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Question 1.
Which three types of trunks does Cisco support with the connection trunk command?
(Choose three)
A. FXS to FXS trunks
B. FXS to FXO trunks
C. FXO to FXO trunks
D. E&M to FXS trunks
E. E&M to FXO trunks
F. E&M to E&M trunks
Answer: A, B, F
Question 2.
If no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway, the incoming call leg _____.
A. Takes an alternate path.
B. Matches the default dial peer.
C. Sends a busy to the originator.
D. Is denied and the call does not complete.
Answer: B
Question 3.
The following configuration is used at Site A:
dial-peer voice 20 pots
destination-pattern 20
port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 41 VoIP
destination-pattern 41
session target ipv4:10.2.0.20
The following configuration is used at site B:
dial-peer voice 40 pots
destination-pattern 41
port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 20 VoIP
destination-pattern 20
session target ipv4:10.4.1.41
To configure a permanent connection between the PBXs, what must be added to the voice port configuration at site A?
A. connection trunk 20
B. connection trunk 41
C. connection tie-line 20
D. connection tie-line 41
Answer: B
Explanation:
You must specify the same number in the connection trunk voice port command as in the appropriate dial peer destination-pattern command in order to create a permanent trunk.
Question 4.
A telephony service provider sells managed IP Phone service to businesses in multi-tenant units.
The provider has POPs in many cities, so all of their dial peer patterns are based on 10 digit numbers. Users dial 9 for local calls, followed by the 7 digital local number.
In a Chicago POP, the following dial peer has been configured:
dial-peer voice 312 pots
destination-pattern 312
port 1/0:24
A user dials a local number, 9-555-0597.
What command must be configured in the gateway to allow the call to complete?
A. prefix 312
B. forward-digits 7
C. rule 1 9.......312.......
D. num-exp 9.......312.......
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which configuration defines a destination pattern for all of the 1000 and 2000 range of extensions starting with the numbers 555?
A. 5551...
B. 5552...
C. 555[1-2]...
D. 555[1000-2000]...
Answer: C
Question 6.
What does RTCP provide?
A. Independent services irrespective of RTP.
B. Compression techniques to save bandwidth.
C. In-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. Out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Answer: D
Explanation:
RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Question 7.
What is the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An MGCP endpoint is identified by a two part identifier that consists of the ______.
A. Telephone number and local name of the user.
B. Telephone number and remote name of the user.
C. Domain name of the user and the IP address of the gateway.
D. Local name of the user and the domain name of the gateway.
Answer: D
Question 9.
A customer needs to connect a Cisco voice gateway to a PBX or the PSTN via ISDN (PRI, QSIG, BRI).
What are two attributes of the PBX/PSTN switch that must be known to understand which features to configure on the voice gateway to connect successfully to it? (Choose two)
A. Whether Q.921 or Q.931 is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
B. Whether Symmetric mode is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
C. Which PRI/BRI switch-type is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
D. Whether network or user side is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
E. Whether wink, delay dial, or immediate dial is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
Which protocol negotiates codec type for H.323 sessions?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. Q.931
D. H.320
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which request method initiates a SIP call setup?
A. ACK
B. INVITE
C. OPTIONS
D. REGISTER
Answer: B
Question 12.
Which show command displays the registration of the gateway with the call agent?
A. show mgcp
B. show gateway mgcp
C. show endpoint mgcp
D. show call active voice
Answer: A
Question 13.
When gatekeepers communicate with each other, what do they use?
A. RTP
B. RAS channel
C. call signaling channel
D. H.245 control channel
Answer: B
Question 14.
To function as a translating gateway, the gateway must ______.
A. Have the capacity to translate the audio.
B. Recognize the call control procedures of both connecting endpoints.
C. Establish separate RTP sessions with the originating and terminating endpoints.
D. Recognize the call control procedures or at least one of the connecting endpoints.
Answer: B
Question 15.
Your customer is having problems completing calls through the MGCP network.
Which command displays a count of the successful and unsuccessful control commands?
A. show mgcp
B. show mgcp statistics
C. show call active voice
D. show call history voice
E. show mgcp count
Answer: B
Question 16.
Which two call control models are based on decentralized call control? (Choose two)
A. SIP`
B. CAS
C. H.323
D. MGCP
E. Q.931
Answer: A, C
Question 17.
Which four functions are supported by an H.323 gatekeeper? (Choose four)
A. Providing services to registered endpoints.
B. Converting an alias address to an IP address.
C. Translation between audio, video, and data formats.
D. Responding to bandwidth requests and modifications.
E. Conversion between call setup signals and procedures.
F. Conversion between communication control signals and procedures.
G. Limiting access to network resources based on call bandwidth restrictions.
Answer: A, B, D, G
Question 18.
Which command is used to specify the IP address of a SIP proxy server?
A. sip-ua
sip-server ipv4:1.2.3.4
B. sip-ua
sip-server target:1.2.3.4
C. dial-peer voice 1 VoIP
session target sip:1.2.3.4
D. dial-peer voice 1 VoIP
session target sip-server:1.2.3.4
Answer: A
Question 19.
SIP is similar to H.225 and SDP is similar to ____.
A. RAS
B. RTP
C. H.245
D. H.323
Answer: C
Question 20.
Impedance is set on what type of port?
A. T1
B. FXS
C. FXO
D. E&M
Answer: C
Question 21.
You have a customer that is deploying an IP telephony solution using MGCP. They understand that the call agent expects the gateway to use UDP port 2427. The customer would like to use another port because of a conflict with another application on their network.
If they want to use port 5000, which command allows the customer to change the UDP port their call agents and gateway communicate on?
A. Router (config)# mgcp UDP 5000
B. Router (config)# mgcp call-agent 5000
C. Router (config-dial-peer)#application MGCPAPP 5000
D. Router (config)# mgcp default-package gm-package 5000
Answer: B
Question 22.
The SIP protocol is based upon which other protocol model?
A. HTML
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. HTPP/WWW
Answer: D
Question 23.
What are two methods that an endpoint can use to determine the address of the gatekeeper?
(Choose two)
A. The endpoint issues a GCP.
B. The endpoint issues a GRQ.
C. The endpoint queries the registrar server.
D. The endpoint is preconfigured to recognize the domain name or IP address of its gatekeeper.
Answer: B, D
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Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
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Question 1.
When a supplier site is defined as a purchasing site, on which four documents would it be available, in the supplier List of values? (Choose Four.)
A. Quotation
B. Request for Quotation
C. Payment
D. Invoice
E. Requisition
F. Purchase order
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 2.
If the PO: Allow Buyer override in AutoCreate Find profile option is set to No, what would happen if the buyer, Pat Stock, uses the AutoCreate form?
A. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers but not view unassigned
requisitions
B. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers, but would be able to view
unassigned requisitions
C. Pay would be able to view all requisitions in the AutoCreate form, but would be prevented from
placing requisitions on aPO if they reference another buyer
D. Pat would be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers and unassigned requisitions
E. Pat would not be able to view requisitions assigned to other buyers or unassigned requisitions
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which four are the setup steps for an approval hierarchy? ( Choose Four.)
A. Have a supervisor entered in the employee record
B. Assign a job to the employee
C. Enter a buyer
D. Create an employee
E. Tie the employee to the login name
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question 4.
In which four Oracle Applications can a supplier once defined, be used? (Choose Four.)
A. Property Manager
B. Payables
C. General Ledger
D. Order Management
E. Purchasing
F. Assets
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 5.
Which two should be completed before purchasing is closed for a period? ( Choose two.)
A. Approve all purchasing requisitions for the current period
B. Open the new purchasing period
C. Complete all inventory and expense receipts for the current period
D. Complete and approve all the purchase orders for the current period
E. Pay all invoices for the current period including those that have not been received
F. Resolve all unordered receipts
Answer: C, F
Question 6.
Which accounts can you set in Receiving Options?
A. Clearing Account
B. Receiving Inventory Account and Clearing Account
C. Receiving Inventory Account
D. Receiving Inventory Account and Purchase Price Variance Account
E. Purchase Price Variance Account
Answer: B
Question 7.
O n a requisition created in the professional forms environment (not iProcurement), which four sources can influence the Need by Date for each line? ( Choose Four.)
A. iProcurement Preference: Need by Date Offset
B. Item Lead Time (Min/Max Planning)
C. Profile:PO: Default Need-by Time
D. Preferences
E. Sales Order Need By Date (Drop Shipments)
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question 8.
Your Client finds that some suppliers often under-ship certain low value items. For example, if they create a purchase order for 1000 paper clips, they would often receive only 995 paper clips. Because the quantity outstanding is small, the supplier would simply never ship the remaining five paper clips. Your client wants to make sure that these purchase orders do not remain open if at least 99% of the quantity ordered has been received and invoiced.
Which Item attribute settings are needed to meet this requirement?
A. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 1
B. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 1
C. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance = 99
D. Receipt close tolerance = 99 and invoice close tolerance = 99
E. Receipt close tolerance = 1 and invoice close tolerance can be set to any value
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which three profile options are required for the setup of sourcing rules? (Choose three.)
A. PO: Allow auto-generate sourcing Rules
B. MRP: Sourcing Rule Category Set
C. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
D. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Client wants to bypass the ASL and default sourcing information from a quotation or blanket agreement.
Which profile option would have to be enabled?
A. PO: DefaultPO Promise Date from Need By Date
B. PO: Override Approved Supplier List Status
C. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
E. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
Answer: E
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Question 1. The Oracle Workflow engine is _______________. A. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications database B. Embedded in any Oracle Database C. Embedded in any Oracle Application Server D. Embedded only in Oracle 11i Applications Servers Answer: B Question 2. Under which four conditions can you create transitions, if the source activity in a workflow diagram has an associated result type? (Choose Four.) A. When the activity does not return a result, labeled asB. When the activity times out, labeled as C. When the activity run simultaneously with 1 or other activities, labeled as D. When a result returned is not covered by other transitions, labeled with the result display name E. Regardless of the result returned, labeled as Answer: B, C, D, E Question 3. Which profile option allows user to delegate, transfer and reassign modes? A. WF: Notification Transfer, Delegate and Reassing Mode B. WF: Notification Delegate Mode C. WF: Notification Transfer Mode D. WF: Notification Reassing Mode E. WF: Notification Mode Answer: D Question 4. Which subscription property defines the order in which multiple subscription to the same business event are executed? A. Status B. Phase C. Customization Level D. Rule Datbase Answer: B Question 5. Which two methods can you use to transfer workflow definitions to a stand-alone Oracle Workflow database? (Choose two.) A. Workflow Builder B. FNDLOAD C. Workflow Definition Loader Concurrent Request D. wfload Answer: A, D Question 6. The access Level 0-9 is reserved for ____________. A. Customer Organizations B. Oracle Application Object Library C. Public D. Oracle Workflow E. Oracle E-business Suite Answer: D Question 7. When the Workflow Engine raises a send event, a series of agents is called in a sequence until the response is processed. What is the correct sequences? A. WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN B. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED C. WF_NOTIFICATION_IN>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT D. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_DEFERRED>WF_NOTIFICATION_IN E. WF_NOTIFICATION_OUT>WF_NOTIFICATION-IN>WF_DEFERRED Answer: A Question 8. Which two options describe how role could be referenced in a workflow process? (Choose two.) A. Designate a performer to an item type attribute that returns a role name B. Assign a role to notification activity and do not include it in the workflow process as a node C. Create a role lookup type and assign it to a notification activity D. Directly designate a role to a perform Answer: A, D Question 9. In programming your procedures, you need to communicate state changes to the Workflow Engine. Which three WF_ENGINE API's can you to do that? (Choose three.) A. WF_ENGINE.TransmitWarning B. WF_ENGINE.TransmitError C. WF_ENGINE.BeginActivity D. WF_ENGINE.CompleteActivity E. WF_ENGINE.AbortProcess Answer: C, D, E Question 10. What are the similarities between the item type attribute and the function activity attribute in a workflow process? (Choose all that apply.) A. Both can be written at run time B. Both can be read at run time C. The internal name of an attribute cannot contain ';' (colon) D. Both are global to process Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Which of these can you use to determine whether there is network connectivity between your computer and a web server on the Internet?
A. Whois
B. Finger
C. Lookup
D. Traceroute
Answer: D
Question 2.
You are an admin user, and have enabled the Ignore Volume Ownership option for an external FireWire hard disk.
What will happen the next time a standard user attempts to mount the disk?
A. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
B. The disk will mount, and the user will be able to read any file on the disk; the user will be
required to enter an administrator password to modify or delete files on the disk.
C. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted the user will be able to read, modify, and delete any file on the disk.
D. The user will be required to enter an administrator password to mount the disk; once the disk
is mounted, the user will be able to read any file on the disk, but will be required to re-enter an
administrator password to modify or delete files.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Review the screenshot of a user's home folder, and then answer the question below.
Which folder did the user create?
A. Music
B. Pages
C. Pictures
D. Downloads
Answer: B
Question 4.
Mac OS X v10.5 can read files on a volume that is ________-formatted, but it cannot write to files on the volume.
A. UFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT2
D. FAT32
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which procedure will let someone who does not have a local user account log in to a local admin user account on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer that does NOT have a firmware password enabled?
A. Log in to the computer with the user name "root" and the master password, open Accounts
preferences, and reset the admin user password.
B. Remove a RAM DIMM from one of the computers RAM slots, restart the computer while
holding down the Command-Option-O-F keys until you hear the startup sound, then type
"reset-all" at the prompt.
C. Start the computer from the internal hard disk, log into a guest user account, open the Reset
Password utility in the /Applications/Utilities folder, then reset the password on the admin
user account that resides on the hard disk volume.
D. Press the C key while restarting the computer with the Mac OS X v10.5 Install DVD inserted,
then choose Reset Password from the Utilities menu. Select the hard disk volume and the
admin user account, then enter a new password for the account and click Save.
Answer: D
Question 6.
You have configured your Mac OS X v10.5 computer to share its connected USB printer. Mac OS X users can locate and print to it, but Windows users can not.
What additional step must you take to allow Windows users to print to it?
A. In Sharing preferences, enable file sharing over SMB.
B. In Print & Fax preferences, enable the SMB printer driver.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, enable Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
D. In Print & Fax preferences, configure the Windows Printer name and queue.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Review the screenshots of a files permissions, as seen in Finder and from Terminal, and then answer the question below.
Why are Kim's permissions to the file, Report.rtf, NOT visible in the Terminal listing?
A. Kims permissions are stored as POSIX settings.
B. Kims permissions are stored in the volume catalog.
C. Kims permissions are stored in the file data segment.
D. Kims permissions are stored in an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: D
Question 8.
Tom wants to share a document with Harriet. Both have standard user accounts on the same Mac OS X v10.5 computer.
Which of these is NOT a location where Tom can store the document so that Harriet can read it?
A. /Users/Shared/
B. /Users/tom/Public/
C. /Users/harriet/Public/
D. /Users/harriet/Public/Drop Box/
Answer: C
Question 9.
The primary role of the master password in Mac OS X v10.5 is to let you ________.
A. Access all the passwords stored in a local keychain
B. Reset the password of an account that has FileVault enabled
C. Change the startup device by holding down the Option key while the computer starts up
D. Connect to any password-protected web server whose password is stored in a local keychain
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which statement identifies a potential effect of resetting the master password for a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password must use the old
master password to unlock their keychains.
B. Users who enabled FileVault before you changed the master password will not be able to
access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
C. Users with keychain files created before you changed the master password will have their
keychain passwords automatically updated to match the new master password.
D. Users whose accounts were created before you changed the master password must use the
firmware password to access their home folder if they have forgotten their account password.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Review the image, and then answer the question below. You have managed the Dock preferences to define where on the computer screen the Dock will appear for these four accounts:
Lab (a computer group), Science1 (a computer in the Lab computer group), Teachers (a workgroup), and John (a member of the Teachers workgroup).
When John logs in on the Science1 computer, where on the computer screen does the Dock appear?
A. Bottom of the screen
B. Left side of the screen
C. Right side of the screen
D. John will be prompted to choose whether his user preferences or the Teachers workgroup
preferences should be used. The Dock will appear at the location of his choice.
Answer: C
Question 2.
You are setting up a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer to store the home folders for 10 users. The computer has 510 GB of free space on the volume where the home folders reside.
Which of these procedures will ensure that each user has an equal amount of storage space, yet leave at least 10 GB free?
A. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 50 GB.
B. In AFP service in Server Admin, select Limit disk usage to, and set the value to 500 GB.
C. In Workgroup Manager, in the Home pane for each user account, set the Disk Quota to 50 GB.
D. In Workgroup Manager, in the Quota pane for a group containing all of the users, set the Limit
to 50 GB.
Answer: C
Question 3.
You have enabled AFP service on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You configured the authentication method as Any. The server will attempt to authenticate file service users using which authentication methods, and in what order?
A. (1) Kerberos; (2) SSH
B. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos
C. (1) Kerberos; (2) Standard
D. (1) SSH; (2) Standard; (3) Kerberos
E. (1) Standard; (2) Kerberos; (3) SSH
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which utility should you use on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to create resources, such as rooms and projectors, in an LDAP directory so that those resources can be scheduled by iCal service users?
A. Directory
B. Address Book
C. Directory Utility
D. Directory Access
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of these is a zone that is configurable from Server Admin?
A. Cache
B. Master
C. Pointer
D. Forward
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which utility can you use to display the status of ticket-granting tickets on a Mac OS X v10.5 computer?
A. Kerberos
B. Server Admin
C. KerberosAgent
D. Keychain Access
E. Directory Utility
F. Certificate Assistant
Answer: A
Question 7.
Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources, on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users.
After you have enabled the Automount option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount configuration sheet?
A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B
Question 8.
What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E
Question 9.
A MacBook computer running Mac OS X v10.5 was formerly managed, but its managed preferences have been disabled on the server. Still, the user is unable to change some preferences on the MacBook.
Which statement presents a valid method for restoring the users access to these preferences?
A. Delete the /Library/Managed Preferences/ folder.
B. Delete the MCX attributes from the user records in the NetInfo database.
C. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Services pane of Directory Utility.
D. Deselect the Managed Accounts option in the Accounts pane of System Preferences.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which protocol does the iChat service in Mac OS X Server v10.5 use to send messages?
A. IRC (Internet Relay Chat)
B. SMP (Symmetric Messaging Protocol)
C. AIMP (AOL Instant Messaging Protocol)
D. XMPP (Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol)
Answer: D
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Question 1. You are configuring the eri0 network interface using the ifconfig command with the options netmask + and subnet mask 255.255.255.0. # /usr/sbin/ifconfig eri0 netmask + To verify the system is properly set up you issue an ifconfig -a command. You notice that the eri0 network interface has the netmask incorrectly set for 255.255.0.0. Which file do you need to check first? A. /etc/hosts B. /etc/netmasks C. /etc/hostname.eri0 D. /etc/nsswitch.conf Answer: B Question 2. You are installing a StorEdge A3500. You have created 5 LUNS, but after a boot -r can only see one of them in the format output. What should you modify/run to increase the single LUN issue? A. /kernel/drv/rdriver.conf B. /etc/osa/rmparams C. /kernel/drv/sd.conf D. /usr/lib/osa/bin/symconf Answer: C Question 3. You replaced a failed system board on a Sun Fire E20K. The new system board has no memory and needs to be tested. How should you test the new board? A. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHno_memory_ok?in the postrc file. B. Use the option -m with hpost command. C. You need memory in a system board to test it. D. Add the line ?$GGWKHOLQHmemory_ok?in the postrc file. Answer: A Question 4. You have completed repairs on a Sun Fire E25K and the next step is to run extended POST to verify the service action. How can you run extended post level 32 on domain A only? A. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. B. Enter level 32 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. C. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/A/.postrc file. D. Enter 2 in the /etc/opt/SUNWSMS/config/.postrc file. Answer: B Question 5. A customer wants to install four domains on their Sun Fire 6900. What needs to be configured using the setupplatform command on the System Controller? A. COD for all domains B. System controller failover C. ACL's for all domains D. Dual partitioning Answer: D Question 6. You have installed a Sun Enterprise 5500 onto a customer's network. The customer's networking department has told you that you must force the production interface, qfe0, to 100Mbps, Full Duplex. Which two ndd commands will you need to add to your startup script to ensure that your interface is running at the correct settings? (Choose two.) A. ndd -set /dev/qfe autoneg_cap 0 B. ndd -set /dev/qfe adv_100fdx_cap 1 C. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_mode 1 D. ndd -set /dev/qfe 100fdx_cap 1 E. ndd -set /dev/qfe link_speed 1 Answer: A, B Question 7. You install a system to customer specifications and after rebooting you get the following message: NIS server not responding for... retrying The customer tells you that there is a network problem which prevents this machine from reaching the NIS server. You boot the machine into single user mode. What action should you take to allow the system to operate until the NIS server is reachable again? A. Edit /etc/nsswitch.conf so that file is first for all entries and reboot into multiuser mode. B. Copy /etc/nsswitch.files to /etc/nsswitch.conf and reboot into multiuser mode. C. Edit /etc/resolv.conf so that the domain entry is commented out and reboot into multiuser mode. D. Rename /etc/rc2.d/S72inetsvc to /etc/rc2.d/DisabledS72inetsvc and reboot into multiuser mode. Answer: B Question 8. You have performed a setkeyswitch on for domain A on a Sun Fire 6800 where the auto-boot? OBP variable is set to false. What command at the OBP should you run to find the status of the POST? A. show-post-results B. showlog-results C. show-log-results D. showlog results E. showpost-results F. showpost results Answer: A Question 9. A customer has been receiving the following message: unix: WARNING: /tmp: File system full, swap space limit exceeded You are asked to create a swapfile to increase swap space. The swap file specifications are: - File name: swap1 - Destination directory: /delta - Length of swap1: 20 Megabytes Which command should you use to create the swap file? A. mkfile 20m /delta/swap1 B. mkfile -a 20m /delta/swap1 C. swap -a 20m /delta/swap1 D. swap 20m /delta/swap1 Answer: A Question 10. A customer has a number of Sun Fire 25Ks and you need to identify which one to work on. You are in the data center but not at the keyboard. Which command should you ask the customer to run to determine the chassis serial number? A. showplatform B. showcsn C. showenvironment D. showserial Answer: A
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Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A
Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
Same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km? (worst case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C
Question 5.
Click the Exhibit to view the topology.
Router A has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router B has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR). What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class subcommand should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E
Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it
immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection
in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C
Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.
What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as halF. life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C
Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGPMEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards,____restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on protection.
A. 50ms,STP
B. STP.STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A
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Question 1. What is the primary benefit of the "timE. to-live" field in the IP header? A. To improve buffer utilization B. To reduce the impact of routing loops C. To allow calculation ofrounD. trip delays D. To remind us that all earthly joys are fleeting E. To avoid delivery of packets that are no longer useful Answer: B Question 2. A router interface address is 180.60.45.96 with a mask of 255.255.255.224. What configuration statement A. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 255.255.255.32 area 0 B. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.255.255.224 area 0 C. router ospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.31 area 0 D. routerospf 1 network 180.60.45.96 0.0.0.224 area 0 Answer: C Question 3. An IGX-8 identifies itself as an IGX-32 on the configuration screen. What has gone wrong? A. The NPM was originally in an IGX-32. B. Database corruption has occurred. C. The user must physically set a jumper on the SCM to correct this. D. Use thesetnovram command to change the switch type. Answer: C Question 4. In PNNI networks, AESA has the following general format: A. 12-byte network prefix plus a 7-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector B. 11-byte network prefix plus an 8-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector C. 7-byte network prefix plus a 12-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector. D. 13-byte network prefix, a 6-byte End System Identifier plus 1 byte Selector Answer: D Question 5. To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, ISIS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called: A. Redundant DIS B. BDR C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS D. Designated Redundant System Answer: C Question 6. Cisco/StrataCom (Gang of four) LMI uses what DLCI for messages? A. 0 B. 1023 C. It should be configurable, as per the specification. D. It is negotiated when the ports become active. Answer: B Question 7. Click the Exhibit button to view the topology. Using the above diagram, which are valid BGP AS_Path Attributes received at Net1 for a route originating from AS65100? (multiple answer) A. 200 57000 100 65100 B. 200 57000 100100 C. 100 57000 200 D. 200 57000 100 E. 65100 100 57000 200 Answer: A, D, E Question 8. The default network clocking source in a BPX network is: A. The internal oscillator of the lowest-numbered node B. The internal oscillator of the highest-numbered node C. Each node's own internal oscillator D. The clock chip on the network management system Answer: B Question 9. When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer) A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address. B. it is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routingwih the same process. C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLVfield on the L-1/L-1 LSPs. D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information. Answer: A, C Question 10. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header? A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel. B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device. C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification. D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network. Answer: B
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Question 1. Your company's network just finished going through a SAS 70 audit. This audit reported that overall, your network is secure, but there are some areas that needs improvement. The major area was SNMP security. The audit company recommended turning off SNMP, but that is not an option since you have so many remote nodes to keep track of. What step could you take to help secure SNMP on your network? A. Change the default community string names B. Block all internal MAC address from using SNMP C. Block access to UDP port 171 D. Block access to TCP port 171 Answer: A Question 2. At what layer of the OSI model do routers function on? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 1 Answer: A Question 3. An "idle" system is also referred to as what? A. Zombie B. PC not being used C. Bot D. PC not connected to the Internet Answer: A Question 4. What operating system would respond to the following command? A. Mac OS X B. Windows XP C. Windows 95 D. FreeBSD Answer: D Question 5. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers are constantly talking Answer: D Question 6. How many bits is Source Port Number in TCP Header packet? A. 48 B. 32 C. 64 D. 16 Answer: D Question 7. Why are Linux/Unix based computers better to use than Windows computers for idle scanning? A. Windows computers are constantly talking B. Linux/Unix computers are constantly talking C. Linux/Unix computers are easier to compromise D. Windows computers will not respond to idle scans Answer: A Question 8. Simon is a former employee of Trinitron XML Inc. He feels he was wrongly terminated and wants to hack into his former company's network. Since Simon remembers some of the server names, he attempts to run the axfr and ixfr commands using DIG. What is Simon trying to accomplish here? A. Enumerate all the users in the domain B. Perform DNS poisoning C. Send DOS commands to crash the DNS servers D. Perform a zone transfer Answer: D Question 9. You are carrying out the last round of testing for your new website before it goes live. The website has many dynamic pages and connects to a SQL backend that accesses your product inventory in a database. You come across a web security site that recommends inputting the following code into a search field on web pages to check for vulnerabilities: When you type this and click on search, you receive a pop-up window that says: "This is a test." What is the result of this test? A. Your website is vulnerable to web bugs B. Your website is vulnerable to CSS C. Your website is not vulnerable D. Your website is vulnerable to SQL injection Answer: B Question 10. After attending a CEH security seminar, you make a list of changes you would like to perform on your network to increase its security. One of the first things you change is to switch the RestrictAnonymous setting from 0 to 1 on your servers. This, as you were told, would prevent anonymous users from establishing a null session on the server. Using Userinfo tool mentioned at the seminar, you succeed in establishing a null session with one of the servers. Why is that? A. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "2" for complete security B. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "3" for complete security C. There is no way to always prevent an anonymous null session from establishing D. RestrictAnonymous must be set to "10" for complete security Answer: A
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