit the directory search; build 
    an introductory call handler from the opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of 
    the directory handlers.

Answer:  C

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 

Please study the exhibit carefully. Which messaging deployment model is shown?

A. clustered Exchange messaging
B. branched messaging
C. This is not a supported message deployment model.
D. distributed messaging

Answer:  C

Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com is concerned about security on their Cisco Unity Unified Messaging installation. 

Which two steps can they take to improve security? (Choose two.)

A. Keep voice-mail messages on the box.
B. Install Cisco Security Agent for Cisco Unity.
C. Isolate Cisco Unity behind a separate firewall.
D. Install antivirus software.
E. Perform a nightly backup.

Answer:  B, D

Question 6.
You are designing a Cisco Unity voice-mail-only solution to allow all outside callers at any of the 14 different company offices to locate any of the 7500 users by simply spelling the name of the user via the touch-tone telephone keypad in an Automated Attendant conversation. Each office has a different voice-mail system that you will replace with the new Cisco Unity solution. Each office also has a separate telephone system. 

The telephone systems come from various manufacturers. Users dial individual 10-digit phone numbers to reach each user. There is no telephone networking between offices. Many of the telephone systems will not allow conferencing and have a limited number of trunks for each office. ITCertKeys.com is not willing to change the telephone system structure at this time.

Which solution best meets ITCertKeys.com needs?

A. This can be done with VPIM, which is an industry standard that allows different telephone 
    systems to integrate over the Internet.
B. You can network the Cisco Unity systems together for subscriber-to-subscriber messaging, but 
    to fulfill the requirements they want for Automated Attendant transfers between offices, they 
    need to change to a networked telephone system solution.
C. Create a new forest/domain and add one Cisco Unity server at each office. All Cisco Unity 
    systems are member servers in the forest/domain and are provisioned for the number of users 
    at that site. On one Cisco Unity server a dialing domain is created and all other Cisco Unity 
    servers join that dialing domain. The directory handler search scope is set to that dialing 
    domain.
D. This can be done with the optional Cisco Unity PBX conference feature that allows transfers 
    between different PBXs by using the Intel Dialogic voice cards installed in all Cisco Unity 
    servers.

Answer:  B

Question 7.
During the presales phase of the design process, which design template do you use to ensure you understand ITCertKeys.com goals?

A. customer requirements verification
B. customer expectation validation
C. customer needs statement
D. customer feature and function list

Answer:  A

Question 8.
As part of the design acceptance process your Domino customer has asked that you give a brief description of the integration between mailstore, the Cisco Unity server, and client workstation. You explain the concept of how the different components of the Domino Communication Services will be installed on each of the different servers. 

Select the statement that is the accurate explanation.

A. There are three DUC services: CS Server, which is installed on the server storing user 
    mailboxes; CS Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server; and CS client, 
    which is installed on the client workstation and the Cisco Unity Server. The Domino CS client 
    software installed on the Cisco Unity server allows access to inbox status to see new voice-
    mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating phones of users.
B. There are three DUC services: CS server, which is installed on the Cisco Unity Server; CS 
    Admin, which is installed on the Domino server, storing inboxes of users; and CS client, which 
    is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is also installed on the Cisco Unity 
    server. Cisco Unity uses the client to send mail to users and view who has new voice-mail 
    messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating phones belonging to users.
C. There are three DUC services: CS Server, which is installed on the server, storing user 
    mailboxes; CS Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server; and CS client, 
    which is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is installed on the Cisco 
    Unity server. Cisco Unity uses the client to send mail to users and the Domino server sends 
    Cisco Unity updates on who has new voice-mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps 
    on the correlating phones belonging to users.
D. There are three DUC services: DOMDUC server, which is installed on the server, storing user 
    mailboxes; DOMDUC Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server, and 
    DOMDUC client, which is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is installed 
    on the Cisco Unity server. Cisco Unity uses the client to view inboxes belonging to users to see 
    who has new voice-mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating 
    phones of users.

Answer:  C

Question 9.
You are beginning the Cisco Unity design process with ITCertKeys.com. 

Which worksheet template do you use first?

A. external customer requirements
B. preliminary customer requirements interview
C. initial customer requirements
D. internal customer requirements

Answer:  D

Question 10.
Cisco Unity is installed in a voice-mail-only configuration using the existing messaging infrastructure. ITCertKeys.com is now ready to move to Unified Messaging. 

Which utility can move the attributes of the voice-mail boxes?

A. Move User Data tool
B. Migrate Subscriber Data tool
C. Grant Unity Access utility
D. Bulk Import utility

Answer:  B

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Braindumps for "642-242" Exam

Unified Contact Center Enterprise Implementation (UCCEI)

 Question 1.
When configuring the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified IP IVR, how is the return on no answer configured for agents?

A. in Cisco Unified ICM agent desk settings
B. in Cisco Unified ICM PG Explorer as a Peripheral Configuration Parameter
C. in the Cisco Unified IP IVR Queue Loop
D. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager as a Forward on No Answer setting

Answer:  A

Question 2.
In order to run the setup program for a Cisco Unified ICM Server, what are the minimum permissions that must be granted to a user?

A. domain admin, read only
B. local user, read only
C. local admin, read write
D. domain admin, read write
E. SQL admin, read write
F. ICM admin, read write

Answer:  C

Question 3.
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, how are CTI route points and CTI ports created in the Unified IP IVR 4.0(x)?

A. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration menu. The CRS  
    Administration will automatically create and associate the CTI route points and CTI ports in 
    Unified Communications Manager.
B. CTI route points and CTI ports are created and associated to the IP IVR user in Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager Administration prior to configuring the CTI route points in the IP IVR 
    in the CRS Administration menu.
C. CTI route points and CTI ports can either be created from the CRS Administration menu or 
    from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration as long as the CTI route 
    points and CTI ports are associated to the correct IP IVR user profile.
D. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration first and then the CTI 
    route points and CTI ports are associated to the correct user using Unified Communications 
    Manager Administration manually.

Answer:  A

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 

In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with IP IVR, ring-no-answer dialed number processing is set in the Agent Desk Settings tool of ConfigManager. 

Given this setup, what are two impacts of using this setting this way if the CMPG_RC.INBOUND_8001 dialed number is the same number the calls arrived on originally? (Choose two.)

A. The ring-no-answer calls will be put at the bottom of the queue and have to wait again for an 
    agent to becomeavailable .
B. The caller will be disconnected as a call cannot be hair-pinned back on itself with Cisco Unified 
    IP IVR.
C. The ring-no-answer calls will be "double counted" in the inbound 8001 call type.
D. The caller will hear hold music while the call is transferred back to the Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager.
E. The caller will be re-directed to a different routing script.

Answer:  A, C

Question 5.
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, with IP IVR for queuing, if the agent's Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber fails, what is the expected result?

A. The call in progress is put on hold while the phone re-registers to another subscriber in the 
    cluster and is automatically reconnected when the phone is reset.
B. The call in progress is not impacted; however, the phone re-registers at the end of the call.
C. The call in progress is dropped and the agent has to log in again after the phone resets.
D. The call in progress is not impacted and the agent can transfer/conference and perform other 
    phone features without any impact.

Answer:  B

Question 6.
Where is the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable configured and what is this variable used for?

A. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the 
    CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used 
    to track callers as they progress through a self-service application.
B. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable 
    assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate the status of the call at 
    different points in a self-service application.
C. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the 
    CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used 
    to troubleshoot VRU errors.
D. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable 
    assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate tracing levels in the IP IVR.

Answer:  B

Question 7.
In the Cisco Unified ICM database servers, which Microsoft SQL Server Agent rights setting is not allowed on the server local Security Policy Settings?

A. act as part of an operating system
B. log on as a batch job
C. log on as a service
D. allow log on locally

Answer:  D

Question 8.
The Cisco Unified ICM 7.2 implementation may require high-priority addressing on the servers if QoS marking is performed at the network edge. 

Which of the following servers require high-priority addresses identified on the visible network?

A. ICM Call Router
B. Administrative Workstation
C. Logger / Database Server
D. Peripheral Gateway

Answer:  A

Question 9.
The Cisco Unified ICM Call Type Manager is accessed from the ICM Script Editor. 

Which two options are purposes of the Call Type Manager? (Choose two.)

A. to create a dialed number mapping to a call type
B. to determine what call type data is available for reporting
C. to map caller entered digits to the call type
D. to schedule a routing script
E. to schedule an administrative script

Answer:  A, D

Question 10.
Which of the following is not recommended to reside on the C: drive partition of any Cisco Unified ICM Server?

A. Unified ICM Historical Data Server Database
B. Core Unified ICM software
C. Microsoft SQL Server log files
D. Microsoft SQL Server

Answer:  A

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Braindumps for "642-436" Exam

Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)

 Question 1.
When setting up a VoIP call, what is the first thing a gateway router tries to match to a dialed number?

A. session target
B. call leg
C. destination pattern
D. IP route

Answer:  C

Question 2.
In North America, which E&M signaling type is used most often for geographically separated equipment?

A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type V
D. Type I
E. Type IV

Answer:  B

Question 3.
When using CUBE, which two statements describe how media flow-through differs from media flow-around? (Choose two.)

A. Media flow-through terminates the signaling channel and the RTP streams flow directly 
    between endpoints.
B. Media flow-through terminates the RTP streams but allows signaling to flow directly between 
    endpoints.
C. Media flow-around and media flow-through function in a similar manner, but media flow-around 
    supports NAT traversal.
D. Media flow-around provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
E. Media flow-through provides address hiding by terminating both signaling and RTP streams.
F. Media flow-around terminates the signaling stream and allows RTP streams to flow directly 
    between endpoints.

Answer:  E, F

Question 4.
Which two are types of Call Admission Control? (Choose two.)

A. gateway zone bandwidth
B. topology-based
C. resource-based
D. gatekeeper-controlled RSVP
E. local
F. QoS-based

Answer:  C, E

Question 5.
Site A uses three-digit internal numbers and remote Site B uses four-digit internal numbers. All calls to the PSTN are routed through Site B. 

What dial plan below best represents provision simplicity, assuming the NANP numbering plan?

A. Translate all called numbers within Site A to four digits.
B. Translate all called numbers within Site B to three digits.
C. Translate all called numbers at either site to ten digits.
D. Translate all called numbers leaving Site A to ten digits.

Answer:  D

Question 6.
Which three are supervisory signals? (Choose three.)

A. call waiting
B. on hook
C. ring
D. busy
E. off hook

Answer:  B, C, E

Question 7.
Which command parameter specifies that the router should not attempt to initiate a trunk connection but should wait for an incoming call before establishing the trunk?

A. connection trunk answer-mode 408555
B. connection trunk 408555....
C. connection-trunk 404555.... answer-mode
D. ds0-group timeslots 1-23 type ext-sig
E. voice-port 1/0:1

Answer:  C

Question 8.
What does a gatekeeper do when it matches a technology prefix?

A. strips off the zone prefix and forwards the technology prefix to the remote gatekeeper
B. strips off the technology prefix and sends the matching zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
C. sends both the technology prefix and zone prefix to the remote gatekeeper
D. strips off both the technology prefix and zone prefix and forwards the remaining destination 
    number

Answer:  C

Question 9.
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?

A. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination 
    from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection 
    request to the source
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential 
    gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
E. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has 
    relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set  
    up the call path

Answer:  E

Question 10.
What is the best description of an MGCP endpoint?

A. the gatekeepers in a VoIP network
B. IP phones
C. any analog telephony device (PBX, switch, etc.)
D. the interconnection between packet and traditional telephone networks

Answer:  D

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Braindumps for "642-481" Exam

Cisco Rich Media Communications

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 

The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer:  B

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows:
Conference 1: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced
continuous presence
Conference 2: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3: three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for 
    three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide 
    the number of required services.

Answer:  A

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. 

Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer:  B

Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. 

Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy

Answer:  B, C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. 

Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer:  A

Question 6.
Exhibit:
 

CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. 

In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?

A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 
    kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 
    kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 
    kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.

Answer:  C

Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. 

What should this company purchase?

A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade

Answer:  C

Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)

A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways

Answer:  A, C, D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. 

Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768

Answer:  C

Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?

A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing

Answer:  A

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Braindumps for "642-661" Exam

Configuring BGP on Cisco Routers (BGP)

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
ITCertKeys router#show ip route
Codes: C - connected, S - static, I - IGRP, R - RIP, M -mobile, B - BGP
D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area
N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2
E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2, EEGP
i - IS-IS, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2, *-candidate default
U - per-user static route, o - ODR
T - traffic engineered route
Gateway of last resort is not set
172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets
B 172.16.10.0 [20/0] via 10.1.1.100, 00:00:24
B 172.16.11.0 [20/0] via 10.1.1.100, 00:00:24
172.26.0.0/28 is subnetted, 3 subnets
B 172.26.1.48 [200/0] via 192.168.1.50, 00:00:31
B 172.26.1.32 [200/0] via 192.168.1.50, 00:00:31
B 172.26.1.16 [200/0] via 192.168.1.50, 00:00:31
10.0.0.0/8 is variable subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
B 10.0.0/8 [20/0] via 10.1.1.100, 00:00:24
C 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, Serial3
192.168.1.0/28 is subnetted, 3 subnets
C 192.168.1.32 is directly connected, Serial1
C 192.168.1.48 is directly connected, Serial2
C 192.168.1.16 is directly connected, Serial0
192.168.2.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
B 192.168.2.64/28 [20/0] via 10.1.1.100, 00:00:26

Based on the show ip route output in the exhibit, how can you tell if a BGP route is learned via IBGP or EBGP?

A. By the Metric
B. By the Next Hop
C. By the Admin Distance
D. By the code "B" or "B Ex"

Answer:  C

Explanation: admin distance. Distance of EBGP is 20, Distance of IBGP is 200.

Question 2.
What is the range of values from which an ISP can assign a private AS number?

A. 32768 to 65535
B. 64512 to 65535
C. 65101 to 65535
D. 65001 to 65535

Answer:  B

Explanation:
An autonomous system (AS) is a collection of networks under a single technical administration. Some other definitions refer to a collection of routers or IP prefixes, but in the end they all mean the same entity. The important principle is the technical administration, which means sharing the same routing protocol and routing policy. Legal and administrative ownership of the routers does not matter in terms of autonomous systems. Autonomous systems are identified by AS numbers, 16-bit unsigned quantities ranging from 1 to 65535. Public AS numbers are assigned by Internet registries. For customers that need AS numbers to run BGP in their private networks, a range of private AS numbers (64512 - 65535) has been reserved.

Reference: Configuring BGP on Cisco Routers volume 1 p.2-4

Question 3.
Network topology exhibit
 

What can prevent the corresponding BGP session from being successfully established?

A. ITCertKeys 2 and ITCertKeys 5 cannot establish the IBGP session because ITCertKeys 2 and 
    ITCertKeys 5 are not directly connected.
B. ITCertKeys 1 and ITCertKeys 2 establish the EBGP session if the BGP holddown timers 
    between the two EBGP neighbors are different.
C. ITCertKeys 2 and ITCertKeys 5 cannot establish the IBGP session using the loopback0 
    interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
D. ITCertKeys 1 and ITCertKeys 2 cannot establish the EBGP session using the loopback0 
    interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.

Answer:  D

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 

How should the EBGP session between R1 and R2 be established to enable load balancing? (Choose three)

A. Use the maximum-paths 2 option.
B. Use the ebgp-multihop 2 option.
C. Use static routes on R1 and R2 to reach the other router's loopback.
D. Establish a single EBGP session using the loopback0 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
E. Establish twp EBGP sessions using both the S0 and S1 interface IP address on R1 and R2.

Answer:  B, C, D

Explanation:
1. B R1 - R2 requires a EBGP ebgp-multihop of 2.
2. C Requires two static routes going to each other router loopback interface
3. D A BGP session of course is required. Only a single connection is required. Use the loopback is what allows things to work even during a failure Wrong Answer
1. A This is not required because there is only on EBGP path. Would need two if static routes were not define and were going between different routers 
2. E Not an efficient way of doing things requires double the tables and bandwidth for updates

Question 5.
Which two statements are true about an EBGP session or an IBGP session? (Choose two.)

A. IBGP uses AS-Path to detect routing information loops within the AS.
B. EBGP routes have a default Admin Distance of 20 and IBGP routes have a default Admin 
    Distance of 200.
C. No BGP attributes are changed in EBGP updates except for the next-hop attribute if next-hop-
    self is configured.
D. Routes learned from an EBGP peer not advertised to another EBGP peer to prevent routing 
    information loops.
E. IBGP uses split horizon to prevent routing information loops; routes learned from an IBGP peer 
    are not advertised to another IBGP peer.

Answer:  B, E

Question 6.
Network Topology Exhibit
 

Exhibit #2: ITCertKeys2 configuration
 

When ITCertKeys2 sends the TCP SYN packet to ITCertKeys3 to establish the IBGP session, what will be the source IP address of the TCP SYN packet from ITCertKeys2 to ITCertKeys3?

A. 2.2.2.2
B. 3.3.3.3
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.1.1.2

Answer:  C

Question 7.
Network topology Exhibit
 

How should the EBGP session between ITCertKeys1 and ITCertKeys2 be established to enable load balancing? (Choose three.)

A. Use the maximum-paths 2 option
B. Use the ebgp-multihop 2 option
C. Use static routes on ITCertKeys1 and ITCertKeys2 to reach the other router's loopback
D. Establish a single EBGP session using the loopback0 interface IP address on ITCertKeys1 
    and ITCertKeys2
E. Establish two EBGP sessions using both the S0 and D1 interface IP address on ITCertKeys1 
    and ITCertKeys2

Answer:  B, C, D

Question 8.
Exhibit:
 
What can prevent the corresponding BGP session from being successfully established?

A. ITK2 and ITK5 cannot establish the IBGP session if the BGP Hello Timer between the two 
    IBGP neighbors is different.
B. ITK1 and ITK2 cannot establish the EBGP session if the BGP Hello Timer between the two 
    EBGP neighbors are different.
C. ITK1 and ITK2 cannot establish the EBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-
    mutlihop value is set to 2.
D. ITK2 and ITK5 cannot establish the IBGP session because they are not using the loopback0 
    interface to establish the IBGP session.
E. ITK2 and ITK5 cannot establish the IBGP session if ITK3 and ITK4 have an access list 
    permitting only TCP port 80 and IP protocol number 89 traffic.

Answer:  E

Question 9.
The Outbound Route Filter (ORF) capability is negotiated between BGP neighbors during the BGP ____ process via the _____ message.

A. route propagation; Update
B. session establishment; Open
C. route propagation; Notification
D. route propagation; Route Refresh
E. session establishment; Route Refresh

Answer:  B

Explanation: 
Capabilities are negotiated during session establishment in the open message. Appendix C P456 Internet routing Architectures.
Wrong
1. A needs to be decided before update
2. C notification is an error message
3. D not a message type
4. E not a message type

Question 10.
BGP table
Address Prefix AS-Path Next hop Communities Other attr. 
10.0.0.0 /8 65100 65101 1.1.1.1 65101:111
… … … … … …
IP routing table
Protocol Address Prefix Next-hop Outgoing interface
BGP 10.0.0.0 /8 1.1.1.1
OSPF 1.1.1.1 /32 172.16.1.2 Ethernet 0
conn. 172.16.1.0 /24 Ethernet 0
IP routing table
Protocol Address Prefix Next-hop Outgoing
interface
BGP 10.0.0.0 /8 1.1.1.1
OSPF 1.1.1.1 /32 172.16.1.2 Ethernet 0
conn. 172.16.1.0 /24 Ethernet 0
To forward a packet to 10.0.0.0/8, the router perform the following steps:
Step 1. Search the ip routing table for a route to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
Step 2. ___________________________
Step 3. Find the connected outgoing interface to reach 172.16.1.2.
Step 4. Arp for the 172.16.1.2 MAC address if it is not already in the ARP cache.
Step 5. Store the 172.16.1.2 MAC address in the Fast Switching cache for successive packets to network 10.0.0.0.

What is step 2?

A. Search the BGP table for an IGP route to reach the BGP next-hop 1.1.1.1.
B. Search the BGP table for an IBGP route to reach the BGP next-hop 1.1.1.1.
C. Search the IP routing table for an IGBP route to reach the BGP next-hop 1.1.1.1.
D. Search the IP routing table for an IGP route to reach the BGP next-hop of 1.1.1.1.

Answer:  D

Explanation: 
Routing table specifies to get to 10.0.0.0 goto 1.1.1.1. To get to 1.1.1.1 do a lookup in the routing table on the next hop.

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