Question 1.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to generate daily and monthly reports. ISA1 publishes the reports to a folder named IsaReports. You
generate custom reports to indicate user activity during the weekends of the last three months. The reports for the last five weekends display correct data. However, reports for previous weekends cannot be displayed. Only monthly activity summary reports are available for previous months. You need to provide custom reports that show the actual activity for all the weekends during the last three months. 

What should you do?

A. Configure the Microsoft Data Engine (MSDE) database log files to be saved for 130 days. 
    Restore the MSDE database log files from backup for the last three months.
B. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Restore the log summary files from backup 
    for the last three months.
C. Delete the log summary files. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Disable and 
    then re-enable log summary reports.
D. In the IsaReports folder, create a new folder for each of the weekends. Copy the respective 
    daily report files for each day of a weekend into their corresponding folders.

Answer: A

Question 2.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 has two network adapters. Access rules allow users on the Internal network to have HTTP access to the Internet. You add a third network adapter to ISA1 and connect the third network adapter to a perimeter network.

You place a Web server named WebServer2 on this perimeter network segment. WebServer2 must be accessible to computers on the Internal network. You create a computer object for WebServer2 and then create an access rule that allows Internal network clients HTTP access to WebServer2.

Users are not required to authenticate with ISA1 to access WebServer2. Users report that they cannot access information on WebServer2. When they attempt to access the Web site, they receive the following error message: Error Code 10060: Connection timeout. Background: There was a time out before the page could be retrieved. This might indicate that the network is congested or that the website is experiencing technical difficulties. You need to ensure that users on the Internal network can access information on WebServer2. First, you verify that WebServer2 is operational.

What should you do next?

A. Create a network rule that sets a route relationship between the Internal network and the 
    perimeter network.
B. Create a server publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
C. Create a Web publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network.
D. Create an access rule that allows WebServer2 access to the Internal network.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. The IP address bound to the external network adapter of ISA1 is 192.168.100.141. You run the netstat Cna command on ISA1. The relevant portion of the output is shown in the following table. 
 

You need to be able to quickly verify whether ISA1 is allowing traffic to TCP port 139. 

What should you do?

A. From a remote computer, run the pathping command to query ISA1.
B. From a remote computer, use a port scanner to query ISA1.
C. On ISA1, use the Portqry.exe tool to query ISA1.
D. On ISA1, use the Netdiag.exe tool to query ISA1.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine (MSDE 2000) database logging is enabled on ISA1. ISA1 is configured with 512 MB of RAM and a single 60-GB hard disk. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You need to identify the source of the slow performance. 

Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. MSSQL$MSFW:Databases(*)\Transactions/sec
D. MSSQL$MSFW:MemoryManager\Target Server Memory (KB)
E. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
F. Physical Disk\Split IO/sec

Answer: A, E

Question 5.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 provides Internet access for all users on the companys network. All computers on the network are configured as SecureNAT clients. You create an access rule on ISA1 that allows all users access to all protocols on the External network. You view the Firewall log and the Web Proxy filter log on ISA1 and notice that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are not displayed. You need to ensure that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are displayed in the ISA1 log files. 

What should you do?

A. Configure all network computers as Web Proxy clients.
B. Configure all network computers as Firewall clients.
C. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for Web requests.
D. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for all protocols.

Answer: D

Question 6.
You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to publish two Web sites named www.fabrikam.com and www.contoso.com. Both Web sites are located on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server1. The IP address of Server1 is 10.0.0.2.

The Web publishing rules are configured as shown in the following display. 
 

Both the www.fabrikam.com/info and www.contoso.com/info virtual directories point to a common file share. The default log view does not allow you to easily distinguish between requests for www.fabrikam.com/info and requests for www.contoso.com/info. A sample of the log with the relevant entries is shown in the following table.
 

You need to ensure that the log viewer displays the fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) for the Web site requests. In addition, you need to filter the log viewer to display only the requests for both the www.contoso.com/info and the www.fabrikam.com/info virtual subdirectories.

What should you do?

A. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to 10.0.0.2. Configure each 
    Web publishing rule to use the FQDN of its respective Web site on the To tab. In the log 
    viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text 
    string info.
B. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to the external IP address 
    of ISA1. Configure each Web publishing rule so that requests appear to come from the original 
    client computer. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. In the log 
    viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text 
    string info.
C. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first 
    condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 1. Configure the second condition so that the 
    Rule equals Web Publish 2. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host
    name.
D. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first 
    condition so that Server contains Fabrikam. Configure the second condition so that Server 
    contains Contoso. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name.

Answer: B

Question 7.
You install ISA Server 2006 on a computer that has three network adapters. One of the network adapters is connected to the Internet, one is connected to the Internal network, and one is connected to a perimeter network. The perimeter network adapter and the internal network adapter are connected to private address networks. You configure ISA Server by applying the 3-Leg Perimeter network template. You run the 3-Leg Perimeter Network Template wizard. You then make the following changes to the firewall policy: 
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the Internet.
• Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the perimeter 
  network.
• Create an access rule to allow SMTP traffic from an SMTP server on the perimeter network to a 
  Microsoft Exchange Server computer on the Internal network.
• Create a server publishing rule to allow SMTP traffic from the External network to the SMTP 
   server on the perimeter network.

Users report that they cannot receive e-mail messages from users outside of the Internal network. You need to allow users to receive e-mail messages from other users on the Internet. You do not want to create a server publishing rule.

What should you do?

A. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network 
    and the Internal network to Route.
B. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, 
    perimeter network, and External network to Route.
C. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network 
    and the External network to NAT.
D. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, 
    perimeter network, and External network to NAT.

Answer: A

Question 8.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You suspect that insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance of ISA1. You need to verify whether insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance. 

Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Memory\Pages/sec
B. Process(W3Prefch)\Pool Nonpaged Bytes
C. ISA Server Cache\Memory Usage Ratio Percent (%)
D. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length
E. ISA Server Cache\Disk Write Rate (writes/sec)
F. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes

Answer: A, C

Question 9.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is connected to the Internet. VPN access is configured to ISA1. RADIUS is configured as the only type of authentication for VPN connections. All remote users can connect to ISA1 by using a VPN connection.

All internal users can connect to the Internet. You are replacing ISA1 with a new ISA Server computer named ISA2. You export the network-level node configuration settings on ISA1 to a file named ISAconfig.xml. You import the ISAconfig.xml file on ISA2. You replace ISA1 with ISA2 on the network. Remote VPN users report that they cannot authenticate to gain access to the network. Internal network users report that they cannot connect to the Internet. You need to configure ISA2 to allow incoming and outgoing access for company users. 

What should you do?

A. Export the system policy configuration settings on ISA1 to an .xml file. Import the .xml file on 
    ISA2.
B. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported 
    configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
C. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include user permission settings in the 
    exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.
D. Export the VPN Clients configuration on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported 
    configuration file. Import the file on ISA2.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1, which runs Windows Server 2003. ISA1 has three network adapters. Each adapter is connected to one of the following: Internal network, perimeter network, and Internet. All administrative hosts exist in the Internal network. You create a file named C:\Alerts\NetworkAlert.cmd. The NetworkAlert.cmd uses net.exe to send the following message to all administrative computers: Problem with network connectivity on ISA1.

You enable the default Network configuration changed alert. You add a custom alert named Network Connectivity. The properties of the Network Connectivity alert are configured as shown in the Alert Events exhibit and the Alert Actions exhibit. 
 

You test the Network Connectivity alert by disabling the ISA1 network adapter that is connected to the perimeter network. You see the corresponding alert in both the Alerts view and the application log of Event Viewer. However, the message is not received on any of the administrative computers.

You need to ensure that the administrative computers receive the text message when the Network Connectivity alert is triggered. You also need to be able to test the alert by disabling the perimeter network adapter on ISA1.

What should you do?

A. Disable the default Network configuration changed alert.
B. Enable and start the messenger service and the alert service on ISA1 and on your 
    administrative computer.
C. On ISA1, configure the DisableDHCPMediaSense entry with a value of 1.
D. Configure the Network Connectivity alert actions to run NetworkAlert.cmd by using an account 
    that has the Log on as a batch job right.

Answer: A

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Braindumps for "70-540" Exam

Microsoft Windows Mobile Application Development

 Question 1.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application stores real-time order information for small businesses. The number of orders ranges from a minimum of 0 to a maximum of 5000. You need to ensure that the application achieves optimum performance for any number of orders within the specified range.

Which class should you choose?

A. OrderedDictionary
B. HybridDictionary
C. ListDictionary
D. Hashtable

Answer: B

Question 2.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You are required to create custom data types that derive from a system type.

The system type must satisfy the following requirements:
Ensure the type safety of collections during compilation.
Improve the code readability of the application.
Minimize the potential for run-time errors.
You need to identify the system type that meets the outlined requirements.

Which system type should you choose?

A. Delegate type
B. Nullable type
C. Generic type
D. Value type

Answer: C

Question 3.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application uses a custom exception class named MyException that transmits stack information. The MyException class is derived from the Exception class. The application contains a method named ThrowException. You write the following code segment.
try { ThrowException(); }
The ThrowException method throws an exception of type MyException.
You need to rethrow the exception. You also need to preserve the stack information of previous exceptions.

Which code segment should you use?

A. catch ( MyException ex) {
    throw new Exception( ex.Message );
    }
B. finally {
    throw new MyException();
    }
C. catch {
    throw;
    }
D. catch (Exception ex) {
    throw ex;
    }

Answer: C

Question 4.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named InventoryManager. The InventoryManager class uses events to alert subscribers about changes in inventory levels. You need to create delegates in the InventoryManager class to raise events to subscribers.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    public delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
    (object source, EventArgs e);
B. private event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    private delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
    (object source, EventArgs e);
C. public event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    public void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
    this.OnInventoryChange();
    }
D. private event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
    private void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
    this.OnInventoryChange();
    }

Answer: A

Question 5.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased inventory application. The application must create reports that display inventory part numbers. 

You need to write a method named WritePart that displays the part numbers in the following format:
A minimum of three digits to the left of the decimal point
Exactly two digits to the right of the decimal point
Left-aligned output

Which code segment should you use?

A. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.00", ci));
    }
B. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.##", ci));
    }
C. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.##", ci));
    }
D. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
    Console.WriteLine
    ("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.00", ci));
    }

Answer: A

Question 6.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application. The application uses a StringBuilder class to manipulate text.
You write the following code segment.
StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(100);

After the code segment is executed, the text buffer of the StringBuilder class displays the following text:
Microsoft Corporation, Redmond, WA.
You need to write a code segment to clear the text of the StringBuilder class.

Which code segment should you use?

A. sb.Capacity = 0;
B. sb.Length = 0;
C. sb.Replace(sb.ToString(), "", 0, 100);
D. sb.Remove(0, 100);

Answer: B

Question 7.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application will manage product inventory for retail stores. You are creating a class that will contain a method named Contains. The method will search for the items in the store. The items are of reference types and value types. You need to identify the code that uses the minimum amount of execution time for both reference types and value types.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public bool Contains(T[] array, T value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (EqualityComparer.Default.Equals(array[i], value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
B. public bool Contains(T[] array, object value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (array.GetValue(i).Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
C. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj.Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
D. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj == value)
return true;
}
return false;
}

Answer: A

Question 8.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named Employee. You also create an Executive class, a Manager class, and a Programmer class. These three classes inherit from the Employee class. You need to create a custom type-safe collection that manages only those classes that are derived from the Employee class.

Which code segment should you choose?

A. class EmployeeCollection < T > : List < T >
B. class Emp l oyeeCollection < T > : ICollection
C. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:class
D. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:Employee

Answer: D

Question 9.
You are creating a multithreaded Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application has two separate procedures. Each procedure must run on its own threads. public void ThreadProc1() { } 
public void ThreadProc2() { }
ThreadProc1 must complete execution before ThreadProc2 begins execution.
You need to write the code segment to run both procedures.

Which code segment should you use?

A. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
thread1.Join();
thread2.Start();
B. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
lock(thread1) {
thread1.Start();
...
}
thread2.Start();
C. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Monitor.TryEnter(thread1);
thread2.Start();
Monitor.Exit(thread1);Reset Instructions Calculator
D. .Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Interlocked.Exchange(ref thread1, thread2);
thread2.Start();

Answer: A

Question 10.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application.
You write the following code segment.
public class Target {
public void SetValue(int value) { }
}
You need to write a method named CallSetValue that calls the SetValue method by using late binding.

Which code segment should you use?

A. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
B. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
C. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}
D. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}

Answer: A

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Braindumps for "E20-050" Exam

EMC Technology Foundations - CLARiiON

 Question 1.
Name the operation(s) which can be performed with the Windows PowerPath tool.

A. Path augmentation
B. Volume add and remove
C. Channel director and path maintenance
D. HBA recovery

Answer: C

Question 2.
Explain what SnapSure is.

A. A pointer based file system replication technology
B. A replication technology that uses a Target and Source Volume of the same size
C. A replication technology based on an initial complete copy of the Source
D. A volume based filesystem replication technology

Answer: A

Question 3.
Name the state a SnapView Snapshot device has to be in to make it available to a secondary host.

A. Varied on
B. Restored
C. Split
D. Activated

Answer: D

Question 4.
Explain what NDMP is used for.

A. Mirroring
B. Backup
C. Network monitoring
D. Migration

Answer: B

Question 5.
Name the ControlCenter Console view which provides a single graphical view of the whole environment, including consolidated alerts and threshold charts.

A. Visual Storage
B. Relationship
C. Topology
D. At A Glance

Answer: D

Question 6.
Name the replication product which is used to move data within a CLARiiON array.

A. Clones
B. SAN Copy
C. MirrorView
D. Adaptive Copy

Answer: B

Question 7.
When I/O is being driven through the HBA, one of the HBAs on a host with PowerPath fails. Name the sequence which ensures the I/O is completed.

A. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout, and drives I/O through an 
    alternate path
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline, and drives I/O through an 
    alternate path
C. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed path 
    offline
D. Host takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O timeout

Answer: B

Question 8.
State the benefit VisualSAN brings to IT administrators.

A. Provides a single management console for SAN management and IP network management
B. Reduces congestion by compressing SAN traffic
C. Schedules file-based intelligent actions to execute across heterogeneous hosts
D. Consolidates information in an end-to-end view of the IT environment

Answer: D

Question 9.
Name the flushing method which is used on the CLARiiON to create free cache space for incoming host I/Os.

A. Forced
B. Low watermark
C. High watermark
D. Idle

Answer: A

Question 10.
State the load balancing policy which balances I/O requests across multiple paths based on the composition of reads, writes, and user-assigned device/application priorities.

A. Least Blocks
B. SymmOpt
C. Round Robin
D. Least I/Os

Answer: B

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Braindumps for "E20-500" Exam

EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Exam

 Question 1.
When data is written to a SnapView source LUN, at what point are the data chunks saved to the Reserved LUN pool?

A. During synchronization
B. Every time data is changed on the source
C. Every time write cache is flushed
D. When source data is changed for the first time

Answer: D

Question 2.
What are the primary goals of an optimization engagement?

A. Avoid future problems, reduce complexity, enable high availability
B. Fix existing problems, avoid future problems, reduce costs
C. Fix existing problems, improve utilization, increase efficiency
D. Reduce costs, reduce complexity, increase efficiency

Answer: D

Question 3.
What does Inter-Switch Link trunking do?

A. Allows ports on the same blade to be used for ISL
B. Enables ISL between switches to reach up to 200 km distances
C. Prohibits a port from becoming an E_Port for fabric security
D. Aggregates the bandwidth of multiple ISLs

Answer: D

Question 4.
After a Data Mover failover, how is the failback operation performed?

A. Automatically
B. Data Mover failover is not supported
C. Manually
D. Recovery is not needed until another failure occurs

Answer: C

Question 5.
A customer implemented BCVs with mirrors for use with the most critical business volumes. The standard volumes were established with the BCVs at the start of the day, but later in the day the customer discovered data corruption. 

Which action would enable a restore from uncorrupted BCV volumes?

A. Differential Split
B. Instant Split
C. Protected Restore
D. Reverse Split

Answer: D

Question 6.
You are giving a presentation to a customer about EMC virtualization products. They specifically ask about file storage virtualization. 

Which EMC product enables file storage virtualization using industry-standard protocols and mechanisms in a heterogeneous environment?

A. Invista
B. Rainfinity
C. RecoverPoint
D. Vmware

Answer: B

Question 7.
An EMC ControlCenter customer is a United States Department of Defense contractor. The contractor needs to show that there is controlled user access to devices and to the modification of these devices. This will allow the contractor to provide proof of compliance and accountability. 

Which security feature of EMC ControlCenter should you discuss with the contractor to satisfy this requirement?

A. Data collection policy (DCP)
B. EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS) Gateway
C. Role-based access control (RBAC)
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

Answer: C

Question 8.
Your customer is experiencing write performance problems on a RAID 5 LUN used for backup todisk on its CX3 array. The LUN has been placed on ATA drives. The customer has determined that it would like the LUN on Fibre Channel drives instead. The customer has requested you provide the best option to alleviate this performance problem, keeping downtime to a minimum. 

What action would you recommend?

A. Create a new LUN on fibre drives and restore the data from tape to the new LUN.
B. Implement a newer array and use MirrorView to migrate the data.
C. Use Dynamic Virtual LUN functionality to move the LUN from ATA to fibre drives.
D. Use SnapView to make a clone of the LUN on fibre drives and assign the LUN to the 
    appropriate storage group.

Answer: C

Question 9.
A customer has a CX3-80 for Exchange and a critical OLTP database application. Over the last month, during monthly batch processing, users complain of slow response times. 

Which solution will you recommend to solve this issue?

A. Access Logix
B. Performance Manager
C. Navisphere Quality of Service Manager
D. StorageScope

Answer: C

Question 10.
For reporting purposes, which source provides data for the ETL process to populate the StorageScope repository?

A. EMC ControlCenter Repository
B. Host Agents
C. Master Agents
D. Store

Answer: A

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Braindumps for "HP0-A01" Exam

HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration

 Question 1.
What does the linkloop command test?

A. router activity
B. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C. MAC address connectivity between network cards
D. loopback address connectivity between network cards

Answer: C

Question 2.
Which file contains the information sent in response to a bootp request?

A. /etc/services
B. /etc/bootptab
C. /etc/inetd.conf
D. /etc/bootp.conf

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?

A. whois
B. uname
C. nsquery
D. hostname
E. gethostbyname

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?

A. increasing throughput on the network interface
B. binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C. binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D. binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)

A. netstat
B. ifconfig
C. linkloop
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin

Answer: C, D, E

Question 6.
How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?

A. HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B. Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C. Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D. Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX 
    to 4.

Answer: D

Question 7.
Which NFS server file contains a list of clients that currently have the server's NFS file systems mounted?

A. /etc/fstab
B. /etc/rmtab
C. /etc/nfstab
D. /etc/mnttab
E. /etc/exports

Answer: B

Question 8.
What is the length of an IPv4 address?

A. 32 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits

Answer: A

Question 9.
What are the major features of IPFilter on HP-UX 11i v3? (Select three.)

A. creates extensive logs
B. supports X.25 Interfaces
C. installed and enabled by default
D. provides a new GUI configuration tool
E. supports Network Address Translation (NAT)

Answer: A, B, E

Question 10.
Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?

A. arp
B. lanscan
C. ifconfig
D. traceroute

Answer: A

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Braindumps for "HP0-A03" Exam

HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences

 Question 1.
Which options are available on an rx6600 running HP-UX 11i v2 with a PCI-e backplane and P400 PCI-e RAID controller? (Select two.)

A. RAID 1 only
B. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID ADG
C. RAID 1, RAID 5, RAID 1+0
D. configuration of RAID sets via the scsimgr command
E. configuration of RAID sets via the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)

Answer: B, E

Question 2.
Which LVM command allows dynamic size expansion of LUNs?

A. vgmove
B. vgmodify
C. vgextend
D. vgchange

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which benefits do Concurrent Crash Dumps provide to Integrity servers running HP-UX 11i v3? (Select three.)

A. faster crash dump
B. parallel dump units
C. vertical dump units
D. slower crash dump
E. multiple processors
F. no rebooting required

Answer: A, B, E

Question 4.
Which volume manager is integrated with the Serviceguard Cluster File System (CFS) for HPUX?

A. Mirrordisk/UX
B. Veritas Volume Replicator
C. TruCluster Volume Manager
D. Veritas Volume Manager/Cluster Volume Manager
E. Logical Volume Manager/Shared Logical Volume Manager

Answer: D

Question 5.
What are the key benefits of the 11i v3 Mass Storage Stack? (Select four.)

A. improved security capabilities
B. dramatic I/O performance improvements
C. simplified management and automatic configuration
D. increased scalability (connect up to 16 million devices)
E. choice of load balancing algorithms for native multi-pathing
Exam Name: HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences
Exam Type: HP
Exam Code: HP0-A03 Total Questions: 61
F. out-of-the-box support for third party active/passive storage arrays

Answer: B, C, D, E

Question 6.
Which Serviceguard Storage Management Suite feature allows you to set policies that segment company data based on various characteristics?

A. Flashsnap
B. Storage Mapping
C. Storage Checkpoints
D. Dynamic Multi-Pathing
E. Dynamic Storage Tiers

Answer: E

Question 7
Which HP-UX 11i v3 command allows SCSI device management and diagnoses?

A. ioinit
B. iofind
C. scsiutil
D. scsimgr

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?

A. NUMA
B. ccNUMA
C. concurrent dumps
D. single CPU per socket

Answer: C

Question 9.
You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size.

What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?

A. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
B. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
C. Backup, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which vPar feature is new on HP-UX 11i v3?

A. shared I/O
B. CPU granularity
C. dynamic migration of I/O
D. dynamic migration of memory
Exam Name: HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences
Exam Type: HP
Exam Code: HP0-A03 Total Questions: 61

Answer: D

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Braindumps for "HP0-K02" Exam

Implementing HP BladeSystem

 Question 1.
Which function does the Onboard Administrator perform in the BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)

A. configures and troubleshoots the server blade
B. manages connections to the interconnect modules
C. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
D. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
E. drives all management features through the Inter-Integrated Circuit (I2C) and Intelligent
Chassis Management Bus (ICMB) interfaces

Answer: B, E

Question 2.
Which options properly power down a c-Class blade server? (Select two.)

A. Use the virtual power button selection through iLO2.
B. Remove the c-Class blade server from the enclosure.
C. Use the virtual power button selection through RILOE II.
D. Switch off the power supplies on the back of the c7000 enclosure.
E. Press and hold the Power On/Standby button for more than 4 seconds.

Answer: A, E

Question 3.
What happens if you install extra fans in bays of a c7000 BladeSystem enclosure in such a way that they do not meet the next higher fan rule?

A. The enclosure will shut down.
B. The new fans will spin up and run at full speed.
C. The red LED will start blinking on the new fans.
D. The new fans will be marked with location errors.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which LED indicator shows a fan failure?

A. solid blue
B. solid red
C. solid green
D. solid amber

Answer: D

Question 5.
What is the correct way of removing an active cool fan from a c-Class enclosure?

A. Lift the handle upwards and pull the fan from the enclosure.
B. Turn the handle on the fan counterclockwise and remove the fan.
C. Remove the four screws securing the fan and lift it out of the enclosure.
D. Remove the power connector from the fan and lift the fan out of the chassis.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which port on a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure serves as a service port for temporary connection to a PC?

A. USB port
B. serial port
C. enclosure link-up port
D. enclosure link-down port

Answer: C

Question 7.
Exhibit:
 

You want to enable direct FC SAN connectivity on a c7000 enclosure. 

Where must you install the primary fabric switch?

A. Position 6
B. Position 18
C. Position 21
D. Position 22

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which features are available in Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) Advanced? (Select three.)

A. monthly OS update and patch downloads
B. real-time hardware event monitoring and automated notification to the HP 3rd level support
C. event management and fault detection to enhance Support Point of Presence (SPOP) 
    availability
D. comprehensive enterprise view of open incidents, history, installed clients, client status, and 
    contact information
E. convenient central point of administration through an HP owned and maintained Support Point 
    of Presence (SPOP) server installed at the customer site

Answer: C, D, E

Question 9.
Which HP service offering provides a two-hour response time for software issues and a four-hour response time for hardware issue resolution?

A. Proactive 24
B. HP Support Plus
C. HP Support Plus 24
D. Software Plus Support Service

Answer: A

Question 10.
What should a customer do before calling for service during the warranty period?

A. Install the ISEE software to automatically log the event.
B. Order a Care Pack online to have service on the same day.
C. Download the maintenance and service guide for the server.
D. Run diagnostics and install the latest firmware, drivers and patches.

Answer: D

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Braindumps for "HP0-M12" Exam

HP WinRunner 9.2 Software

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 

You want to synchronize on the Status Bar with the text "Insert Done... ". 

Which TSL statement would meet this requirement?

A. wait(10);
B. obj_check_gui("Insert Done...", "list1.ckl", "gui1", 16);
C. obj_wait_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);
D. obj_check_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);

Answer: C

Question 2.
How do you specify a 15-second timeout in the global timeout settings?

A. 15
B. 150
C. 1500
D. 15000

Answer: D

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

Which method should you use to synchronize the application after logging in?

A. wait for a bitmap to refresh
B. wait for a window to appear
C. wait for an object state change
D. wait for a process screen to complete

Answer: B

Question 4.
You are testing a banking application. At 8 AM an employee logs in successfully and it takes about 5 seconds for the main menu window to appear. At 9 AM it takes approximately 15 seconds for the main menu window to appear after login. 

If you were to incorporate this time difference in a script, which WinRunner feature would you use so that the script runs successfully despite the difference in time for the main menu window to appear?

A. Verify
B. Data drive
C. Synchronize
D. Parameterize

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which synchronization statement is automatically generated during recording?

A. win_activate("Flight Reservation");
B. set_window ("Flight Reservation 10");
C. obj_wait_bitmap("Flights","Img2",6,7,8,101,114);
D. obj_wait_info("Insert Done...","label","Insert Done...",10);

Answer: B

Question 6.
The process for building a functional WinRunner script goes through four steps. What are these
steps? (Select four.)

A. plan the test
B. synchronize
C. record steps
D. parameterize
E. add verification
F. analyze results
G. execute the test

Answer: B, C, E, G

Question 7.
A test script contains both Context Sensitive and Analog recording. The script keeps failing on the window where the Analog recording is played back. 

Which function can you include in your script to ensure that windows and objects are in the same locations as when the test was recorded?

A. win_move function
B. GUI_load function
C. invoke_app function
D. set_window function

Answer: A

Question 8.
In which file does WinRunner store user actions on the application under test captured during recording?

A. lock
B. script
C. chklist
D. debug

Answer: B

Question 9.
During recording, WinRunner "listens" to the actions a user performs on the application (and to the response from the server) and creates a log of these steps. 

Which language does WinRunner use to create these steps in a script?

A. C Language
B. VBScript Language
C. Test Script Language
D. Virtual User Language

Answer: C

Question 10.
What is the default recording mode that WinRunner uses?

A. Analog
B. Low-level
C. Standard / Default
D. Context Sensitive

Answer: D

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