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Question 1
A MetaFrame Presentation Server farm_s data store contains several types of _persistent_ information about the farm.
Which of the following options are not included about the farm ? (Choose Two)
A. License file
B. User profiles
C. Administrator accounts
D. Printer drivers and mapping
E. Published application configuration
Answer: A, B
Question 2
To perform an unattended installation of MetaFrame Presentation Server, and
administrator may create an _answer file_.
What is the format of this an _answer file_?
A. It is an .EXE file.
B. It is a .TXT file.
C. It is a hyperlink.
D. It is a shortcut to a .MST _transform.file_ .
Answer: B
Question 3
The communication between Web interface and the server
running MetaFrame Presentation Server is secured by a?
A. Firewall
B. Digital certificate
C. IPSec
D. SSL Relay
Answer: D
Question 4
Which of the following are unnecessary steps that an administrator
must consider in deciding a database kind for farm data store? (Choose Two)
A. Number of zones in the farm.
B. Number of servers in the farm.
C. Number of applications in the farm.
D. Number of named users in the farm.
E. Number of connection licenses in the farm.
Answer: A, E
Question 5
During the creation of a new farm, a farm name was defined. How can the farm name be changed after the creation of a farm?
A. Add a server with a new zone name to the farm and configure it to become the data
collector.
B. Under the Farm tab in the Servers node, right-click the Farm to be renamed and select
_Rename Farm_.
C. In the Farm section of the farm properties, highlight the Farm to be renamed and
select _Rename Farm_.
D. Farm names cannot be changed once they are created.
E. A new farm must be created with the desired name and servers must be moved into
this new farm.
Answer: C
Zone Name can be changed, only the Farm Name cannot be changed.
Question 6
Which of the following Client packages do not support Session Reliability? (Choose Two)
A. MAC clients
B. UNIX clients
C. The Client for Web
D. Program Neighborhood
E. Program Neighborhood Agent
Answer: A, B
Question 7
Select the statement about ICA session shadowing that is false?
A. An administrator can shadow his own sessions.
B. An administrator can shadow a user only if a MetaFrame Client is installed on his
server.
C. An administrator can control the user session_s mouse and keyboard in a shadowing
session.
D. An administrator must enable shadowing during the installation of MetaFrame
Presentation Server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which of the following Windows OS is required to deploy the MetaFrame Presentation Server Client for Win32?
A. Windows 3.1
B. Windows NT 3.51
C. Windows 95
D. Microsoft Windows 98 or later
Answer: D
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Question 1.
What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
Answer: B
Question 2.
Input data exhibit;
Outline Exhibit:
Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: A, B, D
Question 3.
Given that product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
Answer: C
Question 4.
Exhibit:
Given the outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions,what is the incremental restructing implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimesion?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructing and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
Answer: D
Question 5.
If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
Answer: B
Question 6.
When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%)
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values
exist
C. When the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating
values
Answer: B
Question 7.
Exhibit
In the outline in the exhibit, Year and Measure are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
Answer: A
Question 8.
During calculation,what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D
Question 9.
Exhibit:
Given the following database statistics, what is the block size?
A. 192 bytes
B. 1536 bytes
C. 1600 bytes
D. 12800 bytes
Answer: B
Question 10.
If committed Access is being used, which statements are true?
A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction
C. It retain Write locks on all afected blocks until the transaction commits
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction
Answer: A, C
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Question 1.
Given the code in the exhibit.
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. An instance of Forest is serialized.
D. An instance of Forest and an instance of Tree are both serialized.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which code, inserted ay line 14, will allow this class to correctly serialized and desterilize?
A. S. default ReadObject ( );
B. This = s.defaultReadObject ( );
C. Y = s. default ( ) ; x = s.readInt ( );
D. X = s. readInt; y = s. readInt ( );
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given the exhibit.
What is the result?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 4
D. Compilation fails
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Answer: D
Question 4.
Given the exhibit:
The variable df is an object of type Date Format that has been initialized in line 11.
What is the result if this code is run on December 14,2000?
A. The value of S is 14 - dic-2004
B. The value of S is Dec 14, 2000
C. An exception is thrown at runtime
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
Answer: D
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
The does File Exist method takes an array of directory names representing a path from the root file system and a file name. The method returns true if the file exists, fast if does not.
Place the code fragments in position to complete this method.
Answer:
Explanation:
Example code:
import java.io.*;
public class test2 {
public static void main(String []a){
test2 t = new test2();
String []d = new String[2];
d[0] = "C:";
System.out.println(t.doesFileExist(d,"test"));
}
public boolean doesFileExist(String []directories,String
filename){
String path = "";
for(String dir: directories){
path = path +File.separator+dir;
//path = path.getSubdirectory(dir);
}
System.out.println(path);
File file = new File(path,filename);
return file.exists();
}}
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Given:
System.out.printf("Pi is approximately %f and E is approximately %b", Math.PI, Math.E);
Place the values where they would appear in the output.
Answer:
Question 7.
When comparing java. Io. Buffered Writer to java.io.File Writer, which capability exist as a method in only one of the two?
A. closing the stream
B. flushing the stream
C. writing to the stream
D. marking a location in the stream
E. writing a line separator to the stream
Answer: E
Question 8.
Given the exhibit:
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 3, generate the output 4247? (choose two)
A. String s = "123456789"
S. = (s-"123").replace (1,3, "24") - "89";
B. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer ("123456789");
S.delete (0,3) replace(1,3,"24"). Delete (4,6)
C. StringBuffer s = new StringBuffer ("123456789");
S.substring (3,6).delete(1,3). insert (1, "24").
D. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder ("123456789");
S.substring (3,6) delete (1,2). insert (1, "24")
E. StringBuilder s = new StringBuilder ("123456789");
S.delete (0,3) replace(1,3,). Delete (2,5) insert (1, "24")
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which three statements concerning the use of the java . io. Realizable interface are true? (choose three)
A. Object from classes that use aggregation cannot be serialized.
B. An object serialized on one JVM can be successfully desterilized on a different JVM.
C. The values in fields with the Volatile modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization
D. The values in field with the transient modifier will NOT survive serialization and deserialization
E. It is legal to serialize an object of a type that has a supertype that does NOT implement java
.io.Serialization
Answer: B, D, E
Question 10.
Given the exhibit:
What is the result?
A. short Long
B. SHORT LONG
C. Compilation fails
D. An exception is thrown at runtime
Answer: C
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Question 1. ITCertKeys.com has installed a new disk drive in the upper left slot of their Sun Fire V240 (disk 2). They are unable to see the disk from the operating system. How can you make the disk visible to Solaris? A. Reseat the drive and reboot after power down. B. Run format at the operating system level. C. Perform a boot -av to see if the system recognises the disk. D. Use boot -r to reconfigure the system. Answer: D Question 2. ITCertKeys.com requires highly available access to their data. They want to gain the performance benefits offered by RAID 0 and the availability benefits by RAID 1. You recommend using Solaris Volume Manager to create a RAID 0+1 volume. How should you accomplish this? A. Create a RAID 0+1 structure in which all stripe components are identical. B. Create a RAID 5 and then run metaset -A. C. Run the metaset command. D. Edit the /kernel/drv/md.conf file. Answer: A Question 3. After replacing a failed external disk on a Sun Fire E4900, you are performing a disk format test, and the customer would like to keep the data. What test can you run that will preserve the data? A. verify B. write C. refresh D. compare Answer: C Question 4. A Sun Fire 6800 using MPxIO has two paths connected to a Sun StorEdge 6320. What command should you run to determine if the state is Online and Primary? A. luxadm listB. luxadm show C. luxadm display D. luxadm probe Answer: C Question 5. ITCertKeys.com has installed and configured a new Ethernet PCI card in a Sun Fire V880, but reports that it is not working. What Solaris OS command should you recommend the customer use to verify the setup of the new card? A. ipconfig B. test-all C. ifconfig D. watch-net E. netconnect Answer: C Question 6. ITCertKeys.com firewall is blocking ssh logon access to a newly installed desktop server. What port(s) need to be opened on the firewall to allow ssh traffic on the default port(s)? A. 443 B. 22 and 23 C. 20 and 21 D. 22 Answer: D Question 7. PTS requests the status of the LEDs of the event monitoring unit (EMU) in order to troubleshoot a failure on a StorEdge 3310 Array. The LED status is: Click the Exhibit button. Which letter designates the location of the EMU? A. D B. A C. B D. C Answer: A Question 8. A Sun Blade 150 has been moved to another part of the building and now the following error message is displayed at boot: Can't stat /dev/rdsk/c2t4d0s0 CAN'T CHECK FILESYSTEM Unexpected inconsistency ; RUN fsck MANUALLY Unable to repair one or more filesystems The system remains in single user mode and will not fsck manually. What should you do to repair this problem? A. Replace the disk with a known good one. B. Run fsck -y /dev/rdsk/c2t4d0s0 to cure the problem. C. Check /etc/vfstab to see if the disk is mounted automatically. D. Check that the disk is powered on and cabled correctly. Answer: D Question 9. You want to mount a filesystem provided by an NFS server (hostname server). This will allow the project managers to access the project filesystem (/projects). What file should you edit on the client, and what entry should you make to ensure it is mounted every time the system is booted? A. /etc/vfstab server:/projects - /projects nfs - yes - B. /etc/dfs/dfstab share -F nfs /projects C. /etc/dfs/dfstab dfshare -F nfs /projects D. /etc/vfstab share -F nfs /projects Answer: A Question 10. You are performing the initial installation configuration on a Sun StorEdge T3+ array. What command serves to define the network parameters necessary for the installation? A. fru B. sys C. set D. lpc Answer: C
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Question 1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The biggest benefit of using switches instead of hubs in your internetwork is that each switch port is actually its own collision domain. (Conversely, a hub creates one large collision domain.) But even armed with a switch, you still can't break up broadcast domains. Neither switches nor bridges will do that. They'll typically simply forward all broadcasts instead. Switch creates the collision domain per port, so we can say switch increase the number of collision domains.
Question 2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?
A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a
network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN.
Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice,
switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to
them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.
Question 3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each
frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.
Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports
than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic
remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating
additional, smaller collision domains.
Question 4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.
Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers
do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can
not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment.
D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default.
Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the
router level.
Question 5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeysCorporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.
Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.
Question 6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space.
What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)
A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.
Question 7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN.
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Answer: B, E, F
Question 8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use.
Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with very low latency rates. Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both operates on Data link layer.
Question 9.
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network.
What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)
A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.
Question 10.
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network.
What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)
A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.
You can use:
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp neighbor details
Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
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Question 1.
Switches ITK1 and ITK2 are connected as shown below:
Study the Exhibit carefully. Which ports could safely be configured with Port Fast? (Choose two)
A. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/2
B. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/2
C. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/3
D. Switch ITK2 - port Fa1/3
E. Switch ITK1 - port Fa1/1
F. None of the ports should use port fast
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Using Port Fast:
1. Immediately brings an interface configured as an access or trunk port to the forwarding state from a blocking state, bypassing the listening and learning states
2. Normally used for single server/workstation can be enabled on a trunk
So, Port fast can only be enabled to a switch port attaching to workstation or a server.
Reference: http://www.911networks.com/node/273
Question 2,
You need to configure two ITCertKeys switches to exchange VLAN information.
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between these two switches?
A. STP
B. 802.1Q
C. VLSM
D. ISL
E. VTP
F. HSRP
G. None of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is a Cisco proprietary Layer 2 messaging protocol that manages the addition, deletion, and renaming of VLANs on a network-wide basis. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. To do this VTP carries VLAN information to all the switches in a VTP domain. VTP advertisements can be sent over ISL, 802.1q, IEEE 802.10 and LANE trunks. VTP traffic is sent over the management VLAN (VLAN1), so all VLAN trunks must be configured to pass VLAN1. VTP is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst Family products.
Question 3.
ITCertKeys has implemented the use of the Virtual Trunking Protocol (VTP).
Which statement below accurately describes a benefit of doing this?
A. VTP will allow physically redundant links while preventing switching loops
B. VTP will allow switches to share VLAN configuration information
C. VTP will allow a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN
D. VTP will allow for routing between VLANs
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Question 4.
Two ITCertKeys switches are connected together as shown in the diagram below:
Exhibit:
Based on the information shown above, what will be the result of issuing the following commands:
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30
A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to
the Switch2 VLAN database.
B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to
the Switch2 VLAN database.
C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on
as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on
as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.
E. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
The three VTP modes are described below:
Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be advertised to the entire VTP domain.
Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive updates, but they can't make any changes. Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN.
Here's a hint: if you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN information, then change it to a server-much easier!
Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don't participate in the VTP domain, but they'll still forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can't add and delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches. Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant.
In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other switch.
Question 5.
A ITCertKeys switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet.
What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of hosts with a common set of requirements that communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, regardless of their physical location. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical LAN, but it allows for end stations to be grouped together even if they are not located on the same LAN segment. Networks that use the campus-wide or end-to-end VLANs logically segment a switched network based on the functions of an organization, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. For example, all workstations and servers used by a particular workgroup can be connected to the same VLAN, regardless of their physical network connections or interaction with other workgroups.
Network reconfiguration can be done through software instead of physically relocating devices. Cisco recommends the use of local or geographic VLANs that segment the network based on IP subnets. Each wiring closet switch is on its own VLAN or subnet and traffic between each switch is routed by the router. The reasons for the Distribution Layer 3 switch and examples of a larger network using both the campus-wide and local VLAN models will be discussed later. A VLAN can be thought of as a broadcast domain that exists within a defined set of switches. Ports on a switch can be grouped into VLANs in order to limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic flooding. Flooded traffic originating from a particular VLAN is only flooded out ports belonging to that VLAN, including trunk ports, so a switch that connects to another switch will normally introduce an additional broadcast domain.
Question 6.
A new switch is installed in the ITCertKeys network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network.
Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply).
A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode.
B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain.
C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge.
D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version.
E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version.
F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging.
G. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks.
Answer: A, B, F, G
Explanation:
For the VLAN information to pass automatically throughout the network, VTP must be set up correctly. In order for VTP to work, a VTP server is needed, the VLAN's must be in the same VTP domain, and the encapsulation on each end of the trunk must both set to either 802.1Q or ISL.
Incorrect Answers:
C. Root bridges and other functions of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) have no impact of the VTP configuration.
D, E. There is only one version of VTP and STP.
Question 7.
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network.
What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role of the Root Bridge?
A. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.
B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
C. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex
operation.
D. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of
root bridge.
E. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
F. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
For all switches in a network to agree on a loop-free topology, a common frame of reference must exist. This reference point is called the Root Bridge. The Root Bridge is chosen by an election process among all connected switches. Each switch has a unique Bridge ID (also known as the bridge priority) that it uses to identify itself to other switches. The Bridge ID is an 8-byte value. 2 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for a Bridge Priority field, which is the priority or weight of a switch in relation to all other switches. The other 6 bytes of the Bridge ID is used for the MAC Address field, which can come from the Supervisor module, the backplane, or a pool of 1024 addresses that are assigned to every Supervisor or backplane depending on the switch model. This address is hardcoded, unique, and cannot be changed.
The election process begins with every switch sending out BPDUs with a Root Bridge ID equal to its own Bridge ID as well as a Sender Bridge ID. The latter is used to identify the source of the BPDU message. Received BPDU messages are analyzed for a lower Root Bridge ID value. If the BPDU message has a Root Bridge ID (priority) of the lower value than the switch's own Root Bridge ID, it replaces its own Root Bridge ID with the Root Bridge ID announced in the BPDU. If two Bridge Priority values are equal, then the lower MAC address takes preference.
Question 8.
Which of the protocols below, operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. RIP
B. STP
C. IGRP
D. CDP
E. VTP
F. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
STP (spanning tree protocol) operates on layer 2 to prevent loops in switches and bridges.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C. RIP and IGRP are routing protocols, which are used at layer 3 to maintain a loop free routed environment.
D. CDP does indeed operate at layer 2, but it doest not provide for a loop free topology. CDP is used by Cisco devices to discover information about their neighbors.
E. VTP is the VLAN Trunking Protocol, used to pass VLAN information through switches. It relies on the STP mechanism to provide a loop free network.
Question 9.
By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost?
A. It is the individual link cost based on latency
B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth
C. It is the total hop count
D. It is dynamically determined based on load
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
"The STP cost is an accumulated total path cost based on the available bandwidth of each of the links."
Reference: Sybex CCNA Study Guide 4th Edition (Page 323)
Note: A path cost value is given to each port. The cost is typically based on a guideline established as part of 802.1d. According to the original specification, cost is 1,000 Mbps (1 gigabit per second) divided by the bandwidth of the segment connected to the port. Therefore, a 10 Mbps connection would have a cost of (1,000/10) 100. To compensate for the speed of networks increasing beyond the gigabit range, the standard cost has been slightly modified.
The new cost values are: You should also note that the path cost can be an arbitrary value assigned by the network administrator, instead of one of the standard cost values.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: The STP process does not take into account the latency or load of a link. STP does not recalculate the link costs dynamically.
C. Hop counts are used by RIP routers to calculate the cost of a route to a destination. The STP process resides at layer 2 of the OSI model, where hop counts are not considered.
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments.
B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
E. To prevent routing loops in networks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
STP is used in LANs with redundant paths or routes to prevent loops in a layer 2 switched or bridged LAN.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: The primary purpose of STP is to prevent loops, not for monitoring or management of switches or VLANs.
D. VLANs are used to segment a LAN into multiple collision domains, but the STP process alone does not do this.
E. Routers are used to prevent routing loops at layer 3 of the OSI model. STP operates at layer 2.
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Question 1. In a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch, in which slots can the Sup2 card be installed? A. slots 1 and 2 B. slots 1 through 9 C. any slot D. slots 3 and 4 E. slots 5 and 6 Answer: E Question 2. Which two standards enable the PVDM module on the ISR to provide secure communications with IP Phones? (Choose two.) A. SRTP B. AES encryption C. MD5 hash D. IPSec E. RSA signature F. RUDP Answer: A, B Question 3. Which of these features makes a Cisco 7300 Series Router the preferred choice when hardware-accelerated IP processing is required? A. NPE-G2 network processing engine B. high-speed switching bus C. Parallel Express Forwarding (PXF) D. optimized port adapter-to-port adapter traffic flow Answer: C Question 4. You have a customer that is looking to mitigate DDOS attacks. Which two of the following Cisco security products would you recommend to meet this need? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IOS Firewall B. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector Module C. Cisco Firewall Services Module D. Cisco IPS E. Cisco ASA F. Cisco Anomaly Guard Module Answer: E, F Question 5. What queue-scheduling algorithm does the Optical Services Module PXF use to provide QoS features? A. FIFO B. Modified Deficit C. Versatile Traffic Management Services D. Weighted Round Robin Answer: C Question 6. What are the three most common transport network options for connecting a branch office network to the campus core? (Choose three.) A. radio links B. PSTN C. Internet D. MPLS VPN E. LAN F. Private WAN Answer: C, D, F Question 7. Which security feature of a Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series Switch can be used to prevent clients from acquiring an IP address from unauthorized servers? A. MAC address notification B. DHCP snooping C. port security D. 802.1X in conjunction with Cisco Secure ACS Answer: B Question 8. A small business wants to deploy IP telephony across its enterprise but lacks the expertise and staffing to plan and deploy the service. Its concerns include cost, ensuring voice quality, and time to deployment. Given only these requirements, what is the appropriate option to recommend? A. Use CBWFQ. B. Configure NBAR for stateful packet inspection. C. Configure each router to mark VoIP packets as CoS 5. D. Provision the network using AutoQoS VoIP. Answer: D Question 9. You are required to upgrade the network of a multistory branch office building to support Cisco 7970 IP Phones throughout. Given that each phone uses 15.4 W, how many phones can a Cisco Catalyst 3750 support using Cisco Intelligent Power Management in a 48-port PoE configuration? A. 8 B. 32 C. 48 D. 16 E. 24 Answer: E Question 10. In the Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch, which slots support the Supervisor Engine 720 and Supervisor Engine 32? A. slots 7 and 8 B. any slot C. slots 5 and 6 D. slots 1 and 2 E. slots 12 and 13 Answer: A
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Question 1.
When installing Cisco Unity into a Lotus Domino messaging environment, one requirement is to install at least one Cisco Unity server per Domino _____.
A. nsf group
B. domain
C. site
D. routing group
Answer: B
Question 2.
Some Cisco Unity Unified Messaging users complain that they cannot make a TRaP connection when attempting to play and record messages through their desktops.
What is a possible cause of this?
A. The Cisco Unity server does not have a sufficient number of Unified Messaging licenses.
B. These users need to have their Exchange mailboxes modified to allow access.
C. These users are not licensed for Unified Messaging.
D. A firewall separates these users from Cisco Unity.
Answer: D
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com sells wireless communications services to customers throughout the eastern United States. In 1999, ITCertKeys.com acquired a smaller wireless communications company, Snafu inc. Snafu inc provides similar services to ITCertKeys.com in the New England area. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Dulles, Virginia (3253 employees) and its branch offices are located in Richmond, Virginia (1131 employees), Baltimore (748 employees), Washington, D.C. (442 employees), Philadelphia (115 employees), and Trenton, New Jersey (26 employees). Snafu inc has its headquarters in New York City (414 employees), and its branches are in Boston (212 employees) and Providence, Rhode Island (89 employees). ITCertKeys.com will be implementing a centralized Cisco Unity deployment. When customers call an employee, the company wants to provide quick service on those directory lookups.
Which implementation does the best job of delivering the service?
A. Build multiple directory handlers that break the company population into groups arranged
alphabetically by last name; make four groups as equal as possible in size; build an
introductory call handler from the opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of the
four groups.
B. Buy a Platform Overlay 3 server with extra memory and processor speed to provide the
quickest service.
C. Build a directory handler for each office; put each subscriber in a distribution list for that office;
make that list limit the directory handler search; build an introductory call handler from the
opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of the offices.
D. Build two directory handlers: one for ITCertKeys.com, and one for Snafu inc; add subscribers
to the appropriate subscriber template and use that template to limit the directory search; build
an introductory call handler from the opening greeting that provides one-key dialing to each of
the directory handlers.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Exhibit:
Please study the exhibit carefully. Which messaging deployment model is shown?
A. clustered Exchange messaging
B. branched messaging
C. This is not a supported message deployment model.
D. distributed messaging
Answer: C
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com is concerned about security on their Cisco Unity Unified Messaging installation.
Which two steps can they take to improve security? (Choose two.)
A. Keep voice-mail messages on the box.
B. Install Cisco Security Agent for Cisco Unity.
C. Isolate Cisco Unity behind a separate firewall.
D. Install antivirus software.
E. Perform a nightly backup.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
You are designing a Cisco Unity voice-mail-only solution to allow all outside callers at any of the 14 different company offices to locate any of the 7500 users by simply spelling the name of the user via the touch-tone telephone keypad in an Automated Attendant conversation. Each office has a different voice-mail system that you will replace with the new Cisco Unity solution. Each office also has a separate telephone system.
The telephone systems come from various manufacturers. Users dial individual 10-digit phone numbers to reach each user. There is no telephone networking between offices. Many of the telephone systems will not allow conferencing and have a limited number of trunks for each office. ITCertKeys.com is not willing to change the telephone system structure at this time.
Which solution best meets ITCertKeys.com needs?
A. This can be done with VPIM, which is an industry standard that allows different telephone
systems to integrate over the Internet.
B. You can network the Cisco Unity systems together for subscriber-to-subscriber messaging, but
to fulfill the requirements they want for Automated Attendant transfers between offices, they
need to change to a networked telephone system solution.
C. Create a new forest/domain and add one Cisco Unity server at each office. All Cisco Unity
systems are member servers in the forest/domain and are provisioned for the number of users
at that site. On one Cisco Unity server a dialing domain is created and all other Cisco Unity
servers join that dialing domain. The directory handler search scope is set to that dialing
domain.
D. This can be done with the optional Cisco Unity PBX conference feature that allows transfers
between different PBXs by using the Intel Dialogic voice cards installed in all Cisco Unity
servers.
Answer: B
Question 7.
During the presales phase of the design process, which design template do you use to ensure you understand ITCertKeys.com goals?
A. customer requirements verification
B. customer expectation validation
C. customer needs statement
D. customer feature and function list
Answer: A
Question 8.
As part of the design acceptance process your Domino customer has asked that you give a brief description of the integration between mailstore, the Cisco Unity server, and client workstation. You explain the concept of how the different components of the Domino Communication Services will be installed on each of the different servers.
Select the statement that is the accurate explanation.
A. There are three DUC services: CS Server, which is installed on the server storing user
mailboxes; CS Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server; and CS client,
which is installed on the client workstation and the Cisco Unity Server. The Domino CS client
software installed on the Cisco Unity server allows access to inbox status to see new voice-
mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating phones of users.
B. There are three DUC services: CS server, which is installed on the Cisco Unity Server; CS
Admin, which is installed on the Domino server, storing inboxes of users; and CS client, which
is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is also installed on the Cisco Unity
server. Cisco Unity uses the client to send mail to users and view who has new voice-mail
messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating phones belonging to users.
C. There are three DUC services: CS Server, which is installed on the server, storing user
mailboxes; CS Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server; and CS client,
which is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is installed on the Cisco
Unity server. Cisco Unity uses the client to send mail to users and the Domino server sends
Cisco Unity updates on who has new voice-mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps
on the correlating phones belonging to users.
D. There are three DUC services: DOMDUC server, which is installed on the server, storing user
mailboxes; DOMDUC Admin, which is installed on the Domino Administrator server, and
DOMDUC client, which is installed on the client workstation. Domino client software is installed
on the Cisco Unity server. Cisco Unity uses the client to view inboxes belonging to users to see
who has new voice-mail messages, so Cisco Unity can light the lamps on the correlating
phones of users.
Answer: C
Question 9.
You are beginning the Cisco Unity design process with ITCertKeys.com.
Which worksheet template do you use first?
A. external customer requirements
B. preliminary customer requirements interview
C. initial customer requirements
D. internal customer requirements
Answer: D
Question 10.
Cisco Unity is installed in a voice-mail-only configuration using the existing messaging infrastructure. ITCertKeys.com is now ready to move to Unified Messaging.
Which utility can move the attributes of the voice-mail boxes?
A. Move User Data tool
B. Migrate Subscriber Data tool
C. Grant Unity Access utility
D. Bulk Import utility
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A Cisco Unity 5.0 system has generated over fifty subscriber account lockout issues in the last few days.
How can a report be generated to explain these account lockouts?
A. Turn on Login Trace and then run the Failed Login Report.
B. Run the Failed Login Report.
C. Turn on Login Trace and then run the Subscriber Message Activity Report.
D. Run the Subscriber Message Activity Report.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You are installing Cisco Unity 5.0 with Exchange Server 2000 for a customer.
Which two operating system options are supported for this install? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition
D. Windows 2000 Server
E. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
Answer: D, E
Question 3.
You have recently installed a 2700-user Cisco Unity system for a customer and configured it to work with their Avaya PBX. Your customer has been having trouble with the station quality of the Avaya PBX and had to change out station cards several times. They are now experiencing problems with inconsistent volume while the subscribers' greetings are playing. Your customer wants you to provide a solution that does not require all the subscribers to re-record their personal greetings. From the list below, please select the best solution.
A. Open Cisco Unity Tools Depot, browse to Advanced Settings, and run the Audio Management
Tool.
B. Open Cisco Unity Tools Depot, browse to Audio Management Tools, and run the Set Volume
Utility.
C. Open Cisco Unity Tools Depot, browse to Audio Management Tools, and run the Wav Gain
Utility.
D. Open Cisco Unity Tools Depot, browse to Volume Controls Tool Box, and run the Wav Gain
Utility.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your customer wants to use digital networking so all their subscribers on the Cisco Unity and Cisco Unity Connection systems can message each other. Is this supported?
A. Yes, as long as the total number of subscribers or users does not exceed 15,000.
B. No, Cisco Unity Connection can only use digital networking to other Cisco Unity Connection
servers.
C. Yes, if the total number of Cisco Unity and Cisco Unity Connection servers does not exceed
10.
D. No, Cisco Unity Connection uses VPIM to connect to Cisco Unity.
Answer: D
Question 5.
You thought you had assigned the Text to Speech feature to certain users in a class of service, however after importing them using the Bulk Import Utility the feature is not working for any of them.
What could be the cause?
A. You forgot to fill in the TTS_FEATURE field.
B. You selected the incorrect Exchange mailstore when importing the subscribers.
C. You selected the incorrect subscriber template when using the Bulk Import Utility.
D. You selected the incorrect class of service while using the Bulk Import Utility.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Your client would like to be able to back up and restore the entire Cisco Unity server, including the operating system and SQL database in case of a catastrophic failure of the Cisco Unity server.
Which Cisco Unity or third-party utility would you tell them to use?
A. software such as Symantec/Veritas Backup Exec
B. Cisco Unity Database Recovery Tool
C. Cisco Unity Disaster Recovery Backup and Restore Utilities with full backup options selected
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Backup and Restore Utilities
Answer: A
Question 7.
When would you create a delivery location object in Cisco Unity?
A. When you have 20 Cisco Unity subscribers located at branch offices and want to give those
subscribers the ability to message subscribers at headquarters.
B. When you have two Cisco Unity servers installed in two different organizations and want
subscribers to only message subscribers within their Cisco Unity Dialing Domain.
C. When you have two Cisco Unity servers installed in two different organizations and want to
give subscribers the ability to message all subscribers.
D. When you have two Cisco Unity servers installed in the same organization and want to give
subscribers the ability to message all subscribers.
Answer: C
Question 8.
A group of people need access to some but not all fields within the Cisco Unity System Administrator.
A new subscriber template has been built. Using best practices, what is the next step?
A. Assign permissions for Cisco Unity server access through the mailstore and assign users
needing administrative access to the new template.
B. Change the class of service to the default administrator.
C. Create a new class of service and assign it to the template.
D. Add the administrators to a distribution list and assign access by adding it to the template.
Answer: C
Question 9.
You convince your customer to purchase another Brooktrout card for their Cisco Unity Bridge server as messages from the Cisco Unity server to an Octel node take too long to be delivered.
How do you determine if this corrected their problem?
A. Open the UOmni folder on the Cisco Unity Bridge server and watch the message flow
to the Octel node.
B. Use the Port Usage Analyzer Utility to track port utilization.
C. Check the Latency Report provided by the Bridge Traffic Analyzer.
D. Run the Bridge Analog Network and Node Analyzer to monitor the analog activity.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Cisco Unity is integrated with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at a company. The customer reports that Message Waiting Indicators are intermittent on some extensions. You have opened up Integration Monitor to help resolve the issue but do not see any call information.
Which statement is true?
A. You must initialize the IP integration feature through the Cisco Unity Telephone Integration
Manager.
B. You must use Call Viewer for IP integrations.
C. You will not see any call information unless Extension Specific Processing Utility is also
opened.
D. Transaction data logging needs to be activated.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
When configuring the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified IP IVR, how is the return on no answer configured for agents?
A. in Cisco Unified ICM agent desk settings
B. in Cisco Unified ICM PG Explorer as a Peripheral Configuration Parameter
C. in the Cisco Unified IP IVR Queue Loop
D. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager as a Forward on No Answer setting
Answer: A
Question 2.
In order to run the setup program for a Cisco Unified ICM Server, what are the minimum permissions that must be granted to a user?
A. domain admin, read only
B. local user, read only
C. local admin, read write
D. domain admin, read write
E. SQL admin, read write
F. ICM admin, read write
Answer: C
Question 3.
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, how are CTI route points and CTI ports created in the Unified IP IVR 4.0(x)?
A. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration menu. The CRS
Administration will automatically create and associate the CTI route points and CTI ports in
Unified Communications Manager.
B. CTI route points and CTI ports are created and associated to the IP IVR user in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Administration prior to configuring the CTI route points in the IP IVR
in the CRS Administration menu.
C. CTI route points and CTI ports can either be created from the CRS Administration menu or
from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration as long as the CTI route
points and CTI ports are associated to the correct IP IVR user profile.
D. CTI route points and CTI ports are created from the CRS Administration first and then the CTI
route points and CTI ports are associated to the correct user using Unified Communications
Manager Administration manually.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Exhibit:
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with IP IVR, ring-no-answer dialed number processing is set in the Agent Desk Settings tool of ConfigManager.
Given this setup, what are two impacts of using this setting this way if the CMPG_RC.INBOUND_8001 dialed number is the same number the calls arrived on originally? (Choose two.)
A. The ring-no-answer calls will be put at the bottom of the queue and have to wait again for an
agent to becomeavailable .
B. The caller will be disconnected as a call cannot be hair-pinned back on itself with Cisco Unified
IP IVR.
C. The ring-no-answer calls will be "double counted" in the inbound 8001 call type.
D. The caller will hear hold music while the call is transferred back to the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager.
E. The caller will be re-directed to a different routing script.
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise deployment, with IP IVR for queuing, if the agent's Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber fails, what is the expected result?
A. The call in progress is put on hold while the phone re-registers to another subscriber in the
cluster and is automatically reconnected when the phone is reset.
B. The call in progress is not impacted; however, the phone re-registers at the end of the call.
C. The call in progress is dropped and the agent has to log in again after the phone resets.
D. The call in progress is not impacted and the agent can transfer/conference and perform other
phone features without any impact.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Where is the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable configured and what is this variable used for?
A. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the
CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used
to track callers as they progress through a self-service application.
B. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable
assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate the status of the call at
different points in a self-service application.
C. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress variable is configured from the
CRA Administration > SubSystems > ICM > VRU Script > VRU Variable. This variable is used
to troubleshoot VRU errors.
D. The Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise VRUProgress is a predefined System variable
assessed using the Set node in an ICM routing script to indicate tracing levels in the IP IVR.
Answer: B
Question 7.
In the Cisco Unified ICM database servers, which Microsoft SQL Server Agent rights setting is not allowed on the server local Security Policy Settings?
A. act as part of an operating system
B. log on as a batch job
C. log on as a service
D. allow log on locally
Answer: D
Question 8.
The Cisco Unified ICM 7.2 implementation may require high-priority addressing on the servers if QoS marking is performed at the network edge.
Which of the following servers require high-priority addresses identified on the visible network?
A. ICM Call Router
B. Administrative Workstation
C. Logger / Database Server
D. Peripheral Gateway
Answer: A
Question 9.
The Cisco Unified ICM Call Type Manager is accessed from the ICM Script Editor.
Which two options are purposes of the Call Type Manager? (Choose two.)
A. to create a dialed number mapping to a call type
B. to determine what call type data is available for reporting
C. to map caller entered digits to the call type
D. to schedule a routing script
E. to schedule an administrative script
Answer: A, D
Question 10.
Which of the following is not recommended to reside on the C: drive partition of any Cisco Unified ICM Server?
A. Unified ICM Historical Data Server Database
B. Core Unified ICM software
C. Microsoft SQL Server log files
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: A
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