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Question 1.
Which component of VPN-1/FireWall-1 is used for Content Security to prevent end-user access to specific URLs?
A. UFP Server
B. TACACS Server
C. URI Server
D. CVP Server
E. DEFENDER Server
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following actions does Secure Configuration Verification perform? (Choose three)
Secure Configuration Verification confirms that the:
A. Desktop Policy is installed on all client interfaces.
B. TCP/IP is enabled on the desktop.
C. User name and password cached on the desktop are correct.
D. Client's operating system has the appropriate patch level.
E. IP address of the client is correct for entrance into the VPN Domain.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 3.
Which VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Server can hide real user names by rewriting information in the From field, while maintaining connectivity by restoring correct addresses in the response?
A. RLOGIN
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. TELNET
E. HTTP
Answer: B
Question 4.
If a resource is specified in the Services field of a Rule Base, which of the following occurs?
A. Users attempting to connect to the object defined in the Destination column of the rule will be
required to authenticate.
B. All packets matching the resource service will by analyzed based on resource properties.
C. All packets that match the resource will be dropped.
D. SecureClient users attempting to connect to the object defined in the Destination column of the
rule will receive a new Desktop Policy from the resource.
E. All packets matching that rule are either encrypted or decrypted by the defined resource.
Answer: B
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Question 1. Name the Celerra software feature which creates a remote synchronous copy of production file systems at a remote location. A. SnapSure B. Celerra TimeFinder/FS C. Celerra SRDF D. Celerra Checkpoint Answer: C Question 2. State the function of Centera Viewer for the System Administrator. A. Create and manage volumes B. Develop and maintain filesystem structure C. Verify data authenticity D. Monitor capacity and performance Answer: D Question 3. Explain how free space is maintained in CLARiiON write cache. A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations B. Cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and Forced C. Cache is flushed only during read operations D. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes Answer: B Question 4. Explain how cache is allocated in a CLARiiON array. A. track B. partition C. page D. segment Answer: C Question 5. How much space must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL), per CLARiiON Storage Processor? A. CPL must be same size as Source LUN B. 256MB C. 128MB D. 64 MB Answer: C Question 6. In addition to EMC arrays, name the other arrays which are supported by PowerPath. A. NETAPP FAS980 B. IBM ESS(Shark) C. IBM DS800 D. Sun StorEdge A5200 Answer: B Question 7. Explain what an iSCSI naming convention is. A. DNS B. CHAP C. EUI D. DHCP Answer: C Question 8. Name two [2] features of Celerra Replicator. A. Only sends changed data over the IP network B. Synchronous data recovery C. Point-in-time copy over IP network D. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network Answer: C, D Question 9. Name the failover mode which is provided by Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy. A. Real-time adaptive copy B. Full duplex asynchronous C. Real-time semi-synchronous D. Real-time synchronous Answer: D Question 10. Name a characteristic of cache memory on a CLARiiON array with cache enabled on the SP. A. Page size is set for the array B. Write cache is not mirrored C. Page size is set for each LUN D. Write cache is always mirrored Answer: D
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Question 1.
An instructor has just finished the lesson on a topic that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the instructor with blank expressions. When the instructor asks questions to see if the learners understand the concept, most learners look away.
Which of the following is the BEST next step for the instructor to take, given the learners' reactions?
A. Hand out a set of written questions designed to evaluate individual comprehension of the
concept.
B. Give the learners a short study break to review any notes they might have taken during the
presentation.
C. Continue with the next phase of the lesson and refer back periodically to the concept.
D. Review the main points of the concept and use examples that aid in stimulating discussion.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 2.
The trainer's goal is to get the most participation from learners regarding choices that must be made about the next step in training. The trainer realizes that there are several different ways to solve a particular problem and wants learners to agree on the best method.
Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for accomplishing this goal?
A. Lecture
B. Discussion
C. Hands-on activities
D. Independent reading
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
On the second day of a five-day class, it becomes apparent that the trainer will finish the materials by the middle of the fourth day. The client requires the students to attend a full five days of training on the topic. In order to meet the client's requirement, the trainer should:
A. extend the lunch break by 30 minutes each day and add an additional afternoon break to
stretch the timeout
B. contact the client after class on the second day to inform them of the status and get approval
for ending theclass early
C. prepare additional materials after the second day and submit them to the client for approval in
order to meetthe five-days-of-training requirement
D. inform the class of the estimated early finish and ask them for suggestions on how to fill in the
remaining dayand a half of training time
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to optimize group participation?
A. Calling on learners and asking each a question
B. Handing out sets of written questions
C. Asking aQUESTION NO:of the group in general and waiting for a response
D. Making a statement and then asking whether the learners have any questions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 5.
For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL: To respond in a manner helpful to the rest of the class to a learner who asks relevant questions but asks them frequently.
ACTION: Restate the question, if necessary, to clarify it and then direct the
Question to the class.
A. LIKELY, because the strategy will engage the other learners in answering the questions and
will aid theirunderstanding
B. LIKELY, because the class will exert pressure on the learner to stop interrupting the lesson
C. UNLIKELY, because the instructor will be perceived as not knowing the answer
D. UNLIKELY, because adult learners prefer to be given direct responses
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
A trainer is teaching a course in which it appears that the learners differ greatly in what they expect from the course.
Which of the following actions should the trainer take to ensure that instruction is effective for this class?
A. Deliver course material exactly as the trainer's manual specifies.
B. Poll the learners regarding what should be included and eliminated.
C. Have the learners with the highest expectations about the course modify their expectations to
fit those of thegroup.
D. Adjust the course materials and agenda to meet the needs of the learners.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 7.
Learners complained on evaluation questionnaires that the instructor did not always possess sufficient expertise about course material.
Which of the following audiences is MOST likely to need this information?
A. The company that pays to have its employees trained
B. The person who schedules trainers
C. The instructional designer
D. The other instructors who teach the same course
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
A trainer, who has completed a training class, determines that the materials were inadequate for students to meet the learning objectives. The training materials were created by the training center using technical journals and other vendor manuals.
Which of the following actions should the trainer take?
A. Ask to meet with the curriculum developers to see if they want help developing materials for
the next class.
B. Ask the training center to send supplementary materials to the students in the class.
C. Report the inadequacy and ask the training center staff to contact the curriculum developer to
makecorrections.
D. Provide the curriculum developer with a specific list of corrections and changes to use for the
next course.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
An experienced instructor has just completed an instructional assignment that the instructor judges to have been unsuccessful. The instructor believes that the difficulty experienced was due in part to the scheduling of the course, which conflicted with the work schedules of many of the learners.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing for the instructor to do in this situation?
A. Inform the learners' supervisors that the planning for the course was inadequate.
B. Downplay the significance of learner comments since the course was not successful.
C. Report observations along with comments from the learners to the training manager.
D. Try to obtain the learners' work schedules to support the instructor's judgment about the cause
of the problem.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
To minimize bias in assessing learner attainment of course objectives, a trainer must do which of the following?
A. Measure each learner's progress from the individual's starting point.
B. Measure each learner from a choice of standards based on individual learning styles.
C. Measure all learners against the same pre-established standard.
D. Measure all learners by using evaluation techniques that are unobtrusive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Question 1. Refer to the exhibit The pictures on the fight ate the internal components of the Cisco UCS 6250 Blade Server Which component image should be applied to which empty component block? A. CPU for block A, adapter card for block B, hard drive for block C. memory for block D B. CPU for block C. adapter card for block D, hard drive for block A. memory for block B C. CPU for block B, adapter card for block C, hard drive for block D, memory for block B D. CPU for block D. adapter card for block A. hard drive for block B. memory for block C Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two commands or key sequences display a list of the available commands in the Cisco NXOS prompt UCS-switch (nxos) #? (Choose two) A. Tab (key) B. help C. ? D. ~ (tilde key) E. w Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 3. Refer to the exhibit Which tab displays the hard disk drives that are installed1? A. A-CPUs B. B - Memory C. Power Supplies D. D - Storage E. E -Adapters Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device types of Overall Status are acceptable and do not indicate failure? (Choose two.) A. Online B. OK C. Unassociated D. Active Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 5. Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects? A. KVM cable B. console cable C. Ethernet cable D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which cable is used to access the command-line -interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects? A. KVM cable B. console cable C. Ethernet cable D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. A. Block A, power supply. Block B is a supervisor module B. Block A is switching module, Block B is a fan try Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. From the Cisco NX-OS prompt"UCS-switch (nxos) #, which command displays the Cisco NX-OS configuration that is currently in use? A. show configuration B. show startup-config C. show boot-config D. show mem-config E. show running-config Answer: E Explanation: Question 9. Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement? A. Force the server to shut down B. Disassociate the service profile C. Decommission the server D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt? UCS-switch-A (nxos)# A. maintenance mode B. EXEC mode C. local management mode D. global configuration mode E. Cisco IOS mode Answer: A Explanation:
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Question 1. Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT: A. A third-party identity provider. B. The customer organization. C. The SaaS provider. D. A user. Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications? A. Cloud providers will do application development. B. The development process needs to change. C. The role of the IT department will change. D. This can speed up the development process. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their contract? A. Consult the company's exit plan. B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier. C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers. D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common? A. Involvement of external staff B. Improved flexibility C. Reduced expense D. Shorter time to market Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud computing? A. Provisioning services B. Incident management C. Technology upgrade monitoring D. Security and risk management Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the function of orchestration services? A. Assemble functional requirements for application development B. Configure application clusters with Web services C. Enable and disable load balancers D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing? A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction B. Desire for improved security C. Desire for improved user experience D. Desire for reducing compliance issues Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is important to standardize? A. Information standards and applications B. User names and hardware providers C. Virtual machine images and applications D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost. A. increases B. reduces C. shifts D. equates Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party. A. companies, others B. companies, themselves C. individuals, others D. individuals, themselves Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode? A. EPP/ECP B. ECP C. EPS D. EPP Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops? A. PCI B. PCMCIA C. MCA D. ISA Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. Processor B. LAN Card C. RAM D. HDD Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU? A. Caching B. DMA C. Spoofing D. Spooling Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable? A. RAM B. NIC C. Hard disk D. Motherboard Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer? A. Quick formatting B. High-level formatting C. Low-level formatting D. Initial-level formatting Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. What amount of data can a sector hold? A. 1000 bytes B. 512 bytes C. 625 bytes D. 1024 bytes Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. RAM B. HDD C. CD-ROM D. CPU Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard? A. VGA B. DVI C. CGA D. SVGA Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port? A. 256 Kbps B. 800 Mbps C. 256 Mbps D. 400 Mbps Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following statements about a riser card is true? A. It is used to connect a computer in a network. B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors. C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards. D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards. Answer: D Explanation: Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards. Question 2. Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)? A. E-book reader B. Memory card reader C. Smart card reader D. Barcode reader Answer: B Explanation: A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader. Question 3. Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Biometrics B. Encryption C. Password D. Token Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The following can be used to accomplish authentication. 1. Password 2. Biometrics 3. Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication server. What is biometrics? Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication. Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication. Question 4. Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SMPS B. Floppy drive C. Monitor D. Keyboard. Answer: A, C Explanation: A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal electric shocks. Question 5. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. USB B. DB-25 C. PS/2 D. DB-9 Answer: A, C Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins, whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Question 6. Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Hot plugging B. Hibernate mode C. Standby mode D. Safe mode Answer: B, C Explanation: The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled, users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. Question 7. Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SVGA B. Active Matrix C. Passive Matrix D. X-Matrix Answer: B, C Explanation: Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors. LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect. SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix. Question 8. Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio? A. DVI B. S-Video C. SVGA D. HDMI Answer: D Explanation: HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and alldigital audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multichannel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals. One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using SVideo, the device sending the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High- Definition_Multimedia_Interface" Question 9. You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion card should you use? A. MCA B. PCMCIA C. PCI D. AGP Answer: B Explanation: PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a legacy graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot. Reference. http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm Question 10. Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to protect a computer from new viruses? A. Definition B. Modules C. Service pack D. Hotfix Answer: A Explanation: Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file contains information about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them. Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are generally related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements. Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"
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Question 1. Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA? A. Private key B. Symmetric key C. Recovery key D. Public key Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server? A. XTACACS B. TACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Where are revoked certificates stored? A. Recovery agent B. Registration C. Key escrow D. CRL Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. DRPs should contain which of the following? A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel B. Hierarchical list of critical systems C. Hierarchical access control lists D. Identification of single points of failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent: A. password sharing. B. escalation of privileges. C. implicit deny. D. administrative account lockout. Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised? A. Full disk encryption B. Common access card C. Strong password complexity D. Biometric authentication Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. IPv4 D. ICMP Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack? A. Memory addressing B. Directory traversal C. Initial vector D. Session cookies Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended recipient can decrypt the ciphertext? A. Private B. Escrow C. Public D. Preshared Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports? A. VLAN separation B. Access control C. Loop protection D. DMZ Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz? A. PC133 B. PC2700 C. PC3200 D. PC10600 Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted FIRST? A. Reset the CMOS B. Rollback to a restore point C. Boot into Safe Mode D. Reconfigure the BIOS Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of which of the following classes? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound? A. VGA B. S-Video C. DVI D. HDMI Answer: D Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling process? A. Heatsink B. Fan C. Liquid cooling system D. Thermal compound Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST approach? A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help. B. Ask open-ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem. C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain. D. Ask focused questions that lead the customer with yes or no answers. Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month? A. Laser B. Thermal C. Inkjet D. Dot Matrix Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation? A. Windows Key + L B. CTRL + ALT + Delete C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this? A. Bluetooth card B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard C. 802.11n WiFi card D. Cellular WAN card Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem? A. Upgrade the BIOS. B. Release the LCD cutoff switch. C. Toggle the WiFi switch. D. Toggle the Fn key. Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company’s LAN. This upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements, bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning process? A. Conduct a vulnerability scan B. Establish a network baseline C. Conduct traffic analysis D. Conduct a risk assessment Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity. Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity? A. Behavioral Based IDS B. Signature Based IDS C. Behavioral Based IPS D. Signature Based IPS Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network? A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider. B. Create a list of requirements and constraints. C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar. D. Choose the correct operating system version. Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. A username and PIN B. A username and password C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card D. A username, password, and key fob number Answer: D Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial cable? A. RJ-11 B. BNC C. LC D. DB-9 Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP address provided through DHCP? A. DNS suffixes B. Leases C. Static IP addressing D. Reservations Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count. B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost. D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected. Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish this? A. MAC filtering B. SSL VPN C. PPPoE D. WPA Enterprise Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one network device and not the rest of the network? A. Bus B. Peer-to-peer C. Ring D. Star Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with Internet access. Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address? A. QoS B. POP3 C. PAT D. SMTP Answer: C Explanation:
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