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New exam - post dumps
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Question 1.
Rewards, feedback, encouragement, and support are essential for which types of learners?
A. Learners who are well-motivated
B. All of the above
C. Learners who are not motivated
D. Learners who are easily distracted
Answer: B
Question 2.
While teaching a course, you notice that one of your students is extremely shy. They have not contributed to class discussions or answered any questions. As an instructor, you want to be able to monitor their progress. What can you do to accomplish this objective?
A. Ask them questions during individual exercises
B. Ask them questions during class discussions
C. Look for non-verbal indications of understanding
D. Ask them questions during group exercises
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
What are the advantages of using a computer with a LCD projector over a flip-chart?
A.) Visibility is typically better
B.) Class discussion notes can be easily distributed
C.) Most suited to remain visible as a reference point throughout a class
D.) Chance of failure is less
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
An instructor has an anecdote that would be an effective example but may also be offensive to certain people. What should the instructor do?
A. Privately ask one of the students to tell the anecdote
B. Warn the class that the following anecdote is not meant to be offensive
C. Choose another more appropriate anecdote
D. Test the anecdote out on this class to determine if is offensive
Answer: C
Question 5.
Assessment tools (tests, exercises and other instruments to measure learner performance) are usually developed by:
A. The students
B. The client
C. The course designer
D. The instructor
Answer: C
Question 6.
For this question, determine if the instructor's action will likely or unlikely meet the given objective. Objective: Learners identify appropriate reasons for expending time and energy in learning Action: During the course introduction, the instructor lists a few ways in which the instructor feels the course material will benefit the learners work and personal lives, and then proceeds in the first section.
A. Likely, because the instructor has illustrated how the organization will benefit
B. Unlikely, because students have already displayed appropriate reasons for expending time
and energy by attending the course
C. Likely, because the learners will translate the benefits of the course material to their work and
personal lives.
D. Unlikely, because the instructor did not solicit learner feedback to uncover work and personal
motivations
Answer: D
Question 7.
An instructor uses general analogies and applications to further explain concepts presented in the course. Judging the effectiveness of this approach, did the instructor's communication skills enhance or limit the value of the course content to the learners?
A. Enhanced the value by using valid examples.
B. The instructor's communication skills do not typically affect the value of the course content
C. Limited the value of the course content by not using specific analogies and applications related
to the audience
D. Enhanced the value by using general analogies and applications that everyone should
understand
Answer: C
Question 8.
The two major components being assessed when Evaluating the Delivery of Instruction are:
A. The students performance
B. The modifications to course materials
C. The facilities adequacy
D. The instructor's abilities
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How often should an instructor change the presentation medium to maintain interest and retention?
A. Every 10 minutes
B. Every 5 minutes
C. Every hour
D. Every 30 minutes
Answer: A.
Question 10.
An instructor wants to use direct questioning to assess the individual learners understanding. The instructor asks questions by going up and down rows in the class. Is this an effective application of direct questioning?
A. Yes, this method does not show favoritism
B. Yes, this method ensures all learners participate
C. No, by using a predictable pattern can cause lack of interest
D. No, predictable patterns show favoritism
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which of the following would be the most effective presentation style?
A. Keep the course materials closed and do not use any notes or references
B. Read only key points from your notes and course materials, followed by explanations
C. Read the course materials word for word from the book so nothing is missed
D. Read your own notes word for word so nothing is missed but appropriate course adjustments
are used
Answer: B
Question 12.
Who should contribute to the evaluation of the delivery of instruction?
A. The students only
B. The students, the client, and the instructor
C. The students and the client
D. The students and the instructor
Answer: B
Question 13.
At the beginning of a topic, an instructor plans a short motivational activity followed by an one hour lecture on an LCD projector. Is this an effective motivational strategy?
A. Yes, because adult learners respond best to long lecture presentation formats
B. Yes, because the learners are engaged at the beginning
C. No, because learner interest needs to be maintained
D. No, because adult learners do not respond well to being involved in course activities
Answer: C
Question 14.
In a number of course evaluations, the students indicated that the instructor did not appear comfortable with all of the course content. What competency does the instructor need to work on?
A. Manage the learning environment
B. Analyze course materials and learner information
C. Use media effectively
D. Assure preparation of the instructional site
Answer: B
Question 15.
When administering a test, it is important for the instructor to inform the students of which of the following?
A. The instructions on how to complete the test
B. The plans for disseminating and using the results
C. The score of each student of the previous class
D. The rationale for the test
Answer: A, B, D
Question 16.
When motivational strategies are modified by the instructor, what further action should the instructor take?
A. Indicate which modifications may indicate possible design changes
B. Modify the course materials, documenting the necessary course changes
C. Document and provide reasons for the changes
D. Indicate which modifications were unique to specific situations
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
Your NFS server log configuration file contains the entry:
applog defaultdir=/var/nfs \ buffer=/var/tmp/buffer fhtable=fhtable log=applog Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two)
A. The transaction buffer file is /var/tmp/buffer.
B. The human-readable log file is /var/tmp/applog.
C. The human-readable log file is /var/nfs/applog.
D. This entry will be applied to all NFS shares by default.
E. The file handle mapping table is /var/tmp/fhtable.
F. This entry represents the default NFS logging configuration.
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
A user on an NIS client is trying to search for a specific host in the NIS database. The user sees the following error message when running the ypmatch command. $ ypmatch 194.168.85.121 hosts Can't match key 194.168.85.121 in map hosts.byname. Reason: no such key in map.
The ypcat hosts command on the client reveals the entry 194.168.85.121 hostA. What is the reason the user can NOT search and find the host 194.168.85.121?
A. The ypbind daemon was NOT running on the client.
B. The /etc/nsswitch.conf file was NOT configured to search NIS.
C. The ypmatch command should have used host.byaddr as its argument.
D. The ypmatch command searches the /etc/inet/hosts file, because the argument hosts was
used instead of the more specific hosts.byname.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which three name services provide, or can be customized to provide, locale information as used in /etc/locale? (Choose three)
A. NIS
B. NIS+
C. UNS
D. DNS
E. NFS
F. LDAP
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
Which daemon process, running on NIS master and NIS slave servers, respond to bind requests from NIS clients?
A. ypxfrd
B. ypbind
C. ypserv
D. ypupdated
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which two statements about the functionality of the syslogd daemon are true? (Choose two)
A. Error messages can only be logged locally in a system log.
B. The kernel, daemons, and syslogd each write directly to a system log.
C. Syslogd can write messages to the console as well as to a system log.
D. The logger command communicates with syslogd which then logs the message according to
its configuration file.
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
Your /etc/syslog.conf file contains the line:
*.alert;kern.err;daemon.notice @operator
To which destination are messages sent?
A. The user named operator.
B. The host named operator.
C. The /var/log/operator file.
D. All members of the group operator.
Answer: B
Explanation
The leading @ sign means machine/host, not operator.
Question 7.
You have a large number of systems in your organization which are currently running either Solaris 2.6 or Solaris 7. You have been tasked with ensuring that all of these systems are running Solaris 9, and you are considering using the Flash installation feature to achieve this.
What is a requirement for using the Flash installation feature?
A. You must be performing an initial installation.
B. You must be performing an upgrade installation.
C. You must make the Flash archive available using NFS.
D. You must run a pre-install script on each system to slice the disk.
Answer: A
Explanation
You CANNOT do an upgrade with flash.
Question 8.
You have configured a client profile (class) file on a JumpStart server. You boot the JumpStart client, and during the installation process, you notice that the profile file is not installing the client with the configuration intended. You abort the installation and now must modify the profile file on the JumpStart server.
Which action can be taken on the server to quickly test the behavior of the modified profile file?
A. Run the check script.
B. Run the pfinstall command.
C. Run the add_install_client command.
D. Run the modify_install_server command.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which two are troubleshooting targets for connection-oriented protocols?
(Choose two).
A. Verify time-to-live fields
B. Verify protocol numbers
C. Verify sequence numbers
D. Verify acknowledgment numbers
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
1. Verify sequence number
2. Verify acknowledgment numbers
Question 2.
Which documentation reduces the time that a troubleshooter needs to spend learning about the structure and configuration of a network and helps them know when they have returned the network to normal operation?
A. Design document
B. Baseline document
C. Network summary
D. Design summary
Answer: B
Explanation:
The document being described above is a baseline document.
Reference:
Baseline Process: Best Practices White Paper Document ID: 15112
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/126/HAS_baseline.html#what
Question 3.
What should the next step be when a network administrator has followed a correction plan and efforts to correct the problem are unsuccessful?
A. Stop making changes and return to the Gathering Symptoms stage.
B. Continue to make changes, documenting each change as it is made until the problem is
Corrected.
C. Undo all changes, returning the device to their known initial state.
D. Perform a core dump to send to Cisco technical support for analysis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If you tried a plan and it failed, you should restore the device back to where you started, and document your unsuccessful attempt. If you try a change, on top of a change, on top of a change, you’ll be more likely to get lost and if by chance you do solve the problem, you won’t be able to truly confirm the source of the problem for your documentation and you’ll have finished without learning anything.
Question 4.
Which two commands are used to gather information about MS Windows based end-systems? (Choose two).
A. Show route
B. Route print
C. Show interface
D. Print route
E. Arp – a
F. Trace route
Answer: B, E
Question 5.
What information should be included in a network topology diagram? (Choose two)
A. Location of configuration files.
B. Speed and duplex of individual switch ports.
C. Illustrations of each network device.
D. Representations of logical and physical connections.
E. Individual end user systems.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
A network topology diagram shows all the devices and how they are physically and logically connected. The device name, interface or port name, IP address, and routing protocol (s) are a few of its important components.
Question 6.
The Cisco router logging process can distribute system error messages to which three destinations? (Choose three)
A. Configuration files
B. Logging buffer
C. Terminal lines
D. External syslog server
E. History file
F. Message directory
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
The options for logging are:
• Console
• internal buffer
• a virtual terminal session (telnet)
• syslog server
Incorrect answers:
Message directories, and history files aren’t terms used in the exam. The configuration file doesn’t show a history of error messages, it only reflects the current configuration.
Question 7.
Exhibit:
The exhibit illustrates the output of a command used to troubleshoot data-link targets.
Which command generated this output?
A. Show cdp neighbor
B. Show cdp neighbor detail
C. Show interfaces serial 0/1
D. Show interfaces serial 0/1 summary
Answer: B
Question 8.
What does P in a trace output mean?
A. The port us unreachable.
B. The PSTN is unreachable.
C. The packet is unreachable.
D. The protocol is unreachable.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The capital letter P is the message for protocol unreachable
See URL:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products
Question 9.
Which command is used to determine if a problem lies in the first four layers of the OSI networking model?
A. Ping
B. Arp –a
C. Telnet
D. Show ip interface
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which two steps should be taken when troubleshooting external router connections to switches?
Supporting inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two)
A. Verify the correct media-type statement for each VLAN sub interface.
B. Verify that the sub interface for each VLAN has the correct IP address.
C. Ensure that the correct IP address if configured on the main interface.
D. Ensure that the full duplex setting on the main router interface matches that on the switch port.
Answer: B, D
Incorrect answers:
A - there can only be one media type per physical interface
C - the main interface (fasteth 0/0 for example) is to be left un-numbered
B: Each subinterface must have a correct IP address. Each subinterface will correspond to one
VLAN member of the trunk.
D: The main interface configuration commands that may be necessary on the Fast Ethernet interface are media-type and full-duplex. If you are troubleshooting a trunk connection between a router and a switch, it is best if you decide on the duplexing mode and do a manual configuration on both devices. Relying on the autosensing feature is usually discouraged.
Reference:
Troubleshooting InterVLAN Routing on a Catalyst 5000 Switch with RSM
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/56.html
Incorrect Answers
A: The media type should be set on the main interface, not on the subinterfaces.
C: If a Fast Ethernet interface is used for trunking purposes, it should not have any Layer 3 (OSI network layer) address or any bridging commands configured on the main interface. These types of commands must be appropriately entered on the subinterfaces. Each subinterface will correspond to one VLAN member of the trunk.
Incorrect answers:
A - there can only be one media type per physical interface
C - the main interface (fasteth 0/0 for example) is to be left un-numbered
Question 11.
Which command will enable forwarding of packets that have no default route to the best super net route possible?
A. Ip redirects
B. Ip split-horizon
C. Ip proxy-arp
D. Ip classless
Answer: D
Explanation:
Best match principle
Question 12.
Which command can display system messages that indicate the presence of duplicate IP addresses on network devices?
A. Show logging
B. Show interfaces
C. Show IP routing
D. Show IP protocol
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is correct per:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/univgate/ps509/products_configuration_example09186a0080094148.shtml
Specifically Notes:
• Ensure logging is not turned on for the line from which you are collecting output (use the show logging command).
This states that you are getting info from a particular line and as a result this would allow you to find out if you had duplicate ip addresses.
Question 13.
Network Topology Diagrams and Network Configuration Tables should be maintained on which
Schedule?
A. At the end of the day.
B. At the end of the month.
C. At the end of the year.
D. At the time changes are applied.
E. Before making any changes.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is correct per:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/univgate/ps509/products_configuration_example09186a0080094148.shtml
Note:
Ensure logging is not turned on for the line from which you are collecting output (use the show logging command). This states that you are getting info from a particular line and as a result this would allow you to find out if you had duplicate ip addresses.
Question 14.
Switch>show version
Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software
IOS(tm)C2950 Software(C2950-I6Q4L2-M), Version 12.1(11)EA1, RELEASE SOFTWARE(fc1)
Copyright(c) 1986-2002 by cisco Systems, Inc.
Compiled Web 28-Aug-02 10:25 by antonino
Image text-base: 0x80010000, data-base: 0x80528000
ROM: Bootstrap program is CALHOUN boot loader
Switch uptime is 8 hours, 34 minutes
System returned to ROM by power-on
System image file is “flash:/c2950-i6q412-mz.121-11-EA1.bin”
Cisco WS-C2950-24 (RC32300) processor (revision G0) with 20402K bytes of memory.
Processor board ID FHK0645Z0TE
Last reset from system-reset
Running Standard Image
24 Fast Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 interface(s)
32K byes of flash-simulated non-volatile configuration memory.
Base Ethernet MAC Address: 00:0B: 5F: 4D: 77:80
Motherboard assembly number: 73-5781-11
Power supply part number: 34-0965-01
Motherboard serial number: F0C064507AL
Power supply serial number: PHI0638059E
Model revision number: G0
Motherboard revision number: A0
Model number: WS-C2950-24
System serial number: FHK0645Z0TE
Configuration register is 0xF
Switch>
Examine the output of the show version command.
Which of the following pieces of information can be discovered about the network configuration of this switch? (Choose two)
A. Spanning-tree version
B. Model of the device
C. MAC addresses of any interfaces or ports
D. Active routing protocol
E. Installed memory
F. Routing protocol version
Answer: B, E (B, C, E)
Explanation:
The model number is mentioned twice in the command output:
Model number: WS-C2950-24
As is the amount and the type of installed memory:
cisco WS-C2950-24 (RC32300) processor (revision G0) with 20402K bytes of memory.
32K byes of flash-simulated non-volatile configuration memory.
As is the address of the base Ethernet MAC address.
Base ethernet MAC Address: 00:0B:5F:4D:77:80
Question 15.
Exhibit:
You work as a technician at ITCertKeys. When installing new computers at ITCertKeys's remote site in Mexico City, you are unable to make a connection between the computers and the corporate web server ITCertKeys A. Using the ping command from the router at the remote site, you are able to successfully ping both the intranet web server and the newly installed PCs.
Which two problems might produce this set of symptoms? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect default gateway configured on the new PCs.
B. Incorrect default gateway configured on the intranet web server.
C. Incorrect routing protocol configuration on the remote site router.
D. Incorrect routing protocol configuration on the router connected to the subnet where the
Intranet web server is installed.
Answer: A, C
Question 16.
What are the components that should be included in an End-system Topology Diagram?
(Choose four)
A. Operating system
B. Device name
C. IP routing protocol
D. Device illustration
E. Connection to the network
F. VTP domain
Answer: A, B, D, E (B, D, E)
Question 17.
Which Microsoft Windows command can be used to verify that the declared address for the end-system is correct?
A. Ping
B. Tracert
C. Telnet
D. Arp –a
Answer: D
Explanation:
arp -a will list all the entries in the ARP table:
Reference:
www.tarpat.com/books/network2/tshoot/ch02_03.htm
Question 18.
What information is provided by the show ppp multilink command?
A. Bundle name
B. Bundle idle time out
C. Bundle flapping record
D. Bundle disconnect reason
Answer: A
Explanation:
The show ppp multilink command displays information about the newly created multilink bundle
which includes the bundle name.
Question 19.
Which command is used to display active TCP/IP connections on a Microsoft Windows end System?
A. Trace route
B. Ping
C. Netstat
D. ifconfig –a
Answer: C
Explanation:
Netstat is a windows command. It can show:
• active TCP connections
• ports on which the computer is listening
• statistics on the Ethernet
• the IP routing table
• and IPv4 and IPv6 statistics
Incorrect answers:
Answer choice A is a made up command.
Answer choices B & D are popular IOS commands.
Question 20.
Where are the bug watcher and the interim patches located?
A. Cisco Navigator
B. Open Q&A Forum
C. Cisco Support CD
D. Software Bug Toolkit
E. Online Tech Support
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Software Bug Toolkit focuses on errors and bugs found in IOS and other software utilities.
Question 21.
A guest can apply for user access in CCO with:
A. Member ID
B. Staff Resource ID
C. Guest Resource ID
D. Service contract number
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you bought equipments from Cisco you can gain user access too.
Question 22.
Which of the following topologies are NOT supported by Netsys Baseliner
(Choose all that apply)?
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. None of the choices.
D. Fast Ethernet
E. Ethernet
F. ATM
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the technical documentation at CCO:
The following LAN topologies are supported by the Cisco Netsys Baseliner software: Asynchronous Transfer
Mode (ATM) interface
Ethernet Fast Ethernet Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) Token Ring
Question 23.
You need to make sure that NTP can function in your network. Which of the following command is NOT appropriate?
A. access-list 101 permit udp 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 eQ NO: 122
B. access-list 101 permit tcp 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 eQ NO: 123
C. access-list 101 permit udp 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 e QNO: 123
D. access-list 101 permit tcp 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 e QNO: 124
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize time on multiple devices.
The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a protocol designed to time-synchronize a network of machines. NTP runs over UDP, which in turn runs over IP.
Question 24.
Which of the following utility will assist you in TCP/IP troubleshooting by giving you hop by hop information?
A. Traceroute
B. Ping
C. Netstat
D. Nbstat
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ping is for testing network reachability, and will not give you hop by hop details.
Question 25.
How do we call the following process:
"A Cisco device with ASIC works on layer 3 to identify the best path to use for moving traffic?"
A. Layer 3 Routing
B. Layer 3 Forwarding
C. Layer 3 Switching
D. Layer 3 Cut through
Answer: C
Explanation:
Routing works at layer 3. Switch that deploys ASIC for routing is known as Layer 3 switching device
Question 26.
Which of the following is true concerning the AppleTalk protocol's DDP (Choose all that apply)?
A. sockets can be assigned statically
B. provides connectionless service between network sockets
C. sockets can be assigned dynamically
D. primary network-layer protocol
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 27.
All web traffic cannot go through your router. You suspect this is an access list problem. You suspect that Access List 80 is blocking the web traffiB. What command should you use?
A. no ip access-group 80 in
B. ip access-group 80 out
C. ip access-group 80 in
D. no ip access-group 80 out
Answer: A
Explanation:
The only questions with the correct syntax are A & B as the the ‘no’ parameter has to be specified o remove an access list. The access list mentioned in this access list is an inbound access list, because its blocking traffic from coming through; so command A) no ip access-group 80 in is correct.
Question 28.
Which of the following is NOT a valid optional Interface type argument for the debug list command?
A. parallel
B. serial
C. token ring
D. fddi
E. tunnel
F. Ethernet
G. null
H. channel
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the technical documentation at CCO: To filter debugging information on a perinterface or per access list basis, use the debug list privileged EXEC command. The optional Interface type argument allows the following values:
channel-IBM Channel interface
Ethernet-IEEE 802.3
fddi-ANSI X3T9.5
null-Null interface
serial-Serial
token ring-IEEE 802.5
tunnel-Tunnel interface
Question 29.
You are using the following command on your router: show AppleTalk access-list What are you trying to do with this command (Choose 2)?
A. Identify misconfigured access lists
B. Enable access list
C. Identify misconfigured filters
D. Enable port filter
Answer: A, C
Question 30.
Which of the following encapsulation types are essentially the same (Choose all that apply)?
A. 802.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.1Q NO:
D. None of them are the same
E. ISL
Answer: D
Explanation:
The exam will attempt to confuse you with question like this. None of them are the same.
Question 31.
During troubleshooting, you may use the show command to isolate (Choose all that apply)?
A. problematic nodes
B. problematic users
C. problematic interfaces
D. problematic applications
E. problematic media
Answer: A, C, D, E
Explanation:
According to the technical documentation at CCO:
The show commands are powerful monitoring and troubleshooting tools. You can use the show commands to perform a variety of functions:
Monitor router behavior during initial installation Monitor normal network operation Isolate problem interfaces, nodes, media, or applications Determine when a network is congested Determine the status of servers, clients, or other neighbors
Question 32.
What command should you use to filter debugging information on a per-interface basis (fill in the blank):
Answer: debug list
Explanation: According to the technical documentation at CCO:
To filter debugging information on a per-interface or per-access list basis, use the debug list privileged EXEC command. The no form of this command turns off the list filter. The debug list command is used with other debug commands for specific protocols and interfaces to filter the amount of debug information that is displayed
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Question 1.
You need to design a method of communication between the IT and HR departments. Your solution must meet business requirements.
What should you do?
A. Design a custom IPSec policy to implement Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) for all IP
traffic. Design the IPSec policy to use certificate-based authentication between the two
departments’ computers.
B. Design a customer IPSec policy to implement Authentication Header (AH) for all IP traffic.
Desing the IPSec policy to use preshared key authentication between the two departments’
computers.
C. Design a customer IPSec policy to implement Encapsulating Payload (ESP) for all IP traffic.
Desing the IPSec policy to use preshared key authentication between the two departments’
computers.
D. Design a customer IPSec policy to implement Authentication Header (AH) for all IP traffic.
Desing the IPSec policy to use certificate-based authentication between the two departments’
computers.
Answer: A
Question 2.
You need to design an authentication strategy for users of portable computers. Your solution must meet business requirements.
What should you do?
A. Issue smart cards and smart card readers to all portable computer users. Configure the
domain to require smart cards for login and to log off users who remote their smart cards.
B. Configure the portable computers to connect to only wireless networks that use Wired
Equivalent Privacy (WEP). Install digital certificates on all portable computers.
C. Install computer certificates on all portable computers. Configure all portable computers to
respond to requests for IPSec encryption.
D. Install biometric authentication devices on all portable computers. Configure the Default
Domain Policy GPO to require complex passwords for all users.
Answer: A
Question 3.
You need to design an access control strategy for the financial data used by the accounting department.
Your solution must meet business requirements. What should you do?
A. Modify the properties of the computer object named P_FS2 to enable the Trust computer for
delegation attribute. Instruct accounting department users to use Encrypting File System
EFS) to encrypt files.
B. Modify the properties of all accounting department user accounts to enable the Account is
trusted for delegation attribute. Instruct accounting department users to use Encrypting File
System (EFS) toencrypt files.
C. Modify the properties of accounting department computers to enable the Trust computer for
delegation attribute. Configure accounting department client computers to use IPSec to
communicate with P_FS2.
D. Modify the properties of all administrator accounts in the forest to enable to Account is trusted
for delegation attribute. Configure accounting department client computers to use IPSec to
communicate with P_FS2.
Answer: A
Question 4.
You need to design a method to ensure that only scripts that are approved by the IT department can run on company computers. Your solution must meet business requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create a new software restriction policy in the Default Domain Policy GPO that removes the
Microsoft Visual Basic Scripting Edition and the Windows Script Component file types from the
File Types list.
B. Create a new software restriction policy in the Default Domain Policy GPO that disables the
use of Wscript.exe and Cscript.exe.
C. Configure Windows Script Host to not execute Windows Script Component file types.
D. Configure Windows Script Host to execute only scripts that are signed by a certificate issued
by an approved certification authority (CA).
Answer: D
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