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Question 1.
Which of the following is an invalid tool that can be used to monitor QoS in the ART tools?
A. MTV
B. Jitter
C. Latency
D. Lost packets
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route? A. EXDRI B. EXDAI C. EXDRP D. EXDRE Answer: A Question 2. Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault? A. REPRI,REMRI,RECPI B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in the SFR group? A. SYTUC B. SYNIC C. SYSFT D. SYFSC Answer: C Question 4. A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ______ ? A. ATR B. ALB C. ALV D. ASM Answer: B Question 5. Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads? A. RELFSW0 B. RELFSW1 C. .RELFSW2 D. RELFSW100 Answer: A Question 6. What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test? A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS D. TG,TS,RX and TX Answer: B Question 7. Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell? A. RLDEI B. RLDGI C. RLDEC D. RLDSI Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data? A. PRINTPROCESS B. ALIST C. ISPPRINT D. ALOGLIST Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed Objects? A. RXEST and RXPLI B. RXMOI and RXMSC C. RXMSC and RXPLE D. RXMSC and RXPLI Answer: D Question 10. Software Error Information can be retrieved by command_____ ? A. PTRIP B. SYRIP C. SYDIP D. SYRSP Answer: B
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Question 1. A customer would like to have the functionality of "Rip and Replace" for all their x86 Microsoft Windows and Red Hat Linux server environments. Which solution fits their need? A. HPBladeSystem B. HPProLiant DL500 series C. HPProLiant DL100 series D. HP Integrity Superdome Answer: A Question 2. Which virtualization technology maximizes client connectivity uptime and security in the Proliant server platform? A. HP Auto Port Aggregation using 1000SX network card B. HP Clustered NIC in each server C. Adapter teaming in the server with VLAN functionality D. Virtual Cluster for NIC in the server Answer: C Question 3. Which two components are used to manage the HP-UX 11i Virtual Machine (VM) host system resources? (Select two.) A. Virtual Machine Manager B. Virtual Machine Management Pack C. Performance Management Pack D. System Management Homepage Answer: A, D Question 4. Which library system family introduces a fast, highly available disk-based backup solution? A. ESL B. EML C. MSL D. VLS Answer: D Question 5. Which management software is able to discover and monitor virtual machines on both Proliant and Integrity server platforms? A. HP Virtual Insight Manager B. HP System Tools Manager C. HP Systems Insight Manager D. HP Systems Consolidated Manager Answer: C Question 6. A customer needs a high-bandwidth storage area network (SAN) solution providing simultaneous communication between the servers and storage disk arrays. Which type of Fibre Channel SAN topology will meet this requirement? A. switched fabric B. private fabric C. public loop D. arbitrated loop Answer: A Question 7. What is the maximum unplanned downtime for an industry-standard server designed to 99.99% availability? A. 15 minutes B. 8 hours C. 53 minutes D. 87 hours Answer: A Question 8. An enterprise customer needs the ability to manage their HP Integrity rx8620 using more than one console. Which feature will meet this need? A. Remote Insight LightsOut Edition II (RILOE II) B. Transfer of Control (TOC) C. Management Processor LAN (iLO MP) D. Serial Port Redirection (SPR) Answer: C Question 9. Which two tape technologies provide read compatibility for two previous generations? (Select two.) A. AIT B. SDLT C. SLR D. LTO Answer: B, D Question 10. Which software tool can be used to help a customer virtualize a server environment? A. HP VirtualComputer Center B. HP Process Virtualization C. HP Virtual Node Cluster D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines Answer: D
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Question 1. Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file? A. Blank password is used. B. Shadow password is enabled. C. User is currently deactivated. D. Password has expired. Answer: B Question 2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.) A. Name Servers B. Hierarchical Name Space C. Name Clients D. Resolvers E. ARPA Name Space F. Start of Authority (SOA) Answer: A, B, D Question 3. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster? A. cmclstat B. cmshowcluster C. cmviewcl D. cmviewconf E. cmgetconf Answer: C Question 4. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.) A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers B. HPProLiant servers C. HP Integrity servers D. HP IntegrityNonStop servers Answer: A, C Question 5. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.) A. hpvmrun -P vm1 B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init F. hpvmstart -P vm1 Answer: C Question 6. What are advantages of the Online JFS file system? (Select two.) A. allows more files per file system B. supports 128-bit encryption of system files C. supports larger disk drives D. supports online defragmentation E. supports dynamic online resizing of the file system Answer: D, E Question 7. Click the Exhibit button. Using the ioscan output, which command creates a virtual partition called vpar1 with two CPUs and 1GB memory with one valid boot path? A. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/0/1/0/4/0.8.0:BOOT B. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:0.0.0 -a io:1/0/0/1/0/4/0.8.0:BOOT C. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/1/1/0.8:ALTBOOT D. vparcreate -p vpar1 -a cpu::2 -a mem:1024 -a io:1.0.0 -a io:1/0/1/1/0.8:BOOT Answer: A Question 8. Which VxVM command should be used to examine the volume configuration? A. vgdisplay -v B. vxdisplay -v C. lvdisplay -vt D. vxprint -hvt Answer: D Question 9. Which command is used to see the attached hardware using the new agile view addressing? A. ioscan -fnN B. ioscan -kfC C. scsimgr scan hardware D. hwinfo -v Answer: A Question 10. What can be determined using the which or whence command? A. current version and release of an executable B. compiler options used to create an executable C. absolute path for an executable D. pseudo terminal your session is currently logged on Answer: C Question 11. Which log file do you review to determine if the kernel module was modified on the command line? A. /var/log/messages B. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log C. /stand/vmunix.log D. /var/adm/kc.log Answer: D Question 12. Which command is available to give you details about a command, including its options? A. what B. man C. read D. how Answer: B
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.
What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?
A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system
Answer: D
Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.
What is the reason for this issue?
A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.
How can the administrator correct this issue?
A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone ruleDo not use client local time in the policy.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."
How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the
Resource Manager node.
Answer: B
Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?
A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.
Answer: A
Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?
A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers
in the farm.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.
What should be enabled to configure this type of application?
A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: C
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues.
Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?
A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection
Answer: A
Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Identify two descriptive flexfield components whose values are used to determine contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. global segments
C. the Reference field
D. context-sensitive segments
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
ABC Corp. is running on 11 i Oracle Applications and wants to ensure that supply records of one supplier are not visible to another supplier.
Which action will meet the requirement?
A. by securing attributes for each supplier
B. by excluding attributes for individual suppliers
C. by assigning the same attribute value for VENDOR_CONTACT_ID
D. by assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID
Answer: A
Question 3.
Identify two correct statements regarding Function Security. (Choose two.)
A. defines access controls through roles
B. is built on the Role Based Access Control layer
C. is the base layer of Access Control in Oracle Applications
D. restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
E. restricts user access to data within menus and menu options
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Identify three features of Data Groups. (Choose three.)
A. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Menu.
B. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Responsibility.
C. A data group identifies the Oracle username that a form connects to when a Responsibility is
selected.
D. Data groups can be used to support multiple installations of an Oracle Applications product
That supports multiple sets of books.
E. Concurrent managers use a data group to identify the application that owns a report or
concurrent program.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 5.
Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)
A. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Receivables.
B. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.
C. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management whereas Employees is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
D. Set of books is owned by Oracle General Ledger whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
E. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle
Inventory.
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
A value set has the validation type set to "Independent." When a user enters a partial segment value, the list of values then retrieves all available values. Identify the List Type attribute.
A. poplist
B. list ofvalues
C. long listofvalues
D. poplist and list ofvalues
Answer: C
Question 8.
As a system administrator for ABC Corp. you are required to notify the sales manager as soon as a customer's shipment gets processed.
How might you do this?
A. through an Event Alert
B. through a Periodic Alert
C. by configuring the Workflow Engine
D. by configuring the Application server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify three features of Oracle Workflow builder. (Choose three.)
A. monitors workflows
B. runs on Linux platform
C. saves workflow definition as a flat file
D. defines and customizes workflow definitions
E. has Navigator tree and Process diagram as its components
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
XYZ Corp. is in the business of manufacturing cosmetics. It obtains and pays for raw materials.
Which business flow in Oracle E-Business Suite would map to the above activities of obtaining and paying for raw materials?
A. Order to Cash
B. Procure to Pay
C. Forecast to Plan
D. Demand to Build
E. Contract to Renewal
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute
Answer: D
Question 2.
You are an admin user, and have enabled the Ignore Volume Ownership option for an external FireWire hard disk.
What will happen the next time a standard user attempts to mount the disk?
A. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
B. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read any file on the disk; the user will be
required to enter an administrator password to modify or delete files on the disk.
C. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
D. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted, the user will be able to read any file on the disk, but will be required to re-enter an
administrator password to modify or delete files.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Review the screenshot of a user's home folder, and then answer the question below.
Which folder did the user create?
A. Music
B. Pages
C. Pictures
D. Downloads
Answer: B
Question 4.
Mac OS X v10.5 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on the volume.
A. UFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT2
D. FAT32
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which procedure will let someone who does not have a local user account log in to a local admin user account on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer that does NOT have a firmware password enabled?
A. Log in to the computer with the user name "root" and the master password, open Accounts
preferences, and reset the admin user password.
B. Remove a RAM DIMM from one of the computers RAM slots, restart the computer while
holding down the Command-Option-O-F keys until you hear the startup sound, then type
"reset-all" at the prompt.
C. Start the computer from the internal hard disk, log into a guest user account, open the Reset
Password utility in the /Applications/Utilities folder, then reset the password on the admin
user account that resides on the hard disk volume.
D. Press the C key while restarting the computer with the Mac OS X v10.5 Install DVD inserted,
then choose Reset Password from the Utilities menu. Select the hard disk volume and the
admin user account, then enter a new password for the account and click Save.
Answer: D
Question 6.
You have configured your Mac OS X v10.5 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not.
What additional step must you take to allow Windows users to print to it?
A. In Sharing preferences, enable file sharing over SMB.
B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Review the screenshots of a files permissions, as seen in Finder and from Terminal, and then answer the question below.
Why are Kim's permissions to the file, Report.rtf, NOT visible in the Terminal listing?
A. Kims permissions are stored as POSIX settings.
B. Kims permissions are stored in the volume catalog.
C. Kims permissions are stored in the file data segment.
D. Kims permissions are stored in an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: D
Question 8.
Tom wants to share a document with Harriet. Both have standard user accounts on the same Mac OS X v10.5 computer.
Which of these is NOT a location where Tom can store the document so that Harriet can read it?
A. /Users/Shared/
B. /Users/tom/Public/
C. /Users/harriet/Public/
D. /Users/harriet/Public/Drop Box/
Answer: C
Question 9.
The primary role of the master password in Mac OS X v10.5 is to let you ________.
A. Access all the passwords stored in a local keychain
B. Reset the password of an account that has FileVault enabled
C. Change the startup device by holding down the Option key while the computer starts up
D. Connect to any password-protected web server whose password is stored in a local keychain
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which statement identifies a potential effect of resetting the master password for a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password must use the old
master password to unlock their keychains.
B. Users who enabled FileVault before you changed the master password will not be able to
access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
C. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password will have their
keychain passwords automatically updated to match the new master password.
D. Users whose accounts were created before you changed the master password must use the
firmware password to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
Answer: B
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1. What is the primary benefit of the "timE. to-live" field in the IP header? A. To improve buffer utilization B. To reduce the impact of routing loops C. To allow calculation ofrounD. trip delays D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful Answer: B Question 2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement A. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0 B. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0 C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0 D. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0 Answer: C Question 3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen. What has gone wrong? A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32. B. Database corruption has occurred. C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this. D. Use thesetnovram command to change the switch type. Answer: C Question 4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format: A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector. D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector Answer: D Question 5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, ISIS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called: A. Redundant DIS B. BDR C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS D. Designated Redundant System Answer: C Question 6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages? A. 0 B. 1023 C. It should be configurable, as per the specification. D. It is negotiated when the ports become active. Answer: B Question 7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) A. 200 57000 100 65100 B. 200 57000 100100 C. 100 57000 200 D. 200 57000 100 E. 65100 100 57000 200 Answer: A, D, E Question 8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is: A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node C. Each node's own internal oscillator D. The clock chip on the network management system Answer: B Question 9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer) A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address. B. it is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routingwih the same process. C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLVfield on the L-1/L-1 LSPs. D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information. Answer: A, C Question 10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header? A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel. B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device. C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification. D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network. Answer: B
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