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Question 1.
What explains how the Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the Cisco CallManager?
A. The IP SoftPhone does not work with the Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco IP SoftPhone uses the services of the Cisco CallManager to route calls through an IP
telephony network.
C. Any IP SoftPhone plugs directly into the CallManager IPSP jack for onsite support
D. The IP SoftPhone will use CallManager to reset all voicemail on the PBX.
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Delhi and
Dakar. Headquarters and the Delaware branch office has IP Phones. The other two
offices have analog phones that are connected to FXS port on the router in the site´s
administration building. Users at these offices complain that they are unable to call out
in the PSTN or to each other.
You receive the following output:
2611#s voice port 1/0/0
Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0,
Port is 0
Type of VoicePort is FXS
Operation State is DORMANT
Administrative State is UP
No Interface Down Failure
Description is not set
Noise Regeneration is enabled
Non Linear Processing is enabled
Non Linear Mute is disabled
Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB
Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm
In Gain is Set to 0 dB
Out Attention is Set to 3 dB
Echo Cancellation is enabled
Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled
Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB
Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default
Playout-delay Mode is set to default
Playout-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms
Playout-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms
Playout-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms
Playout-delay Fax is set to 300 ms
Connection Mode is normal
Connection Number is not set
Initial Time Out is set to 10 s
Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s
Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s
Ringing Time Out is set to 180 s
Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s
Companding Type is u-law
Region Tone is set for US
Analog Info Follows:
Currently processing none
Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode)
Number of signaling protocol errors are 0
Impedance is set to 600r Ohm
Station name None, Station number None
Voice card specific Info Follows:
Signal Type is groundStart
Ring Frequency is 25 Hz
Hook Status is On Hook
Ring Active Status is inactive
Ring Ground Status is inactive
Tip Ground Status is inactive
Digit Duration Status is inactive
Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms
InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms
No disconnect acknowledge
Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection
Ring Cadance are [20 40] * 100 msec
2611#
What is the cause of this problem?
A. The cptone is incorrect
B. The dial-type is incorrect
C. The signal type is incorrect
D. The playout-delay is incorrect
E. The disconnect-ack is incorrect
Answer: C
Question 3.
You are the network technician at ITCertKeys .com. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what factors affects audio quality.
What will your reply be?
A. Echo and delay variation
B. Infidelity and delay variation
C. Echo and playout delay buffer
D. Infidelity and transmission medium
Answer: A
Question 4.
What could happen if the playout delay buffer size is configured too large?
A. The overall echo on the connection may rise to unacceptable levels.
B. The overall delay on the connection may rise to unacceptable levels.
C. The overall stress on the connection may rise to unacceptable levels.
D. The overall volume on the connection may rise to unacceptable levels.
Answer: B
Question 5.
You are the network engineer at ITCertKeys .com. You have configured dial peers in a hunt group for a Support team that answers when the number 5952215 is dialled.
The Support team consists of one senior agent and three junior agents. You want the senior agent to receive the incoming call first.
Which dial peer should you configure to point to the senior agent?
A. dial-peer voice 1 pots
destination-pattern 5952215
port 1/0/0
preference 1
B. dial-peer voice 2 pots
destination-pattern 5952215
port 1/0/1
preference 0
C. dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 5952215
port 1/1/0
preference 9
D. dial-peer voice 4 pots
destination-pattern 5952215
port 1/1/1
preference 0
Answer: D
Note: "D" is a valid answer but based on the configuration statements shown "B" would
work. Both have the preference set to 0 and all other statements in each answer are correct.
Question 6.
What is used in the Cisco implementation of T.37?
A. Special gateways configured as IVRs
B. Special gateways configured as TIFFs
C. Special gateways configured as on-ramps and off ramps
D. Special gateways configured as MTA, MDN, and DSN parameters
Answer: C
Question 7.
You are the network engineer at ITCertKeys .com. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee
wants to know what a voice gateway is.
What will your reply be?
A. It is a device that connects two dissimilar networks.
B. It is a device that transports voice and restricts data.
C. It is a device that can support only a distributed call processing model.
D. It is a device that cannot be connected to the traditional PSTN network.
Answer: B
Question 8.
You are the network technician at ITCertKeys .com. Your newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee wants to know what function T-CCS performs.
What will your reply be?
A. It allows a PBX to pass signalling to the PSTN switch.
B. It allows a PBX to pass analog signalling to the router
C. It allows a PBX to pass signalling to the router for compression and processing
D. It allows a PBX to pass proprietary signalling to another PBX across the IP network.
Answer: D
Question 9.
What does the PBX use to determine the destination of a call?
A. An ISDN ANI packet
B. A blocked/permitted call list
C. An analysis of the dialled digits
D. Historic requests from the specific phone extension
Answer: C
Question 10.
You are the Voice technician at ITCertKeys , Inc. You want to deploy an IP telephony
solution for the company. The ITCertKeys network is currently a traditional LAN/WAN
based on Frame Relay.
Your CEO has read about the issues of converging both data and voice traffic onto a
single network. She is concerned about the quality of their calls that need to cross the
WAN in particularly.
What would you need to implement to ensure QoS for VoIP over Frame Relay?
A. Traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Class Based Weighted Fair
Queuing
B. Traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Weighted Random Early
Detection
C. Fragmentation, traffic shaping, priority queuing, Low Latency Queuing, and link efficiency with
cRTP.
D. Fragmentation, traffic shaping, priority queuing, Call Admission Control, and Weighted
Random Early Detection
Answer: C
Question 11.
What identifies an MGCP endpoint?
A. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and local name of the user.
B. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and remote name of the user.
C. A two part identifier that consists of the domain name of the user and the IP address of the
gateway.
D. A two part identifier that consists of the local name of the user and the domain name of the
gateway.
Answer: D
Question 12.
You are the network engineer at ITCertKeys .com. ITCertKeys has its headquarters in New York and a branch office in Delaware. Users at headquarters must be able to call users at the branch office and users at the branch office must be able to call headquarters.
How many dial peers must you configure to meet these requirements?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. none
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which statements are true about the HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition CLI? (Select two.)
A. CLI cannot be used for license management.
B. Input can be single line entries or scripted batch files.
C. CLI is a separately licensed product with the XP24000.
D. When installed, the CLI is executed from the SVP in the array.
E. CLI is used if a text-based interface is preferred over the GUI or when it is more efficient to run
scripts or batch files to manage XP disk arrays.
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Where does the HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition management server store configuration and statistics information?
A. out on the individual host agents
B. in shared memory of the XP array
C. on the SVPs of each array subsystem
D. in a local database on the management server
Answer: D
Question 3.
When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP?
A. simple LUN management
B. CLI based array management
C. Business Copy XP management
D. centralized management of multiple XP arrays
Answer: D
Question 4.
A customer wants to manage their storage environment using HP Storage Essentials. Which XP device software tool is required to allow HP Storage Essentials to manage an XP24000 array?
A. External Storage XP
B. Remote Web Console XP
C. LUN Configuration and Security Manager XP
D. A separate software license is not required, as the capability is included in HP Storage
Essentials
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which additional features are added by HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? (Select three.)
A. array administration
B. SNMP trap forwarding
C. single sign-on user authentication
D. logical grouping of storage capacity
E. assignment of cache LUNs to hosts
F. displaying host specific device information
Answer: C, D, F
Question 6.
Which features offered through HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition are not available with Remote Web Console XP? (Select two.)
A. reporting
B. cache partitioning
C. SNMP trap forwarding
D. TSM and Replication Monitor
E. automation of BC/CA HORCM file creation
Answer: A, E
Question 7.
A customer wants to use the copy pair operations feature of HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition.
What is required? (Select two.)
A. a host agent
B. RAID Manager XP
C. an external database
D. at least 32GB of cache
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
Which XP array component transfers data between disk drives and cache memory?
A. Disk Adapter (DKA)
B. Shared Memory PCB
C. Channel Adapter (CHA)
D. Service Processor (SVP)
Answer: A
Question 9.
A customer has a heterogeneous environment consisting of AIX and Solaris servers.
Which software products can be used to implement an extended application failover solution? (Select two.)
A. Metro Cluster
B. ServiceGuard
C. Cluster Extension XP
D. Continuous Access XP
E. LUN Security XP Extension
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
What is the back-end architecture of the XP24000?
A. Ultra SCSI
B. Serial ATA
C. FC-AL 4Gb
D. FC-SW 2Gb
Answer: C
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1.
The customer's Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera.
What is a possible problem?
A. CE + is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA tile was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn't turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
Question 3.
Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool.
An access profile has already been created. Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating pool mappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create pool mapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is an "unbundled" cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to
deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
Question 5.
What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary
cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the
secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power
rail
Answer: A
Question 6.
How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function "M" in the menu
Answer: C
Question 7.
Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 8.
What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi- Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
Question 9.
A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production.
How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done. data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
Question 10.
With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Exhibit:
According to the exhibit, R1/BCV on Symm321 and R2 on Symm654 is pair 1, and R1/BCV on Sym654 and R2 on Symm987 is pair 2.
Which of the following commands is utilized for the control SRDF device operations on these two pairs?
A. Symrdf -bcv symrdf brbcv
B. syumrdf symrdf -rbcv
C. Symrdf Jcv symrdf -rdf -bcv
D. Symmir -rdf Jcv symrdf -rbcv
Answer: A
Question 2.
To simultaneously provide Read-Write acc4ess to both the R1 and R2 Volumes of the mydg device group, which SRDF symcli command would be used?
A. symrdf mydg spilt
B. symrdf mydg failover
C. symrdf mydg suspend
D. symrdf mydg spilt -concurrent
E. symrdf mydg suspend - concurrent
Answer: A
Question 3.
You Use Timefinder Snap to issue the following command:
Symnsnap list havedevs
Which two of the following statements best describes the output? (Choose two)
A. Percent full of the active Snap Session is shown.
B. The Symmetrix volumes associated with the Snap Save Devices are listed.
C. Percent full of the Save Devices is shown.
D. Lists the virtual devices associated with the Snap savedev device group.
E. Lists the active Snap Sessions.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
TimeFinder consistent splits are created by using which two items? (Choose two)
A. Resource Pak
B. Symmetrix integration Utilities (SIU)
C. PowerPath
D. Enginuity Consistency Assist (ECA)
E. Persistent Storage Manager
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
A device group with SRDF source devices would be created by using which of the following SYMCLI commands?
A. symcreate namedg type RDF1
B. symdg create namedg -type RDF1
C. symdg create namedg type REGULAR
D. symdg create namedg type RDF1
Answer: D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the left, by placing them in the space provided on the right. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
For the following, you need to match the Symmetrix device type with the replication technology that it employs. Options may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 8.
What are the three features of SRDF/A, if cache and bandwidth are suitably configured? (Choose three)
A. Seconds of data exposure.
B. Unlimited distance.
C. No performance impact.
D. Some performance impact.
E. Hours of data exposure.
F. Limited distance.
G. No data exposure.
Answer: B, C, G
Question 9.
How can the Fibre Channel Buffer Credits, needed for a given distance, be calculated quickly?
A. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 1.6.
B. By dividing the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
C. By dividing the circuit distance in miles by 2.
D. By multiplying the circuit distance in kilometers by 2.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the exhibit above, the SRDF primary mode of operation is Synchronous, there is no secondary mode selected and the SRDF link is ready. While Production work on Host A is in progress, both local mirrors of the R1 Volume fail.
What will happen in this situation?
A. The Symmetrix will automatically change the status of the R2 Volume to write-enabled and
Production work an continue form Host B.
B. Production work can continue from Host A but new write operation cannot be perform.
C. Production work can continue from Host A without interruption. All new writes will accumulate
as invalid tracks from the R1 Volume.
D. Product ion work form Host A will fail. The application should be restarted form the Disaster
Recovery Host B.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
Select the two Connectrix MDS Models that are Multiprotocol (iSCSI / FCIP Storage Services Module) Ready? (Choose two)
A. MDS 9140
B. MDS 9120
C. MDS 9509
D. MDS 1032
E. MDS 9216
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
For what reason is having BCVs attached to the R2 devices at the remote site in a SRDF/A configuration recommended?
A. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a split operation.
B. To mirror R2 devices for backup purpose in a disaster recovery scenario.
C. To preserve extra tracks that would not fit into the cache of R2's COVD devices.
D. To preserve a consistent copy of data at the remote site before a resynchronization operation.
Answer: D
Question 3.
EMC Replication Manager supports which three of the following features? (Choose three)
A. Provides incremental establish and restore functionality on CLARiiON storage arrays.
B. Exploits the incremental establish and restore capabilities of TimeFinder on Symmetrix storage
systems.
C. Automates tape backup based user specified schedule.
D. Restore automatically take advantage of the CLARiiON array's Protected Restore feature.
E. Performs TimeFinder Snap on Symmetrix Storage Systems.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they enquire as to how you created a recoverable copy of data, using TimeFinder. By way of explanation, arrange the tasks in the order you carried it out.
Answer:
Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com's storage administrator wants to synchronize one device pair within a TimeFinder device group.
Which of the following command will achieve this objective?
A. symrdf namedf incremental BCV dev 0b3
B. symdev namedg full establish BCV dev 0b3
C. symmir namedg incremental BCV dev 0b3
D. symmir namedg full establish DEV003 BCV dev 0b3
Answer: D
Question 6.
The ControlCenter's interaction with its components can be described by what three statements?(Choose three)
A. The ECC Store retrieves real-time data requested by the Console.
B. The repository maintains current and historical data relating to EMC ControlCenter.
C. ControlCenter commands are passed over a TCP/IP network from the Console periodically
directly to the Agents.
D. The EMC ControlCenter Server provides most of the common services, which tie the
infrastructure together.
E. The Console relies on the EMC ControlCenter Server for information.
Answer: B, D, E
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
As an instructor at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to match the correct ECC agents with the tasks on the right, by placing them in the space provided on the left. (NOTE: agents may be used more than once.)
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two are Symmetrix Host Adapters that is supported by Powerpath4.2? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. Fibre
C. Ficon
D. ESCON
E. SCSI
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which of the following are three Operating systems that support PowerPath pseudo devices? (Choose three)
A. SUN Solaris
B. HP-UX
C. Linux
D. AIX
E. Windows 200/2003
Answer: A, C, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You are an instructor at ITCertKeys.com and they ask you to match the control center component pairs with the given maximum recommended network latency times, bearing in mind that these latency times may be used more than once.
Answer:
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Question 1.
CLARiiON metaLUN expansion is best described by which statement?
A. Only a cancatented metaLUN can be expanded
B. A metaLUN cannot be expanded
C. A metaLUN can be expanded
D. Only a striped metaLUN can be expanded
Answer: C
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
In your capacity as the Storage administrator at ITCertKeys.com, you are required to arrange the tasks necessary to assign a LUN to a host, in the Navisphere GUI, into the correct sequence?
Answer:
Question 3.
Multihoming and cluster support with EMC ControlCenter can be described by which two of the following statements? (Choose two)
A. The ControlCenter installation program requires manual input to specify the multiple interface
connections
B. Multihoming is typically used for LAN traffic management
C. ControlCenter supports Adapter Teaming (Grouping network adapter ports for a connection to
a single physical segment)
D. ControlCenter is supported on hosts that have multiple network interface cards (NICs) or one
NIC with multiple interface connections
E. Multihoming is optional if you plan to install ControlCenter with Cluster Support
Answer: D, E
Question 4.
Assuming that zoning is already configured, which two tasks should you carry out after completing SDR operation in a Fibre Channel switched environment? (Choose two)
A. Set the new device state to" Write Disabled".
B. Perform LUN masking
C. Reconfigure the host to recognize the new devices that are available for access
D. Set the new device state to not ready.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
When a ControlCenter Store is overloaded, which are two possible actions that you should consider taking?
A. Add a ControlCenter Store
B. Add a ControlCenter Server
C. Add ControlCenter Master Agents
D. Distribute Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
E. Increase the frequency of the Data Collection Policies (DCPs)
Answer: A, D
Question 6.
What would cause the Free Space view in the ControlCenter Console not to work?
A. You need to customize the Console to make it work
B. Free Space view is a report in StorageScope, it is not a view in the Console
C. The ARM License is not installed
D. You have to install a Service Pack
Answer: C
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Match the appropriate agent with the corresponding object that it manages.
Answer:
Question 8.
You are an administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com is planning a ControlCenter 5.1.2 that must meet the following requirements:
Support for 12 medium size Symmetrix arrays.Storage Agents for Symmetrix on production hosts.Support for redundant Storage Agents for Symmetrix.WLA Archiver.
To meet these requirements, what is the minimum number of Symmetrix agents you should deploy?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the projected database space required for 1 Terabyte of scanned data when you are sizing the VisualSRM database server?
A. 1.3 GB
B. 0.5 GB
C. 0.8 GB
D. 3.5 GB
Answer: A
Question 10.
Within the ControlCenter Console, what are the four kinds of Workload Analyzer-related Data Collection Policies that you can configure and enable? (Choose four)
A. WLA Summary
B. WLA Revolving
C. WLA Analyst
D. WLA Daily
E. WLA Retention
F. WLA Scheduled
Answer: B, C, D, E
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Question 1.
How many Zone Sets can be Activated per Fabric using SAN Manager?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
Question 2.
In an environment with hosts already accessing devices, which three [3] tasks must be performed to add volume access to a host?
A. Add access to the new devices on the HBAs
B. Unmask the devices from the HBAs
C. Refresh the VCMDB
D. Initialize the VCMDB
E. Backup VCMDB
F. Commit the masking to VCMDB
Answer: A, B, E
Question 3.
How many Bytes in length is the Fibre Channel Address field?
NOTE: Type in your answer in digits (0, 12, 321, etc.). Do NOT spell out your answer (one, two, etc.).
Answer:
Answer: 3
Question 4.
Which item changes when a link is physically moved from one switch port to another?
A. World Wide name.
B. N_Port Physical address.
C. NAT Table address.
D. AL_PA Address.
Answer: B
Question 5.
What is the Hexadecimal address of the Name Server in a Fabric?
A. FFFFFE
B. FFFFFC
C. FFFFFF
D. FFFFFD
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which Protocol is characterized by distance, connectivity and speed?
A. Escon
B. Fibre
C. SCSI
D. Bus & Tag
Answer: B
Question 7.
Where do you find information about logged in ports?
A. Directory Server
B. Port Login Table
C. Name Server Database
D. Fabric Login Service
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the correct command line syntax to upgrade a Connectrix MDS 9216 switch to firmware version 1.3.2a?
A. install all system bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
B. install all bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
C. install all kickstart :m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
D. install all kickstart bootflash:m9200-ek9-mz.1.3.2a.bin system
bootflash:m9200-ek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.2a.bin
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the factory default user identification and password for logging into a B-Series switch?
A. user - admin password - password
B. user - admin password - admin
C. user - Administrator password - password
D. user - root password - root
Answer: A
Question 10.
To which device on a Connectrix Manager Service Processor does the automated backup of the d:\ECFM directory go to?
A. DVD drive
B. Zip Drive
C. Floppy drive
D. CDROM drive
Answer: B
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Question 1.
The customer activates a VSAN for a new open system environment on the MDS-series switch.
What is the EMC recommended default zoning policy for the VSAN?
A. Deny - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
B. Permit - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
C. Permit - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
D. Deny - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are two [2] key features of Storage Management Interface (SMI)?
A. Automated discovery system
B. Common interoperable and statically management transport
C. Manually discovery system
D. Common interoperable and extensible management transport
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
The redraw time of the alerts window pane in ControlCenter takes several minutes to complete.
What do you recommend to fix this problem?
A. Edit the Alert Data Collection Policies
B. Edit the Alert Definition
C. Edit the Alert Templates
D. Edit the Alert Data Retention
Answer: D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
A customer has new DS-4100B switches. They want to turn on reporting levels of severity for messages.
Match the message to the corresponding severity level.
Answer:
Question 5.
Your company is planning to convert seven DS-32B2 standalone fabrics to a single full ISLs?
A. 112
B. 14
C. 84
D. 28
Answer: C
Question 6.
A customer has implemented a DR site 200 km away. They have an extended fabric configured between the SAN directors at each site, using a 62.5 MB/sec network infrastructure. They want to replicate mission critical data with a RPO objective of 60 seconds using SRDF and the existing SAN infrastructure.
What do you recommend to help them meet their objective?
A. They cannot meet these objectives using the existing environment
B. Add additional ISL bandwidth between directors
C. Add extended buffer credit licenses to all directors
D. SRDF/A for data replication
Answer: D
Question 7.
Exhibit:
When reviewing the print out of the trunking log in the exhibit you see the ISL rerouting.
How many ISL connections are between Domain ID 5 and Domain ID 6?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 8.
A company is replacing some M-series switches with new M-series directors. They will be replacing one for one, and want the least amount of disruption for their AIX and HP-UX boxes by maintaining their D_IDs.
How do they do this?
A. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
B. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Reboot servers
C. Set the different domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Persistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on the old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
D. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Disable Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
Answer: A
Question 9.
Two MDS-series fabrics, Fabric X and Fabric Y will be merged. Fabric X has one switch
A. Fabric Y has three switches B, C and D. The four switches are configured as domain-id preferred. Among the four switches, A has the highest priority and least WWN, C has the lowest priority, and D is the current principle switch in Fabric Y. Assume both fabrics will be merged without any conflicts.
Which switch will be the principle switch after the merge?
A. Switch B
B. Switch A
C. Switch D
D. Switch C
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is a valid FCID for a node connected to a MDS-series director in a fabric consisting of MDS-series, B-series and M-series switches?
A. 0x441111
B. 0x663333
C. 0x552222
D. 0x330000
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
An FCIP between two sites with MDS directors was successfully implemented. Dual FCIP links were connected between the two geographically separate sites. ITCertKeys.com was running a highly available IP network utilizing the HSRP protocol between their ingress/egress routers. Recently a network event caused ITCertKeys.com IT Networking team to change the IP load balancing/HA configuration from HSRP to VRRP. Since making the change the FCIP links have either been down, or worked only intermittently.
Why would the change to the IP load balancing/HA configuration cause this behavior?
A. The VRRP needs to be implemented on the MDS switches
B. The VRRP protocol will represent the inbound link as a VIP
C. The HSRP and VRRP protocols make no difference with the MDS FCIP link
D. The VRRP protocol is encrypting all of the FCIP traffic and striping the FCIP headers as part of
the encryption process
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com uses ControlCenter SAN Manager to manage their fabric. Some of the SAN administrators prefer to use switch native tools such as command line to do zoning. You have been asked to make zoning changes to the SAN.
What will you do?
A. Activate zoneset using SAN Manager before any zoning
B. Re-discover the switches in SAN Manager before zoning
C. Use command line to export zones to SAN Manager
D. Zone using command line and export zones to SAN Manager
Answer: B
Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com has a performance issue on their IP network. You find that write I/O's are making multiple round trips between the host initiator and target array.
What do you do to fix the problem?
A. Write exchange
B. Reduce number of hops
C. Increase the host cache
D. Write acceleration
Answer: D
Question 4.
There are 12 Solaris hosts connected to two fabrics and a DMX2000. All the hosts are dual-pathed using Emulex HBAs. All 12 HBAs in each fabric are connected and zoned to one FA port. Each host is doing 2000 IOPS. Each I/O size is 64KB. Two of the hosts are receiving the following error in their /var/adm/messages file: SCSI transport failed:
reason 'timeout': retrying command
What do you advise ITCertKeys.com to do?
A. Use Unix command sysdef queue_depth command to increase the queue_depth
B. Reduce the queue depth of the HBAs reporting the SCSI retry messages in
/kernel/drv/lpfc.conf file
C. Reduce the queue depth of the HBA reporting the SCSI retry messages in
/kernel/drv/sd.conf file
D. Increase the queue depth of the HBAs reporting the SCSI retry messages in
/kernel/drv/lpfc.conf file
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which iSCSI discovery method requires the target's IP address, TCP port, and iSCSI target name?
A. Discovery
B. BootP
C. Zero-configuration
D. Static
Answer: D
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com wants to consolidate their current SAN consisting of four fully populated ED-64M2s, two DS-32M2 switches and two DS-32B2 switches. Current total throughput is 80% of their aggregate bandwidth. Customer anticipates 70% increase in throughput over the next two years. ITCertKeys.com wants ED-64M2.
How many ED-64M2's are required considering the future growth?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 10
D. 14
Answer: B
Question 7.
Customer has implemented HP-UX Campus Cluster using dual-lock disks. They have experienced "split brain" syndrome in the past.
What is a permanent fix for this problem?
A. Unlock cluster lock disks
B. Implement a single lock disk
C. Add one more node to both sides of the cluster
D. Implement multiple network and heartbeat configurations for each node in the cluster
Answer: D
Question 8.
Click the Exhibit button. Six I/Os arrive at disk director together. The inter-arrival time is 0. The disk controller is servicing one I/O at a time. The exhibit displays information relevant to average response time.
What is the average response time?
A. 33
B. 5.5
C. 16.83
D. 22.33
Answer: D
Question 9.
Click the Exhibit button.
What would the fabric display in the diagram look like using Connectrix Manager?
A. You would see a single fabric containing all local and remote switches
B. You would only see the local fabric
C. You would not see anything in the display
D. You would see two fabrics displayed independent of each other
Answer: A
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button. ITCertKeys.com is monitoring their IBM AIX server connected to a DMX using the vmstat command. They are concerned that the host has a disk I/O bottleneck and give you the printout in the exhibit.
What is the problem?
A. HBA bottleneck
B. CPU bottleneck
C. Memory shortage
D. Disk I/O bottleneck
Answer: C
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