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Question 1.
Which of the following statements are false for shadow key? (Choose two)
A. It contains the application specific default settings.
B. It contains user specific settings for an application.
C. It contains a backup copy of the users HKey_Current_User\Software key.
D. It is created by terminal services during the installation of a program.
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
In order to make an application multi-user compatible, which of the following features does Install Mode use? (Choose two)
A. File system and directory links
B. Registry key mapping
C. INI file mapping
D. Application compatibility scripts
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which of the following types of informaiton is not passed for NFuse Classic and the ICA client device?(Choose two)
A. ICA Files
B. Application Set Lists
C. Initialization Requests
D. ICA Session Information
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Which of the following event is not tracked in the dynamic store? (Choose two)
A. RM metrics
B. Disconnects
C. Server load
D. Published applications
E. Logons
Answer: A, D
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Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B
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Question 1.
From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A
Question 2.
What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C
Question 3.
The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status.
How can you view the state of these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A
Question 4.
Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A
Question 5.
Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C
Question 6.
The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure.
What information on the Management Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L. Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E. System Event
Answer: D
Question 7.
You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C
Question 9.
How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display
automatically.
Answer: A, E
Question 10.
How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System
UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID
displays automatically.
Answer: A, B
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Question 1.
Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A. IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B. HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C. HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D. A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E. HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Answer: D, E
Question 2.
When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A. TPC-B
B. number of CPUs
C. delta performance
D. estimated performance
Answer: D
Question 3.
What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A. HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B. HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C. HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D. HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E. HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing (OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware platform?
A. a data warehouse
B. a bank with automatic teller machines
C. an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D. a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Answer: B
Question 5.
Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity servers against other vendors for Linux.
Which competitive concept should be included in your document?
A. HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B. HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C. HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D. HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Answer: C
Question 6.
When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should you discuss? (Select two.)
A. HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B. Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C. PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D. The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E. Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor (ISV) support.
Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A. More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is
growing.
B. HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without
performance loss.
C. The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be
included in the customer's business plans.
D. Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors,
they cover every needed type of application.
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium- based systems?
A. chipsets
B. full redundancy
C. faster clock speeds
D. memory expandability
Answer: A
Question 9.
Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over Gigabit Ethernet LAN to save their data to a library.
Which technology will improve performance?
A. NIC bonding
B. NIC teaming
C. Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D. Advanced Technology Attachment
Answer: C
Question 10.
What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A. HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B. IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C. HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D. IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Answer: D
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Question 1. Which of the following can help assure customers that the information they provide to you will remain private? A. Implement and post a privacy policy. B. Provide an opt-out link for all e-mail sent to customers. C. Post the company security policy. D. Create a data backup policy. Answer: A Question 2. Which of the following pieces of information will best help you determine the number of transactions your database server can accommodate? A. The number of concurrent user connections B. Maximum uptime requirements C. The number of database tables required D. Minimum installation requirements Answer: A Question 3. To perform at the maximum level of security, digital certificates must be: A. issued by a trusted third party. B. issued 30 days before the site goes live. C. verified digitally by a notary public. D. guaranteed by VeriSign. Answer: A Question 4. The purpose of a stress test is to determine: A. whether more system RAM is necessary. B. whether a more powerful CPU is necessary. C. whether a performance bottleneck is present. D. whether visitors can reach the site. Answer: C Question 5. Which of the following is the most effective option for detecting a site attack by someone who wants to modify your customer database? A. Using an intrusion detection system B. Limiting the open ports on the system C. Using antivirus software D. Implementing a firewall Answer: A Question 6. The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure: A. visitor satisfaction. B. cost-effectiveness. C. site availability. D. increased profitability. Answer: C Question 7. A hash encryption function: A. is encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key. B. is not used because today's computers can easily hack it. C. is relatively easy to encrypt but difficult to decrypt. D. contains a secret key that is used to encrypt and decrypt. Answer: C Question 8. You need to enable SSL/TLS on a Web server for a virtual directory. You have just installed a signed digital certificate from a certificate authority. What is the next step you should take? A. Place a copy of the certificate in the virtual directory as a hidden file. B. Place the digital certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store. C. Specify that you want to use SSL/TLS for the Web server's virtual directory. D. Specify that you want to use the certificate to sign the virtual directory. Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer relationship management (CRM) and personalization? A. Online instant storefront B. Mid-level offline instant storefront C. Mid-level online instant storefront D. High-level offline instant storefront Answer: D Question 10. Tomas receives multiple e-mail notices after he successfully places an online order with a book retailer. What is the customary sequence of order e-mail notices? A. Order address verified, order shipped, order charged to the credit card B. Order processed, order status confirmed, order shipped with tracking number C. Order fulfilled, order processed, order shipped with tracking number assigned D. Order shipped, order processed, order charged to the credit card Answer: B
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Question 1.
Deborah installed a utility that downloads movies from her Mac OS X v10.4 computer to a digital video recorder (DVR), so she can play them on her television. But the DVR is only able to access the movies files on her computer while she has the firewall on the computer turned off.
How can Deborah configure her system to allow the DVR to access movie files on her computer while the firewall is on?
A. Using a text editor, add the port numbers used by the movie sharing utility to /etc/firewall. list.
B. In the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences, create a new port definition with the port numbers
used by the movie sharing utility, then turn the port on in the firewall list of ports.
C. In the Firewall pane of Network preferences, enter the range of ports used by the movie
sharing utility in the Allow list.
D. Using the Firewall Manager utility, add the port numbers used by the sharing utility to
/etc/firewall. list, then enable the ports in the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences.
Answer: B
Question 2.
What are three ways to access the command line in Mac OS X v10.4? (Choose THREE.)
A. Launch Console.
B. Start up in single user mode.
C. Launch Network Utility.
D. Start up in verbose mode.
E. Launch Terminal.
F. Choose Command from the Apple menu.
G. Log in remotely using SSH.
Answer: B, E, G
Question 3.
In Mac OS X v10.4, how do you enable printing to a printer shared by a Windows computer?
A. In the Print dialog, choose the workgroup from the Windows Printer entry in the Printer pop-up
menu, then select the printer from the list.
B. From the Printing pane of Print & Fax preferences, choose Windows Printers in the pop-up
menu, then select the workgroup and printer.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, select the workgroup and printer from the Default Browser pane in the
Printer Browser window, and click Add.
D. In Printer Setup Utility, click More Printers in the Printer Browser window and choose Windows
Printing from the pop-up menu, then choose the workgroup, select the printer, and click Add.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which two utilities can display information about a wide range of system components? (Choose TWO.).
A. Network Diagnostics
B. Internet Connect
C. Console
D. Setup Assistant
E. System Profiler
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
Mac OS X v10.4 supports which two types of VPN connections by default? (Choose TWO.)
A. PPTP
B. PPPoE
C. L2TP
D. P2P
E. NAT
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
In Mac OS X v10.4, changes to network configuration ________.
A. require administrator authentication
B. require you to create a new network location
C. are made in the Internet pane of System Preferences
D. are user-specific
Answer: A
Question 7.
Press Exhibit to view the image. You have set up a network as shown in the exhibit. Computer A has been configured to share its Internet connection from the cable modem with computers B and C over Ethernet.
Why could this configuration be problematic?
A. Internet Sharing is incompatible with cable modems.
B. A computer running Mac OS X v10.4 can use Internet Sharing to share its Internet connection
with only one other computer on the network.
C. Internet Sharing must be enabled on all three computers in order to share the cable modem.
D. Receiving and sharing an Internet connection over the same Ethernet port on Computer A can
cause network problems for other ISP customers.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which is NOT a valid reason to use the command line rather than the Finder in Mac OS X v10.4?
A. It is easier to execute undo at the command line than to undo commands in the Finder.
B. Some file system commands executed at the command line, like chown and chmod, have
options for which there are no equivalents in the Finder.
C. Commands executed at the command line can be combined for efficiency.
D. Commands executed at the command line can be executed from a different user account more
easily than their Finder equivalents.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Press Exhibit to view the image. In the Finder, Chris creates a folder in her home directory and sets the permissions as shown in the exhibit. In Terminal, Chris types: ls -l ~ and presses Return.
What permissions are shown for the new folder?
A. -rwx-wx-wx
B. drwx-wx-wx
C. drw--w--w-
D. -rw--wx-wx
E. drw--wx-wx
Answer: B
Question 10.
Authorization verifies ________.
A. a resource availability to a given user account
B. a user's name and password
C. a file's creator and type
D. a computer's membership in a computer list
Answer: A
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Question 1. You have just added a CD.ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to your system and have added it to yourfstab. Typically you can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom? A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom B. mount/dev/cdrom C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom D. mount /mnt/cdrom E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom Answer: D Explanation: /mnt/cdrom or /media/cdrom is the mount point for cdrom specified in /etc/fstab. /dev/hdd /media/cdrom auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0 /dev/hdc /media/cdrecorder auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0 So we need to mount just typing mount /media/cdrom command. Question 2. With Xorg 7.0, what is the name of the default font server? A. xfserv B. xfs C. fonts D. xfstt E. fserv Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. CORRECT TEXT Which command (without options) would you use to display how much space is available on all mounted partitions? Answer: /BIN/DF Question 4. CORRECT TEXT What command with all options and/or parameter will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2? Answer: KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2 Question 5. The command echo $! will produce what output? A. the process id of last background command B. the exit status of the last command C. the exit status of the last background command D. the process id of the current shell E. the name of the command being executed Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. You are using quota on your system. How can you see disk quota details? A. repquota B. quota. I C. quota D. quotacheck E. quota. list Answer: A Explanation: repquota prints a summary of the disk usage and quotas for the specified file systems. For each user the current number of files and amount of space (in kilobytes) is printed, along with any quotas created with edquota. Example : repquota /home à prints the summary of disk usage and other information of all users. Question 7. What is the difference between the.remove and the.purge action with the dpkg command? A. -remove removes the program, -purge also removes the config files B. -remove only removes the program, -purge only removes the config files C. -remove removes a package, -purge also removes all packages dependent on it D. -remove removes only the package file itself, -purge removes all files related to the package Answer: A Explanation: ?r or ??remove remove everything except configuration files. This may avoid having to reconfigure the package if it is reinstalled later. (Configuration files are the files listed in the debian/conffiles control file). ?P or ??purge removes everything, including configuration files. If ?a or ??pending is given instead of a package name, then all packages unpacked, but marked to be removed or purged in file /var/lib/dpkg/status , are removed or purged, respectively. Question 8 CORRECT TEXT What application can be used in place of xhost? Please enter only the name without path. Answer: Answer: XAUTH Question 9. You have read/write permission on an ordinary file foo. You have just run In foo bar. What would happen if you ran rm foo? A. foo and bar would both be removed. B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible. C. foo would be removed, bar would still exist but would be unusable. D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible. E. You would be asked whether bar should be removed. Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer is B. The ln command is used to create the link. There are two types of link a. Soft link b. Hard link. a. Softlink à Can create for directory also, can span multiple pratations but available until and unless Original Files remain. Syntax for Softlink ln -s originalfile linkfile b. Hardlink à One separate Physical File, can't create for directory, can't span multiple file but remains the link file if original file removed. Syntax for Hardlink ln originalfile linkfile In Questions, created the bar hardlink of foo. That means bar is on separate physical file. The file bar is accessible after removing the foo file also. Question 10. Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF characters and store it as newlist.txt? A. tr '\r\n' " < userlist.txt > newlist.txt B. tr -c '\n\r' " < newlist.txt > userlist.txt C. tr -d '\r' < userlist.txt > newlist.txt D. tr '\r' '\n' userlist.txt newlist.txt E. tr -s'^M' '^J' userlist.txt newlist.txt Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1.
DRAG DROP
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Question 2.
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone
configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in
Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name
of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C, E, F
Question 3.
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)
A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn 13-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}
Answer: B
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its Answer: description on the right
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its description on the right
Answer:
Question 5.
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?
A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on theControl Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio
button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the Answer:server, and clicking on the radio
button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of
the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the
service
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. trans coding
B. audio conferencing C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination
Answer: A
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the MoH server parameter on the left to its description on the right. Not all parameters apply.
Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
Answer: B, C, E
Question 9.
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager
servers
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified
Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified
Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if the phones are in the same Cisco
Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the
same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in
the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
Answer: B, C, D
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Question 1.
The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?
A. Performance reviews
B. Work performance information
C. Forecasted completion
D. Performance measurements
Answer: A
Explanation:
Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved change requests, and deliverables.
Question 2.
You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country. You know, but have not yet informed your company, that you are going to go to work for the competitor, which happens to be bidding for this same opportunity.
What is the most appropriate response?
A. You decide to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because any
information you gain now will help you when you make the move to the new company.
B. You inform the foreign business partners that you're going to be working with a new company
and that you know the deal they'll receive from the competing company is better than the one
this company is proposing.
C. You decline to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because of
a conflict of interest.
D. You've not yet received an official offer from the competing company for your new job
opportunity, so you choose to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business
partners.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most appropriate response is to decline to participate because of a conflict of interest.
Question 3.
The most effective team motivator is:
A. understanding the importance of the project
B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. the visibility of the team's contribution
E. the individual's professional challenge
Answer: D
Question 4.
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______ .
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Administer Procurements
Answer: B
Explanation:
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements.
Question 5.
Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.
A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. analyze the reasons for variances
C. establish the variances
D. identify the problems
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
Answer: E
Question 6.
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition.
Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?
A. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.
B. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables
needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
C. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure,
and costs will increase.
D. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A might seem like a correct answer, but option D is more correct. There isn't enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.
Question 7.
You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. This condition is known as culture shock.
B. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
C. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
D. This condition is known as globalculturalism.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching information about the country you'll be working in can help counteract this.
Question 8.
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Defines all people associated with each activity
D. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart.
Question 9.
The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency.
A. Soft logic
B. Subcontracted
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
E. External
Answer: C
Question 10.
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
What should you do next?
A. Control Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Value analysis
D. Verify Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
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Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience.
Which of the following is the impact of system failure?
A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C
Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.
Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?
A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: B
Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved.
What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?
A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning
Answer: C
Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process.
What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarily interested in?
A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O
Answer: A
Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits.
A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?
A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting
Answer: C
Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties.
Which of the following meets this immediate situation?
A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized
architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not
cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and
services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a
roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as
goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established
other pillars should be implemented
Answer: D
Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved.
Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?
A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design
Answer: A
Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following?
A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing
Answer: A
Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.
Which of the following defines a business RPO?
A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without
their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site
Answer: A
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