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Question 1.
Which method is an appropriate way to determine the tangent of 65 degrees?
A. Double d = Math.tan(65);
B. Double d = Math.tangent(65);
C. Double d = Math.tan(Math.toRadians(65));
D. Double d = Math.tan(Math.toDegrees(65));
E. Double d = Math.tangent(Math.toRadians(65));
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which three CAN directly cause a thread to stop executing? (Choose Three)
A. Calling the yield method.
B. Calling the wait method on an object.
C. Calling the notify method on an object.
D. Calling the notifyAll method on an object.
E. Calling the start method on another Thread object.
Answer: A, B ,E
Question 3.
Which of the following are improper way to create a new Thread? (Choose Three)
A. Extend java.lang.Thread and override the run method.
B. Extend java.lang.Runnable and override the start method.
C. Implement java.lang.thread and implement the run method.
D. Implement java.lang.Runnable and implement the run method.
E. Implement java.lang.Thread and implement the start method.
Answer: B, C, E
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Question 1. Based on the principles of clustering, what is required to obtain a voting Quorum in a 3-node cluster at any given time? A. Three devices must be able to vote. B. Two devices must be able to vote. C. Only one device is needed. D. No quorum is needed in a 3-node cluster. Answer: B Question 2. What is the BEST reason for utilizing a cluster in a datacenter environment? A. The Enterprise Backup procedures can be handled. B. Having clustered systems ensures faster execution. C. It is required now to run most critical applications. D. A cluster makes applications highly available. Answer: D Question 3. When installing Sun Cluster 3.0, how much disk space should be allocated for /globaldevices on the root disk? A. 50 mb B. 100 mb C. All available disk space D. It depends on the configuration Answer: B Question 4. When removing Sun Cluster 3.0 from a system, what is considered the BEST procedure? A. Uninstall Cluster packages and reboot. B. Remove the Cluster database and do a reconfiguration boot. C. Re-install the complete Operating System. D. Individually remove the packages and disconnect TC. Answer: C Question 5. What BEST describes the upgrade process from SC2.x to SC3.0? A. Remove SC2.0 and install 3.0. B. Run an upgrade script. C. Install new Cluster pkgs and reboot. D. Install Solaris 8 and SC3.O software. Answer: D Question 6. You must install the KJP on all nodes of a SC 3.0 cluster. Which of the following must you do? A. init 6, patchadd, reboot B. scshutdown, boot -x, patchadd, reboot C. patchadd, reboot D. patchadd, reboot -- -x Answer: B Question 7. In a 2-node cluster running Sun Cluster 3.0, what is required to start clustered operation during normal operations? A. Quorum device and the interconnect B. One node and no quorum device C. One node and a quorum device D. Both nodes and the cluster transport Answer: C Question 8. How would you BEST describe, "cluster transport"? A. The heartbeat network between nodes. B. The switch used to bring shared storage to the nodes. C. The terminal concentrator and its connection to the nodes. D. The cabling associated with the shared storage. Answer: B Question 9. What is the command to check the current status of a 3.0 cluster? A. scstat B. scprint C. hastat D. scset -l Answer: B Question 10. In order to install the Quorum device, what command is used to check for available devices? A. scstat -lv B. quorumlist -a C. hastat -l quorum D. scdidadm -L Answer: D
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Question 1.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for
this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for
overflow.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the
Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the
Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 4.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?
A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
B. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
C. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS
system
B. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
C. recover a Cisco CRS system
D. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
What is a benefit of using sub flows?
A. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
B. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
C. collects information about callers to agents
D. decreases the amount of flows
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. Toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Variable window
D. Design window
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Question 1.
Which DHCP server gives secondary codecs in Cisco TelePresence CTS-3000 and CTS-3200
systems their IP addresses?
A. DHCP server on the voice VLAN
B. DHCP server on the primary codec
C. DHCP server on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. DHCP server on the CiscoTelePresence Manager
Answer: B
Question 2.
How do you calibrate the light meter from the Cisco recommended RRA tool kit?
A. Press the Auto Adjust button on the meter.
B. Turn the meter on and off.
C. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Zero button.
D. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Light Source button.
Answer: C
Question 3
What two options does an administrator have using WebUI for CTMS in Monitoring/Room Testing
for any active meeting? (Choose two.)
A. add a CTS System to a meeting
B. view network statistics
C. view meeting statistics
D. start loopback
E. force switch
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy does not have an email account listed in the Unified CM. This is preventing the Cisco Telepresence Manager from synchronizing with the email address for the Cisco Telepresence Room in the Calendar server.
Refer to the exhibit. You are using Cisco Telepresence Manager and have just added a new room in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and have made test calls successfully. You run the Discover Rooms option under Discovery Service successfully. You then go into the Rooms section and see the status.
Which is the cause of the problem?
A. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy does not have an email account listed in the Unified CM.
This is preventing the Cisco Telepresence Manager from synchronizing with the email address
for the Cisco Telepresence Room in the Calendar server.
B. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server does not have an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM.
C. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco
Telepresence Manager does not have proper privileges to view this account.
D. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The
Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco
Telepresence Manager cannot authenticate to the LDAP server and cannot log into the
Calendar server to synchronize with the account.
Answer: C
Question 5.
During the RRA, how should you hold the light sensor when taking the majority of light measurements?
A. Horizontally, so it gets the direct lighting from ceiling light fixtures.
B. Vertically, toward the displays to measure the light they put off.
C. Horizontally, toward any untreated windows to measure light coming in.
D. Vertically, so it is reading light as if it were hitting the participant's face.
Answer: D
Question 6.
At a minimum, what must an administrator configure in the CUCM for the Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch?
A. SIP trunk and route pattern
B. H.323 gateway and route pattern
C. H.323 gateway, route pattern, route list and route group
D. SIP trunk, route pattern, route list and route group
E. H.323 gateway, route pattern and route group
F. route pattern, route list and route group
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which QoS mapping is specific to Cisco Telepresence?
A. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 40
B. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 46
C. CoS 3 to map to a DSCP value of 48
D. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 16
E. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 32
Answer: E
Question 8.
How is VIP mode enabled for a scheduled multipoint Cisco Telepresence meeting?
A. through the Cisco IP phone interface
B. through theWebUI on the CTMS
C. through the CiscoTelepresence Manager
D. through calendar scheduling interface
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which three statements about the cabling of a Cisco Telepresence 3000 are true? (Choose three.)
A. All speakers connect to the primary codec.
B. All video cameras connect to the primary codec.
C. All 65 inch plasma displays connect to the primary codec.
D. Microphones connect to the corresponding codec.
E. Speakers connect to the corresponding codec.
F. Video cameras connect to the corresponding codec.
G. Plasma displays connect to the corresponding codec.
Answer: A, F, G
Question 10. DRAG DROP
Answer:
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Question 1. Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans? A. Spam Blocker B. Antivirus C. Anti Spyware D. Anti Adware Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue? A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output. C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. POP3 Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader? A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults? A. Anti-static wrist straps B. Compressed air C. Anti-static wipes D. Operating system rescue disk Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM? A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post C. Wearing a grounded wristband D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD? A. Celeron B. Athlon C. Pentium D. Core 2 Quad Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem? A. Format the external USB hare drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external monitor D. Remove and reset the laptop battery Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers? A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website B. The manufacturer’s website C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the following is problem? A. The technician is not in administrator mode. B. System restore is turned off. C. System 32 folder has been removed. D. System restore is not supported on the OS version. Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of these are symptoms of malware on a computer? (Select TWO). A. Hard drive and network activity is higher when the computer is idle B. CD-ROM ejects unexpectedly from the computer C. Web browser accesses unexpected websites D. Prints from the computer have random characters and symbols instead of text E. The monitor has a permanent image burned into the display Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following commands will map a shared network drive? A. SFC B. NSLOOKUP C. NET USE D. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A technician wants to copy the entire documents and settings folder and subfolders to a new computer. Which of the following commands should the technician use? A. EDIT B. XCOPY C. COPY/A D. MOVE Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. A laptop reports the following RAM configuration. Assuming RAM is the same price per Mb, which of the following would be the least expensrve upgrade to the laptop to give it 12GB of RAM? Memory 3lots 2 DRAM Frequency 661.0 MHz Memory Timings 9-9-9-24 (CL-RCD-RP-RA3) Device Locator Slot 1 Capacity 4096 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No Device Locator Slot 2 Capacity 2048 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No A. Two 6Gb DDR3 PC 10700 RAM modules B. One 10Gb DDR3 PC10700 RAM module C. One 8Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module D. One 6Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A SOHO user has just installed a new wireless router on the network. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the user should do to secure the router from unauthorized use? A. Change the default administrator name and password B. Update the firmware in all of the client computers C. Setup MAC filtering to limit the devices that can connect D. Determine the DHCP range and any static exclusions Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to move a user' s documents and file settings, when upgrading the user from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows 7 computer? A. Easy Transfer B. Backup and Restore C. XCOPY D. System Restore Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. User profiles in Windows 7 are stored in which of the following locations? A. C:\UserProfiles B. C:\DocumentsandSettings\UserProfiles C. C:\Documents and Settings D. C:\Users Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. After a video card upgrade nothing is displayed on the LCD screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The new video card has to be first installed using the Services MMC. B. The onboard video of the motherboard is still enabled in the BIOS. C. New video cards require new monitors as their resolutions do not match D. The new video card has to be enabled by a DIP switch on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following multimeter settings should only be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select TWO). A. Ampere B. Continuity C. volt D. Resistance E. Wattage Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following commands would be used to map a network drive? A. MD B. SFC C. IPCONFIG D. NET Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection? A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Watermarking D. Checksumming Answer: B Question 2. What key roles are performed by the Project Manager? A. Manage goals, company expectations, staffing and equipment needs, and costs B. Secure funding, write proposals, and manage departmental priorities C. Manage and maintain image quality control and production goals D. Manage and ensure that the imaging process is documented and that costs are contained Answer: A Question 3. A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned? A. Tracking capability B. Records management C. Scan-to-folder D. Error handling Answer: A Question 4. A customers current document security model provides access to paper documents based upon job definition. Employees change jobs periodically based upon skills and business needs. An electronic system would need to implement: A. role-based security. B. user privilege sets. C. modifiable document classification models. D. user group security. Answer: A Question 5. What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner? A. Resolution, compression, and memory B. Workflow, ease of use, and productivity C. Documents, images, and storage medium D. Interface, resolution, and paper handling Answer: D Question 6. A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process? A. The customer has a formal records storage management process. B. The customer has an informal records management process. C. The customer has a document capture process. D. The customer does not have a records management process. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project? A. A series of white papers on the solution B. Executive briefing with only senior management C. Onsite demonstration with customers documents D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents Answer: C Question 8. Currently, corporate headquarters maintains a central document repository with a Records Manager that maintains custody of these confidential documents. There are 18 branch locations connected via intranet with six new additional locations opening within the year. If a branch office needs confidential documents, an e-mail request is sent to the Records Manager who will then fax or overnight the documents to the branch locations. What would be the impact of implementing a web-based solution for end-users? A. It would require extensive training on use and operation. B. End-user productivity would dramatically increase. C. The new system would be slower to receive desired information than the current system. D. Most end-user computers would need to be upgraded to support a web-based solution. Answer: B Question 9. A customer is printing large TIFF images. The method with the LEAST impact on network load is to decompress the image at the: A. printer. B. jukebox. C. client workstation. D. network server. Answer: A Question 10. In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support: A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). C. FTP. D. XML. Answer: B
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long.
Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html
Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media
gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer
Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are
Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any
NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally
defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are
standards-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632
Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
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