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Question 1.
You are configuring a VLAN interface on an internal route processor. You defined
the VLAN interface. What should you do next?
A. define the network number
B. define the default gateway
C. assign IP routing to the interface
D. assign a unique IP address to the interface
Answer: D
Question 2.
You *********- route command to configure a default route on which platform?
A. Catalyst 2900
B. Catalyst 3500XL
C. Catalyst ********
D. Catalyst ********
Answer: C
Question 3.
You have a Catalyst 5000 switch with a large *** network. Broadcasts are
consuming too much bandwidth. You want to create VLANs and need inter VLAN
communication.
Which hardware accomplishes **?
A. MLS
B. RSM
C. MSFC
D. VLAN interswitch
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which device allows communication between VLANs?
A. IP translator
B. route processor
C. switching engine
D. VLAN interswitch
Answer: B
Question 5.
A VLAN, implemented in switching equipment, corresponds to which concept in
legacy network equipment?
A. VTP domain
B. LAN segment
C. routed network
D. ISL trunk interface
E. spanning *****
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which statements are true above VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. **** have connected members located anywhere in the switched network.
B. VLANs improve network segmentation by determining the next network point
to which a frame should be forwarded.
C. VLANs allow a Layer 1 protocoll to determine intelligently the best path to a
destination when multiple paths exist.
D. VLANs solve the scalability problems found in large, flat networks by
dividing the network into smaller broadcast domains or subnets.
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
How many VLANs can s single RSM support?
A. 1
B. 16
C. 256
D. 1024
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which command configures a ***- gateway on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config) ip route ip address
B. Switch(config) set ip route address
C. Switch(config) ip route-default-gateway ip address
D. Switch(enable) set default-gateway ip address
Answer: D
Question 9.
What is a reason for aerating VLANs on switches?
A. to simply management
B. to simple configuration
C. to enhance Layer 2 functionality
D. to create smaller broadcast domains
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which command defines a VLAN on an RSM in a **** switch
A. vlan vlan-number
B. RSM vlan vlan-number on
C. Set vlan vlan-number on
D. Interface vlan vlan-number
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which router command is used to reverse telnet to a modem locally connected to
line 8?
A. telnet 10.1.1.1 1008
B. telnet 10.1.1.1 2008
C. telnet 10.1.1.1 8
D. telnet 8 10.1.1.1
Answer: B
Question 12.
You have a large flat network that is experiencing congestion. You want to create
VLANs with smaller subnet ***** Layer 2 switch to increase performance. You
only router is equipped with 10BaseT Ethernet ports.
How can you accomplish the assigned task?
A. use separate physical links from the router to the switch for each VLAN
B. move each new subnet to a separate router interface and route all traffic
C. enable ISL trunking on the router and pass all VLAN traffic on a single link
D. enable 802.1Q trunking on the router to pass all VLAN traffic on a single link
Answer: A
Question 13.
What is a VLAN?
A. a routed internetwork
B. a single broadcast domain
C. a group of switch ports that communicate through an RSM
D. a group of switch ports that are member of the same multicast group
Answer: B
Question 14.
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other
routers do not want to *** multi *** packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping
Answer: B
Question 15.
Which command line should you use to ****** a port as a trunk port on a Catalyst
3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config)#vtp mode
B. Switch(config)#set trunk
C. Switch(config)#encapsulate
D. Switch(config)#switchport *********-
Answer: D
Question 16.
Catalyst switches support which two methods of assigning members to VLANS?
(Choose two.)
A. static VLANs
B. dynamic VLANs
C. automatic VLANs
D. host-based VLANs
E. source-based VLANs
Answer: A, B
Question 17.
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port actively send and
respond ********** frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Answer: D
Question 18.
Which command removes certain VLANs from an existing trunk***?
A. set vlan
B. clear vtp
C. clear port
D. clear trunk
Answer: D
Question 19.
Which statement about static VLANs is true?
A. Devices use DHCP to request their VLAN.
B. Attached devices are unaware of any VLANs.
C. Devices are assigned to VLANs based on their MAC address
D. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which **** ***
Answer: B
Question 20.
The telecommunications sector is now highly competitive. New carriers are ____.
A. using cable to complete with DSL
B. creating applications and reporting capabilities to compete with ********
C. using wireless to provide speed and are creating new application they belling
will satisfy under demand
D. creating enhanced services to compete with incumbents, and new *****
creating infrastructure so they do not need to outsource to existing operators
Answer: D
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Question 1. How many cache groups can be used in Transparent Cache Switching: A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2 Answer: B Question 2. Session Capacity Threshold defines: A. The percent of remaining sessions available on the ServerIron B. The total number of sessions used on the ServerIron C. The total number of sessions that are configured on the real servers D. The total session capacity of the ServerIron Answer: A Question 3. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server C. The application cannot be found D. The VIP is bound to the real server E. The application needs to be bound to the real server Answer: D Question 4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application cannot be found C. The application needs to be bound to the real server D. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server E. The VIP is bound to the real server Answer: E Question 5. Filters on the ServerIron configured for Server Load Balancing are: A. Set to drop any connections specified by the filter B. Applied to packets directed to the VIP C. Used to redirect packets to the Internet D. Set to drop traffic to or from specified ports Answer: B Question 6. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers A. False B. True Answer: A Question 7. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server? Choices: 1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP b. Source translate the clients IP address 2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged 3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address 4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: B Question 8. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it: A. As the primary remote backup server B. As the primary backup server C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed Answer: C Question 9. What ServerIron CLI command enables FWLB for TCP. A. ip policy 1 fw tcp 0 global B. ip policy 1 fw tcp 1 global C. ip policy 1 fw udp 1 global D. server fw-port 5 Answer: A Question 10. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to another ServerIron exactly except for: A. The management address and the MAC address B. The MAC address C. The sync-link address D. The management address Answer: D
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Question 1. Before launching the Application Publishing Wizard, what must be done to publish a package? A. The package deployment schedule must be set. B. The location of the package must be identified. C. The target servers must be specified. D. The package must be added to the Presentation Server Console. Answer: D Question 2. Which two Health Monitoring and Recovery tests are enabled by default? (Choose two.) A. Citrix SMA Service B. Citrix XML Service C. Citrix IMA Service D. Citrix XTE Server Service Answer: B, C Question 3. The administrator who installs the ADF packages on the target servers must have ______ and ______. (Choose the two phrases that complete the sentence correctly.) A. administrative access to the network share point server B. read access to the target servers C. read access to the network share point server D. administrative access to the target servers E. read access to the packager server F. administrative access to the packager server Answer: C, D Question 4. A large medical research company ITCertKeys.com wants to reduce the high CPU usage on their servers in order to improve the user experience. Most users work with a web-based tool that is graphic-intensive. They work with files that need to be accessed from multiple locations and by multiple users so that researchers can access the files as they make their rounds through clinics. What should the administrator implement to meet the company's requirements? A. Application limits B. Published desktops C. Server-to-client content redirection D. Client-to-server content redirection Answer: C Question 5: The Citrix Administrator at a ITCertKeys.com plans on deploying a web-based cataloging application consisting of new items under development. The application includes JPEG images of product prototypes alongside detailed descriptions. This application will be accessed by a group of engineers from remote field sites with limited network bandwidth. This application will only be provided by means of a single set of servers running Presentation Server that will be deployed within the new server farm. Access to the data source is controlled so that data queries may originate only from the servers running Presentation Server. The JPEG images are large files and users require graphical detail even when using dial-up, wireless WAN, or other slow connections. Which three SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration options should be configured at the server farm level? (Choose three.) A. Determine when to compress B. Enable SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration C. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to high D. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to low E. Use farm settings for SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration Answer: A, B, D Question 6. ITCertKeys.com recently implemented Citrix Presentation Server. The company plans to use the shadowing feature to improve their help desk activities. Specifically, the company wants the help desk personnel to be able to shadow all users in the company's domain and manipulate their work stations remotely. For security and privacy reasons, the company wants to ensure that users must accept shadowing before help desk personnel can shadow them. During the Presentation Server installation, the administrator allowed shadowing but did not configure any settings for remote control or shadow acceptance. The administrator has just created a policy titled "Shadowing." Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit remote input when being shadowed. B. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit being shadowed without notification. C. Enable permissions for all help desk users and set status to allow. D. Enable permissions for all users and set status to allow. Answer: B, C Question 7. Which two statements are true when an administrator associates published applications with file types and then assigns them to users? (Choose two.) A. All files of an associated type encountered in locally running applications are opened with applications running on the server when users run the Program Neighborhood Agent. B. The client passes the name of the published content file to the local viewer application when users run the Program Neighborhood Agent. C. Content published on servers is opened with applications published on servers when users connect using the Program Neighborhood Agent. D. The file type associations in the published applications are copied to the registry of the client device when users connect using the Web Interface. Answer: A, C Question 8. When configuring Virtual Memory Optimization, it is best to configure an optimization time ______________. (Choose the appropriate option to complete the sentence.) A. when the administrator can manually monitor the process B. that precedes a scheduled reboot C. of high or maximum usage D. of low or no usage Answer: D Question 9. A network administrator at ITCertKeys.com created a policy for the Human Resources group called "HR standard" which restricts the users in that group from accessing their local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips, the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly. The administrator creates a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disables the rule which restricts access to the local drives. Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose two.) A. Filter the HR recruitment policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access B. Filter the HR standard policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access C. Rank the HR recruitment policy higher than the HR standard policy D. Rank the HR standard policy higher than the HR recruitment policy Answer: A, C Question 10. A newly published web-based application calls a Java applet to support audio interaction with other users. The application requires Virtual IP in order to function properly. Users launched the published web browser successfully; however, only the first user on the server could initialize the audio portion. Other Java-based applications on the same servers functioned correctly. Which option will best address this problem? A. Remove the servers from the Virtual Loopback list and re-add them to read the new configuration. B. Increase the IP range for Virtual IP addresses to allow for the added users. C. Configure the correct Java runtime path for Virtual IP loopback. D. Add the entries directly to the registry instead of the Management Console to implement the new Virtual IP configuration. Answer: C
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Question 1. A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com creating logon points wants to enable pass-through authentication. Which two authorization methods can be configured for pass-through authentication when configuring logon points? (Choose two.) A. LDAP B. RSA Security C. Secure Computing D. Active Directory Answer: A, D Question 2. A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com must take which two steps when creating a typical filter? (Choose two.) A. Select endpoint analysis scan output in the filter. B. Choose at least one condition to be included in the filter. C. Provide a unique name for the filter. D. Construct a logical expression for the filter. E. Select an authentication profile for the filter. Answer: B, C Question 3. Which two statements are true regarding licensing for a deployment that contains multiple Access Gateway appliances? (Choose two.) A. One server is configured as the license server. B. The primary gateway appliance serves as the license server. C. The license server must be installed in the DMZ on a separate server. D. Each gateway appliance must contain its own license. Answer: A, B Question 4. Which type of filter should an administrator create if a filter that specifies a particular NOT logic condition must exist in order for access to be granted? A. Exclusion filter B. Negative filter C. Typical filter D. Custom filter Answer: D Question 5. What are three settings that an administrator can configure per logon point for published applications? (Choose three.) A. Window size B. Clipboard mapping C. Window color D. Drive mapping E. Printer mapping F. Sound Answer: A, C, F Question 6. From which node in the Access Management Console can an administrator configure event logging? A. Server Farm node B. Resource node C. Gateway Appliances node D. Servers node Answer: A Question 7. A Citrix Access Gateway administrator at ITCertKeys.com wants to perform automatic drive mapping for clients who have a specific antivirus software installed after those clients log onto the network. How can the administrator implement this through a connection policy? A. By configuring "Run DRIVEMAP.EXE" B. By enabling "Launch scripts" on the server C. By configuring "Execute logon scripts" D. By enabling "Connect drive" Answer: C Question 8. Which two authentication methods can be implemented to provide Advanced Authentication? (Choose two.) A. Smart Cards B. LDAP C. Secure Computing SafeWord PremierAccess D. RSA Security SecurID Answer: C, D Question 9. Which setting must be configured in a policy to grant privileges to an access server farm? A. Allow Logon B. Show Logon Resource C. Show Local Farm D. Permit Access Control Answer: A Question 10. Which statement is true regarding Workspace Control? A. Workspace Control is not supported if more than two Presentation Server farms are assigned to a single logon point. B. Users always have options to disconnect or keep launched applications when they are logged off. C. Only disconnected sessions can be reconnected. D. Workspace Control can only be set per logon point. Answer: D
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