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Question 1.
Type the command that can be used on an NFS server to display the resources that the server is exporting?
Answer: share
Question 2.
Which command can create a class of printers called admin?
A. lpadmin -c admin
B. lpadmin -c "printer name" -p admin
C. lpadmin -p admin -c "printer name"
D. lpadmin -p "printer name" -c admin
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following are invalid RBAC usage files? (Choose three)
A. /etc/user_attr
B. /etc/exec_attr
C. /etc/prof_attr
D. /etc/security/user_attr
E. /etc/security/exec_attr
F. /etc/security/prof_attr
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which two are invalid resources to obtain patches? (Choose two)
A. World Wide Web access.
B. CD-ROM media from Sun.
C. Telnet access to Sun Solve.
D. Anonymous ftp access to the Sun Solve ftp site.
E. Patch supplied from an official periodical publication.
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
NFS client may have all of the following functions except? (Choose all that apply)
A. Runs the nfsd daemon.
B. Makes resources available over the network.
C. Mounts remote resources across the network.
D. Is configured using the /etc/dfs/dfstab file.
E. Mounts a remote resources and uses it as through it were local.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which of the following are invalid commands that can be used to stop the NFS server daemons? (Choose three)
A. /etc/init.d/nfs.server stop
B. /etc/rc5.d/K28nfs.server stop
C. /etc/rc2.d/K28nfs.server stop
D. /etc/rc0.d/S15nfs.server stop
E. /etc/rc3.d/S15nfs.server stop
F. /etc/rc0.d/K28nfs.server start
Answer: B, D, F
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Question 1. Exhibit: The exhibit shows the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Administration Center. From which three TSM Administration Center menus is the Use Command Line option available? (Choose three.) A. Reporting B. Getting Started C. Storage Devices D. Console Settings E. Server Maintenance F. Policy Domains and Client Nodes Answer: C, E, F Question 2. How can you monitor a client backup session? A. issue a query process command and search for your backup target nodename B. issue the command query session nodename=format=detail C. issue a query stgpool pooltype=primary command on a regular basis and note the Pct Util value D. issue the command query session on a regular basis and note the status of the session where the Client Name matches your target Answer: D Question 3. An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager operator receives a request for a file that was archived. Which function should be used to obtain the file? A. Recall B. Restore C. Retrieve D. Automated System Restore (ASR) Answer: C Question 4. Which command displays the backup action for the schedule named DBWeekly? A. query cloptset B. query node type=client f=d C. query session format=detail D. query schedule standard DBWeekly format=detail Answer: D Question 5. Which command is used to remove tapes from a library? A. remove libvol B. remove volume C. checkout libvol D. checkout volume Answer: C Question 6. Exhibit: The information displayed in the exhibit is the output of which command? A. query path B. query mount C. query drive D. query active Answer: C Question 7. A client backup request is not working. What is the first step an operator should take to attempt to restore functionality? A. verify the client has the Client Java Backup GUI installed B. ping the node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Administrative command line C. query the node to verify communications between the client and server with query node D. verify that the node is defined and if it is not, query the Activity Log to determine who deleted it and at what time Answer: D Question 8. What should be included with the Disaster Recovery tapes that go off-site? A. a full database backup B. a full Recovery Log backup C. a journal-based database backup D. a journal-based Recovery Log backup Answer: A Question 9. You have twelve tape drives available to be used in a restore, but a client is only using two. What should you check? A. the streams setting in the dsm.opt B. the adaptivesubfile setting in the dsm.opt C. the resourceutilization setting in the dsm.opt D. dynamicdataconsolidation setting in the dsm.opt Answer: C Question 10. Which command does an operator use to determine the privilege class of an administrator? A. query content B. query association C. query admin D. query privilege Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which types of transactions can be entered in the Daily Cash Balances screen?
A. Disbursements only
B. Receipts only
C. Either Receipts or Disbursements
D. Transactions cannot be entered in this screen
Answer: D
Question 2.
When is a Cash Manager account balance updated in the Cash Manager module?
A. When a batch from GL, AP, AR or CA is Saved
B. When a batch from GL, AP, AR or CA is Released
C. When the Posting process is run in General Ledger
D. When the Posting process is run in Cash Manager
Answer: B
Question 3.
What happens when a batch of Cash Account Transactions that contains payments that update Accounts Receivable is released in Cash Manager?
A. A batch containing the payments is sent to the Payment Entry screen in Accounts Receivable.
B. The batch is left on Balanced status in Cash Manager until the payments are applied in the
Accounts Receivable module, then the batch is released in Cash Manager.
C. A batch is sent to the Accounts Receivable Payment Applications screen.
D. A batch of transactions is created in the General Ledger that debits the bank account and
credits the AR Holding account.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
When is a new entry created for an account in the Daily Cash Balances screen?
A. A record is created for each transaction date for each account.
B. Whenever the General Ledger Posting process is run.
C. A record is created for each transaction, regardless of the date, for each account.
D. Whenever the Cash Manger Integrity Check Process is run.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of the following transactions would be included in the Daily Cash Balance Inquiry screen for an account?
A. A batch of cash receipts entered and released to the customers in Accounts Receivable
B. A batch of Accounts Payable checks on Hold
C. A batch of General Ledger transactions that has already updated General Ledger balances
(assuming the Accept Updates from General Ledger Transactions option is checked for the
cash account)
D. A Cash Account Transfer batch that has been Released
Answer: A, C, D
Question 6.
What happens if the Generate Consolidation process is executed more than one time for a given fiscal period?
A. Nothing.
B. The entire balance of the accounts is consolidated again.
C. A new file is created containing only the amounts entered since the previous consolidation was
calculated and processed.
D. The process can only be run one time.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A deposit to be entered contains several items that need to be coded to different income accounts, but the deposit total is the amount that will appear on the bank statement.
Which of the following should be done in the Cash Account Transaction screen to accomplish this?
A. Choose “By Detail” for the Reconciliation Mode.
B. Choose “By Batch” for the Reconciliation Mode.
C. Enter each item as a separate line with the designated account in the transaction section of
the screen.
D. Enter a transaction line for the entire deposit amount as well as a transaction line for each
individual amount.
Answer: B, C
Question 8.
When is the “Accept Updates from GL Transactions” option not available for a particular account in the Cash Account Maintenance screen?
A. The field is never available in this screen.
B. When the “Accept Updates from GL Transactions” option in the CA Setup screen has not been
checked.
C. When the “Show GL Bank Reconciliation Information” option in the CA Setup screen is
checked.
D. After the first Initializing entry has been made for the account.
Answer: B
Question 9.
When do Cash Flow items entered in the Cash Flow Item Maintenance screen update actual Cash Manager and General Ledger account balances?
A. As soon as an item is entered
B. When the Cash Flow Item batch is released
C. When the Cash Flow Projection Report is run
D. They never update actual balances
Answer: D
Question 10.
The option to Accept Updates from General Ledger Transactions in the Cash Manager Setup screen is checked, but transactions entered in General Ledger are not updating Cash Manager.
Which of the following could be the cause?
A. The option Post Batches on Release in the General Ledger Setup screen is disabled.
B. The General Ledger Posting Option in the Cash Manager Setup screen is set to Summary.
C. The Cash Manager Integrity Check process needs to be run.
D. The option Accept Updates form General Ledger Transactions in the Cash Account
Maintenance screen is not checked for the cash account of the transactions.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys uses EIGRP as the primary routing protocol in their network.
How does EIGRP advertise subnet masks for each destination network?
A. EIGRP advertises a fixed length subnet mask for each destination network.
B. EIGRP advertises only a classful subnet mask for each destination network.
C. EIGRP, like IGRP and RIP, does not advertise a subnet mask for each destination network.
D. EIGRP advertises a prefix length for each destination network.
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco-proprietary routing protocol based on IGRP. Unlike IGRP, which is a classful routing protocol, EIGRP supports CIDR, allowing network designers to maximize address space by using CIDR and VLSM. Compared to IGRP, EIGRP boasts faster convergence times, improved scalability, and superior handling of routing loops. The prefix length field signifies the subnet mask to be associated with the network number specified in the destination field.
Thus, if an EIGRP router is configured as follows:
1. ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 it will advertise 172.16.1.0 with a prefix length of 24.
Likewise, if the router is configured as follows:
1. ip address 172.16.250.1 255.255.255.252 it will advertise 172.16.250.0 with a prefix length of
30.
Question 2.
The ITCertKeys network uses EIGRP. Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible successors? (Select three)
A. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised distance.
B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of best
route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately
without recalculating for a lost route.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
E. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a non-successor
route to the feasible distance of the best route.
Answer: B, C, E
Explanation:
Once a neighbor relationship has been formed, called an Adjacency, the routers exchange routing update information and each router builds its own topology table. The Updates contain all the routes known by the sender. For each route, the receiving router calculates a distance for that route based on the distance that is conveyed and the cost to that neighbor that advertised the particular route. If the receiving router sees several routes to a particular network with different metrics, then the route with the lowest metric becomes the Feasible Distance (FD) to that network. The Feasible Distance is the metric of a network advertised by the connected neighbor plus the cost of reaching that neighbor. This path with the best metric is entered into the routing table because this is the quickest way to get to that network. With the other possible routes to a particular network with larger metrics, the receiving router also receives the Reported Distance (RD) to this network via other routers. The Reported Distance being the total metric along a path to a destination network as advertised by an upstream neighbor. The Reported Distance for a particular route is compared with the Feasible Distance that it already has for that route.
If the Reported Distance is larger than the Feasible Distance then this route is not entered into the Topology Table as a Feasible Successor. This prevents loops from occurring. If the Reported Distance is smaller than the Feasible Distance, then this path is considered to be a Feasible Successor and is entered into the Topology table. The Successor for a particular route is the neighbor/peer with the lowest metric/distance to that network. If the receiving router has a Feasible Distance to a particular network and it receives an update from a neighbor with a lower advertised distance (Reported Distance) to that network, then there is a Feasibility Condition. In this instance, the neighbor becomes a Feasible Successor for that route because it is one hop closer to the destination network.
There may be a number of Feasible Successors in a meshed network environment, up to 6 of them are entered into the Topology table thereby giving a number of next hop choices for the local router should the neighbor with the lowest metric fail. What you should note here, is that the metric for a neighbor to reach a particular network (i.e. the Reported Distance) must always be less than the metric (Feasible Distance) for the local router to reach that same network. This way routing loops are avoided. This is why routes that have Reported Distances larger than the Feasible Distance are not entered into the Topology table, so that they can never be considered as successors, since the route is likely to loop back through that local router.
Incorrect Answers:
D: The feasible successors are found in the topology table, but not the active routing table.
E: With EIGRP, traffic is load balanced across equal cost links in the routing table, but not
between feasible successors.
Reference: http://www.rhyshaden.com/eigrp.htm
Question 3.
Two ITCertKeys EIGRP routers are attempting to establish themselves as neighbors.
Which EIGRP multicast packet type is responsible for neighbor discovery?
A. Update
B. Query
C. Acknowledgment
D. Reply
E. Hello
F. None of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
Remember that simple distance vector routers do not establish any relationship with their neighbors. RIP and IGRP routers merely broadcast or multicast updates on configured interfaces. In contrast, EIGRP routers actively establish relationships with their neighbors, much the same way that OSPF routers do. EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable.
By forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
3. Rediscover routers that had previously been unreachable
Question 4.
ITCertKeys has chosen to use EIGRP for their network routing protocol.
Which three statements are true regarding EIGRP? (Select three)
A. By default, EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm to determine the best path to a destination
network based on bandwidth and delay.
B. To speed convergence, EIGRP attempts to maintain a successor and feasible successor path
for each destination.
C. EIGRP uses hellos to establish neighbor relationships.
D. By default, EIGRP performs auto-summarization across classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP uses an area hierarchy to increase network scalability.
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable.
By forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
3. Rediscover routers that had previously been unreachable
EIGRP routers keep route and topology information readily available in RAM so they can react quickly to changes. Like OSPF, EIGRP keeps this information in several tables, or databases.
* Successor - A successor is a route selected as the primary route to use to reach a destination. Successors are the entries kept in the routing table. Multiple successors for a destination can be retained in the routing table.
* Feasible successor - A feasible successor is a backup route. These routes are selected at the same time the successors are identified, but are kept in the topology table. Multiple feasible successors for a destination can be retained in the topology table. EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible In the presence of discontinuous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for routing to work properly.
To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
Question 5.
You need to configure EIGRP on all routers within the ITCertKeys network.
Which two statements are characteristics of the routing protocol EIGRP? (Select two)
A. Updates are sent as broadcast.
B. Updates are sent as multicast.
C. LSAs are sent to adjacent neighbors.
D. Metric values are represented in a 32-bit format for granularity.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable.
By forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
3. Rediscover routers that had previously been unreachable
Question 6.
You have been tasked with setting up summarization in the ITCertKeys EIGRP network.
Which two statements are true about EIGRP manual summarization? (Select two)
A. Manual summarization is configured on a per interface basis.
B. When manual summarization is configured, auto-summarization is automatically disabled by
default.
C. The summary address is assigned an administrative distance of 10 by default.
D. Manual summaries can be configured with the classful mask only.
E. The summary address is entered into the routing table and is shown to be sourced from the
Null0 interface.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for routing to work properly.
To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address.
Manual summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip summary-address eigrp command, which has the following syntax:
Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp autonomous-system-number
ip-address mask administrative-distance
D 2.1.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:00:22, Null0
Notice that the summary route is sourced from Null0, and not an actual interface.
Question 7.
Router IT1 4 is configured as an EIGRP stub router.
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Select three)
A. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
B. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
C. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
D. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
E. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
F. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router.
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message "inaccessible." A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router.
More on:
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios120/120newft/120limit/120s/120s15/eigrpstb.
Question 8.
You want to reduce the amount of EIGRP traffic across low speed links in the ITCertKeys network.
Which is the most effective technique to contain EIGRP queries?
A. Using a hierarchical addressing scheme
B. Configuring route filters
C. Establishing separate autonomous systems
D. Route summarization
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for routing to work properly.
To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address. Manual summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip summary-address eigrp command, which has the following syntax:
Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp autonomous-system-number ip-address mask administrative-distance
Question 9.
Routers IT1 and IT2 have formed an EIGRP neighbor relationship. In order for two routers to become EIGRP neighbors, which two values must match? (Select two)
A. K values
B. Delay
C. Autonomous system
D. Hello time
E. Hold time
F. Bandwidth
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Despite being compatible with IGRP, EIGRP uses a different metric calculation and hop-count limitation. EIGRP scales the IGRP metric by a factor of 256. That is because EIGRP uses a metric that is 32-bits long, and IGRP uses a 24-bit metric. By multiplying or dividing by 256, EIGRP can easily exchange information with IGRP. EIGRP also imposes a maximum hop limit of 224, which is slightly less than the 255 limit for IGRP. However, this is more than enough to support most of the largest internetworks. To become the neighbor K value should be matched and should belongs to same AS.
Question 10.
ITCertKeys uses EIGRP as their internal routing protocol. Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Select three)
A. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
B. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
C. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the
network.
D. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
E. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for routing to work properly.
To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address. Manual summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip
summary-address eigrp command, which has the following syntax:
Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp autonomous-system-number
ip-address mask administrative-distance
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Question 1. Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from the transmitter? A. The gain is higher. B. The amplitude is lower. C. The amplitude is higher. D. The delay spread increases. Answer: B Question 2. Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.) A. The coverage area is larger. B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna. C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated. D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range. Answer: C, D Question 3. Which type is ambient RF background noise? A. wideband B. sideband C. edgeband D. narrowband Answer: A Question 4. What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern? A. broadband B. directional C. omni-directional D. multi-directional Answer: C Question 5. What is multipathing? A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with Answer: A Question 6. What is FHSS? A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum B. Frequency Hash Streaming System C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence Answer: C Question 7. Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.) A. require smaller antenna radiators B. have an inherent high level of diversity C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions Answer: C, D Question 8. What is DSSS? A. Digital Signal Stream System B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum D. Designated System Spread Spectrum Answer: B Question 9. Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a workstation and its peripherals? A. Wide Area Network (WAN) B. Local Area Network (LAN) C. Personal Area Network (PAN) D. Satellite Area Network (SAN) Answer: C Question 10. What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems? A. 1 MHz B. 2 MHz C. 11 MHz D. 22 MHz Answer: A
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com would like to configure a virtual Ethernet between an AIX V5.3 LPAR and an AIX V5.2 LPAR.
Which of the following options is necessary to complete this task?
A. Remove the physical Ethernet adapters from the LPARs
B. Activate Advanced POWER Virtualization
C. Update microcode for the virtual adapters
D. Upgrade AIX V5.2 LPAR to AIX V5.3
Answer: D
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com wants to change the resource allocation for their AIX 5L V5.3 micro LPAR system.
What is the smallest processor allocation than can be moved between partitions?
A. A full processor
B. 1% of a processor
C. 10% of a processor
D. 25% of a processor
Answer: B
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com has a p5-570 with an application running on each of three Micro-Partitions. The disk I/O is shared through a VIO server. A technical specialist has been asked to upgrade the VIO server.
Which of the following procedures should be taken to maintain the integrity of the partitions?
A. Shut down all client partitions before updating the VIO server.
B. Disconnect the client partitions from any IP networks before updating the VIO server.
C. Update the client partitions to the latest OS maintenance level before updating the VIO server.
D. Update the VIO server while the partitions are running, but reboot each client partition at a
convenient time after the update.
Answer: A
Question 4.
A technical specialist defined a virtual Ethernet ent2 on the VIO server that has a physical adapter, ent0.
Which of the following commands should be used to configure the Shared Ethernet Adapter?
A. mkvdev -sea ent2 -vadapter ent0 -default ent0 -defaultid 1
B. mkdev -virtual ent0 -adapter ent3 -default en2 -defaultid 1
C. mkvdev -sea ent0 -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaultid 1
D. mkvdev ent0 -sea -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaultid 1
Answer: C
Question 5.
When planning for a logically partitioned system, which of the following should be used as part of a review to ensure that each partition has the required resources?
A. Use the Workload Estimator capacity planning tool.
B. Use prtconf output from legacy systems.
C. Use the LPAR Validation Tool.
D. Use Performance Management Services.
Answer: C
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com recently experienced an unanticipated system outage when the VIO server was upgraded. The current p5-570 has six Micro-Partitions and a VIO server partition.
How can a similar outage be avoided in the future?
A. Use DLPAR to avoid an outage.
B. Deploy a redundant VIO server in the POWER5 system.
C. Add additional Host Bus Adapters and Network adapters to the VIO server.
D. Implement a standby server and move all partitions to it before applying future updates.
Answer: B
Question 7.
When creating a virtual Ethernet adapter on the HMC for a VIO server, what is the advantage of checking the box to access external network (trunk)?
A. Allows the creation of a shared Ethernet adapter
B. Allows the use of VLANs
C. Allows the consolidation of multiple networks on one adapter
D. Allows EtherChannel load balancing
Answer: A
Question 8.
A technical specialist has installed a Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on a p5-550 server. The system has four AIX 5L V5.3 partitions and a Virtual I/O server. The HBA will be used to connect all four partitions to a DS8000 storage array.
What else must be performed to make the storage available to the partitions?
A. Allocate the HBA to a client partition.
B. Restart the Virtual I/O Server to detect the changes.
C. Install the device driver for the DS8000 in each of the four AIX partitions.
D. Allocate the HBA to the VIO server partition and install necessary drivers.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which feature of the IBM p5 servers enables customers to be confident that data within two distinct partitions on the server will be isolated?
A. POWER Hypervisor
B. Virtual LAN
C. POWER5 processor
D. Redundant Power and Cooling
Answer: A
Question 10.
ITCertKeys.com wants to reassign a host bus adapter (HBA) from one partition to another to handle increased I/O workload on that partition.
What needs to be done to dynamically move the card?
A. Use the rmdev command to remove the card from the current partition before doing the
DLPAR process.
B. Take the source partition down and do the DLPAR function on the target partition.
C. Assign the card to the required section of the target partition and run cfgmgr.
D. Dynamically remove the card from the source and add to target profile then reactivate the
target profile.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
A new view has been created in a consumer direct store in the development environment, It is now ready to be tested in the development environment. The JSP file for the page has been created and placed in the proper directory, the struts configuration has been updated correctly, and the struts registry has been refreshed. When the correct URL is entered for the view in the web browser, an exception is thrown and the view is not displayed.
What step was missed above and the likely cause of this error?
A. The cache registry was not refreshed.
B. An access control policy for the view needs to be loaded using the Organization Admin
Console.
C. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using acpload.bat.
D. An access control policy for the view needs to be created and loaded using the WebSphere
Administration Console.
Answer: C
Question 2.
The recommended method for retrieving and displaying error messages passed to a view from a controller command is to use a:
A. StoreErrorDatasean
B. ResourceBundle
C. TypedProperty exception data
D. errorview name
Answer: A
Question 3.
Dynamic caching is enabled in WebSphere Application Server and some JSP fragments are being displayed twice when the cached page is served.
How should this be prevented?
A. Ensure that true is equal to true for the
fragment in the cache configuration file.
B. Set flush=true on every in the file to be cached.
C. Surround all tags with <% out.flush(); %>.
D. Use static includes for fragments.
Answer: C
Question 4.
A developer wants to display product prices in more than one currency.
How can the developer enable dual display of currencies?
A. Update the COUNTERVALUECURR field of the CURCVLIST table to the value currency that
is needed to be displayed.
B. Update the CURRSTR field of the CURLIST table to the value currency that is needed to be
displayed.
C. Use an e-marketing spot in the jsp to display pricing in more than one currency.
D. Use the price range feature of Accelerator to set up dual currency pricing.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What are the two key elements when defining a view in the struts configuration file?
A. access-mappings
B. action-mappings
C. global-forwards
D. global-mappings
E. view-mappings
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
What task must be accomplished before custom store pages can be cached using WebSphere Application Server dynacache?
A. Add custom tags to each page.
B. Add entries to cache configuration file.
C. Install the Cache Monitor.
D. Pre-compile the JSPs.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A developer wants to customize the Struts configuration tile to support form field validation.
What needs to be enabled to make the Store Struts application aware of the Validator framework?
A. CustomPlugin
B. ValidatorPlugln
C. FormValidationPlugin
D. DefaultValidationPlugin
Answer: B
Question 8.
A storefront is using the Struts declarative exception handling framework. The appropriate method for defining the text of error messages, used by the Struts framework, is to create a new:
A. global-forwards
B. action-mappings
C. message-resources
D. global-exceptions
Answer: C
Question 9.
A developer has added a new feature to the Flow Repository. How will the new feature in the jsp be referenced?
A. By using the tag
B. By using the and tags
C. By using the tag
D. By using the tag
Answer: B
Question 10.
An enterprise (seller) wishes to create stores that can be targeted to each of the product brands it sells, so that each site can have its own look and feel, shopping flow, and marketing strategy. Some of the assets will be shared across the different stores.
What is the most appropriate business model that should be used to support this site?
A. Consumer Direct
B. Extended Sites
C. Demand Chain
D. Supply Chain
E. B2B Direct
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A cluster member has suddenly crashed. The administrator is concerned about aborted transactions holding locks in the database.
What can an administrator do to release the locks?
A. Unmount the shared file system such as a Network Attached Storage (NAS) where the
transaction log is stored
B. Restart the deployment manager and node agents who manage the transaction log
C. Verify another running cluster member has access to the transaction log
D. Reconnect the database where the transaction log is stored
Answer: C
Question 2.
What functionality does the Caching Proxy server provide?
A. Reverse proxy and content-based routing
B. Dynamic content caching and integration with servlet caching
C. File serving enabler
D. HTTP compression
E. Integration with Dynacache and third party object caches
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
What is needed to load balance the HTTP traffic across a cluster of Web servers?
A. Configure a proxy server such as Tivoli Access Manager (TAM)
B. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the WebSphere Edge
D. Use an IP sprayer from the load balancing component of the WebSphere Edge Components
Answer: D
Question 4.
What does a WebSphere application server provide to support the installation and deployment of JSR 168 compliant portlets?
A. An embedded portlet container
B. A scaled-down version of the WebSphere Portal Server
C. Several J2EE applications that render and aggregate portlets in a browser
D. An embedded version of WebSphere Portal Express
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two components provide workload management capabilities?
A. Node agent
B. Web server plug-in
C. Caching proxy
D. Deployment manager
E. Load balancer
Answer: B, E
Question 6.
Which services are implemented by the WebSphere application server?
A. Security, JMS messaging, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
B. The user registry, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
C. HTTP Load Balancing service, JMS messaging and Data Replication Service (DRS)
D. Security, Naming, Transaction and Dynamic Cache
Answer: D
Question 7.
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servlets are packaged in which type of archive file?
A. SAR
B. WAR
C. JAR
D. EJB-JAR
E. SIP-JAR
Answer: A
Question 8.
In a WebSphere cell configuration, which component is a single point of failure?
A. Deployment manager
B. Web container
C. EJB container
D. HTTP server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which approach should be recommended when designing a production topology for WebSphere application servers providing high availability and failover capabilities?
A. Create a design using multiple machines that handle the full production load, enabling the use
of application server clustering to provide failover capabilities
B. Utilize load balancers between the Web servers and the application servers to provide failover
support at the application server tier
C. Place the Authentication servers outside of the intrusion firewall with the Web servers, since
the Web servers will need to access them
D. Use the largest processor engines and least number of physical machines for the application
server tier, to minimize the software licensing costs
Answer: A
Question 10.
If an administrator configures session management for an application server to use SSL ID tracking, which two other session tracking mechanisms should also be enabled?
A. Cookies
B. URL Rewriting
C. Security Integration
D. Serial Access
E. Java2 Security
Answer: A, B
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Question 1. The administrator executed the following wpsconfig command to create a wps database in DB2. WPSconfig create-wps-db-DDbPassword=Why did the administrator specify the password property on the command line? A. For security reasons, passwords should not be stored in the wpconfig.properties file. Password can be provided on the command line when executing the configuration task. B. For security reasons, the -D prefix of the password property will delete the password in wpconfig properties file after executing the configuration task. C. For security reasons, the command line password is used to verify against the password set in the wpconfig.properties file. D. For security reasons, DB2 server will not use the password directly from the command line to its servers. Answer: A Question 2. After installing a Portlet Application to a Portal Cluster, an administrator sees the following message. "Portlets were successfully installed, but could not be activated at this time. Please manually activate the portlet application in the Manage Applications portlet" Which of the following BEST describes the reason for this message? A. The portlets could not be activated because the cluster nodes need to be stopped when deploying portlets B. Portal cannot guarantee that the portlet has been synchronized to each clustered node, so it does not automatically activate it. C. This message occurs because there are two or more clustered Portal Servers on the same node, and they are not all stopped. D. The DeploymentService.properties file has not been updated with the cluster name. Answer: B Question 3. A user reports getting the following message on the login page: "Login failed.Please specify a valid ID and password." Which of the following is the MOST probable cause? A. WebShere Portal has public session enabled B. WebSphere Application Server does not have global security enabled C. The user was enrolled with the wrong suffix in the LDAP directory D. There is time synchronization problem between the user's login machine and the LDAP server Answer: C Question 4. Which of the following files contains the output generated by enabling WebSphere Portal v5.1? A. /log/SystemOut_ log B. /log/wps_ log C. /log/SystemErr.log D. /log/native_stdout_ log Answer: B Question 5. When problems occur in the production environment, the administrator should review and inspect logs to detect the source of the problem. What should the administrator do once a problem has been detected and more information is needed to further investigate? A. By default, detailed WebSphere Portal information is captured in the activity.log.No further tracing is required B. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal to capture messages and trace information in wps Trace.log C. Enable tracing for WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information will be captured in SystemErr.log D. Enable WebSphere Portal trace through the AdminConsole and error information will be captured in SystemErr.log Answer: C Question 6. Consider the following error from the WebSphere Portal run-time log: 2003.05.16 13:36:14.449 w Com.ibm.wps.services.database.DataStoreServiceimplInit DSTO0063W. The transaction isolation level is not set to READ_COMMITTED. What does DSTO0063W refer to in this error message? A. The logmessage describing the logged event. B. The classification of the type of message or traces C. The messaecode that uniquely identifies the specific message D. The name of the Java method containing the code that triggered the log event Answer: C Question 7. After adding WebSphere Portal to the cluster, the administrator accesses Portal using http:// /wps/portal and receives error page not found on the browser". Which of the following actions should the administrator perform to begin troubleshooting this error? A. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the WebSphere Portal nodes to the deployment manager and the nodes have been synchronized. B. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been copied over from the IBM HTTP Server to all WebSphere Portal nodes have been synchronized. C. Check that the web server host name has been added to the virtual host for the WebSphere Portal cluster and the nodes have been synchronized. D. Check that plugin-cfg xml has been regenerated,copied to the IBM HTTP Server,and the IBM HTTP Server has been restarted Answer: D Question 8. An administrator has added the Reminder portlet to the publically accessible Welcome page so that all users will see this reminder in their virtual portal Welcome page as well. However, all virtual portal users claimed that they cannot see the Reminder portlet. Which of the following BEST describes what happened? A. The administrator did not restart WebSphere_Portal server to propagate the changes to all virtual portal Welcome Page. B. The Reminder portlet needs to be added to each virtual Welcome page manually C. The Reminder portlet was not installed on the virtual portal. D. Users have not been assigned with VIEW access to the Reminder portlet. Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following properties files are used by migration tasks during WebSphere Portal migration? A. AccessControlConfigService.properties and ConfigService properties B. migratePortalCore.properties and migrateConfigService.properties C. PumaService.properties and Deployment Service.properties D. Mig_core properties and mig_wmm.properties Answer: D Question 10. After executing the following releaseBuilder command: Releasebuilder .sh-InOld stagingserver_Release1_config.xml –InNew stagingServer_Release2_config.xml -out outputfile.xml What should the administrator do with the output file? A. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is used to analyze consistency in the production server. B. The outputfile.xml which contains the differences between release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is then used to import these differences onto the production server. C. The outputfile.xml which contains the checklist from both release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is used as a reference before deploying the release onto the production server. D. The outputfile.xml which contains the error messages from running the releasebuilder between release 1 and release 2 of the staging portal is used to used as a reference to eliminate problems before releasing to the production server. Answer: B
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Question 1.
A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution.
What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any
additional time."
D. "We are on oldertechnology. I know that getting upto date will help us improve on our
customer satisfaction."
Answer: B
Question 3.
A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9.
Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C
Question 4.
A Syslem z competitor has announced their potential entry into the main? lame market. It Rather claims that thew system can run z/OS.
What should the sales rep male sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system wIll also run zNM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines,
subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonslrabd to run on Designated Machines.
subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C
Question 5.
A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows.
Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power
capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a
full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to
the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C
Question 7.
A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements.
Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C
Question 8.
A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment.
Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A
Question 9.
A universally physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously.
Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and
decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all
vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet pertormance needs at the best price and
consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B
Question 10.
A new ClO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure.
Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B
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