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Question 1.
For the following items .which one correctly describes fading?
A. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
B. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
C. A time varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. ReaD. write access is not available; only reaD. only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not
nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Question 3.
As a network technician, you must know Cisco WiSMs . Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 24
D. 5
Answer: B
Question 4.
You work as a network technician read this subject carefully .then answer the question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D
Question 5.
What are the four types of wireless networks? (Choose four)
A. Wireless PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. VLAN
E. WAN
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question 6.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options .which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
What happens when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero ?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Client exclusion is disabled.
C. Clients are never excluded.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D
Question 9.
How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Question 10.
What is the typical maximum range of a wireless PAN?
A. 45 feet
B. 50 feet.
C. 55 feet
D. 60 feet
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which advanced feature of the XIV Storage System eliminates the need for write-through mode?
A. Redundant UPS
B. Active/Active topology
C. Data Striping
D. Distributed Cache
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which table contains the location of the physical data?
A. Volume table
B. Partition table
C. Data table
D. Distribution table
Answer: B
Question 3.
An XIV event indicates that usage of a thin provisioned storage pool is at 90%. There is plenty of capacity left in the system.
What should the system administrator do to the pool?
A. Nothing
B. Resize the soft capacity
C. Resize hard capacity
D. Extend the volume
Answer: C
Question 4.
What are two unique benefits of thin provisioning on the XIV System? (Choose two.)
A. Volumes can easily be moved between storage pools
B. Reclaim capacity that is no longer in use after data migration
C. Limit the storage expense to the actual capacity used
D. East to resize the volume
2
E. Provides quota management
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
What describes the XIV System strategy for new generation hardware upgrades?
A. The XIV system architecture allows upgrading to new modules non-disruptively
B. XIV System firmware version updates are automatic
C. An XIV system administrator will perform an update to the new product release non
disruptively
D. The XIV system is the only product that does dynamic data migration between systems
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
What are two advantages of the recommended multipath drivers over first generation multipath drivers? (Choose two.)
A. They allow multi-vendor storage support
B. HBA vendor-supplied multi-path software is available and mature
C. They provide superior performance via next-generation fibre hannel
D. They allow for integration with other network management tools
E. They do NOT cost extra
Answer: A, E
Question 7.
What are two limitations of Hitachi USP-V snapshots as compared to XIV? (Choose two.)
A. There is a maximum volume size that can be snapped
B. RAID 1 arrays cannot be snapped
C. Additional volume must be the same size as the source
D. Only one snapshot can be taken of a volume
E. A snapshot of a snapshot cannot be taken
Answer: A, E
Question 8.
If the customer wants to snap a 1 TB volume on an XIV System, how much space needs to be reserved for the snapshot target?
A. None
B. 150 GB Minimum
C. 15% of source is the default
D. Depends on the change rate
Answer: A
Question 9.
An administrator is migrating data from legacy storage to an XIV System.
What is the behavior of the host systems during this process?
A. They access data at half their normal speed
B. They function normally
C. Their applications are suspended
D. They are shut down
Answer: B
Question 10.
How does the XIV System rapidly return to full redundancy after disk failures?
A. The XIV System's data module uses cache and processor to calculate parity for disks in the
drawer
B. The XIV System's data module uses SMART data from the drive to begin proactive rebuild on
a spare disk in the module
C. The XIV System uses all disks to rebuild the failed disk using spare capacity throughput the
system
D. The XIV System quickly identifies the failed disk and starts rebuild on a spare disk in a
separate data module
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. AnejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in
the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with tne same numoer and types of parameters must be present in
the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans
class.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system
will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system
failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each
others partial results.
Answer: D
Question 3.
An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation.
To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C
Question 4.
A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key.
Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind...() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a remote
object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
And invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection
of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding
ejbFind...() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the
client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance
and invokes the corresponding ejbFind...() method. The home object instantiates a collection of
primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE FROM MyTable WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the
home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in
the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods
defined in the home interface.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand. held computer when traffic
conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an E. mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information
from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove
enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about
runtime status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise
beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to
enterprise beans.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create,
find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an
enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface
for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform
enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following is true with regard to creating an XML application? A. XML must always be embedded with XHTML, not HTML. B. The tags can use uppercase and lowercase characters. C. The application must always be run from a Web server. D. The application must be able to determine page structure if it is used on a Web page. Answer: B Question 2. Consider the following XML code:January 28, 2006 236 Washington Boulevard, Suite 480 Grover, CA 90000 The preceding code will not work properly. Which of the following describes the reason for this? A. The Date field is not specified correctly. B. XML tags cannot use uppercase letters. C. The code was created by a proprietary application. D. A tag has been inconsistently formatted. Answer: D Question 3. Denny is designing a Web site for his school's sporting events. This Web site will list event results for the school. When site visitors click a hyperlink for a specific event, a new page containing information about the sporting event will appear, including the teams involved, the location of the event, scores, key plays and specific accomplishments by contestants. Which of the following should Denny do to build this site? A. Create static pages for each event. B. Use one page and modify it after each event. C. Copy and paste Web pages from other schools' sites. D. Use database integration. Answer: D Question 4. In which of the following formats do graphic files support 24 bits of color information and work well with photographs? A. GIF B. JPEG C. SVG D. BMP Answer: B Question 5. You are responsible for administering a Web site for a college program designed to get students to express their perspectives on topical issues. Your supervisor has been asked to ensure that all Web sites for the college are Conformance Level "Triple-A," according to Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) standards. Which of the following will have to be eliminated from your site? A. All XHTML tables within the site B. All HTML content written to 4.01 specifications C. All audio content without a text-based alternative D. All visual content without an accessible audio alternative Answer: C Question 6. Applying masks in Flash allows for the creation of depth on the Web page. Which of the following is true when creating vector masks? A. A mask layer contains a filled shape that blocks off objects on at least one other layer. B. You create masks on motion guide layers and normal layers in Flash. C. You can link no more than one layer to a single mask layer. D. Creating a mask requires an understanding of action scripting. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following is directly exploited by a brute-force attack? A. The log file mechanisms that exist on the Web server B. The Web server's available bandwidth C. The TCP/IP software installed on the Web server D. The Web server's authentication mechanisms Answer: D Question 8. Which of the following is an acceptable way to insert a background image using a style sheet? A. Mr. Harold Gray President Gray Industries B. background-image: url(background.tiff); C. background-image: url(background.jpg); D. background-position: background.jpg bottom right; Answer: C Question 9. Certain Web sites are known to be successful. What do these successful Web sites have in common? A. They focus on fulfilling unmet needs of Web site consumers. B. They have published a well-documented mind map of their Web site. C. They have created a unique metaphor. D. They all sell books and clothing. Answer: A Question 10. Server and operating system vendors regularly update their software by offering security patches when new vulnerabilities are discovered. To keep your Web site and server safe, you should apply security patches: A. after they have been standardized by the ISO. B. after your system has been compromised. C. as soon as they are released and proven stable. D. during your next scheduled monthly maintenance session. Answer: C
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Question 1.
With regard to databases, what is normalization?
A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation
B. The process of organizing and refining relations
C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables
D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which three pieces of information did E.F. Codd describe as necessary to retrieve a data value from a relational database?
A. Attribute, domain, and tuple
B. Entity, relation name, and domain
C. Table name, primary key, and entity
D. Attribute, relation name, and primary key
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is a virtual table?
A. A virtual table is a relation created as the result of data manipulation; it exists only in computer
memory, and is not a permanent part of the database.
B. A virtual table is a relation stored in the database; it is used when multiple users access the
same relation in a database.
C. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database data dictionary; it contains metadata
about a base relation. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database?data dictionary; it
contains metadata about a base relation.
D. A virtual table is a relation that consists of primary and foreign keys for a particular set of
relations in a database.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project.
What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase?
A. A set of normalized relations
B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model
C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data
D. A set of denormalized relations
Answer: B
Question 5.
In which phase of database design do you identify entities, attribute domains, and relationships?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Conceptual
Answer: D
Question 6.
Consider the Dept1_Parts and Dept2_Parts relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would create a set difference of the two relations with the widest variety of Structured Query Language dialects?
A. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
EXCEPT(SELECT
PartJD FROM
Dept2_Parts);
B. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts MINUS
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
C. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts
DIFFERENCE
(SELECT Part_ID
FROM Dept2_Parts);
D. SELECT * FROM
Dept1_Parts WHERE
Part_ID NOT IN
(SELECT Part_ID FROM
Dept2_Parts);
Answer: D
Question 7.
CORRECT TEXT
Consider the Information Engineering diagram shown in the exhibit. Building_ID, R_ID, Room_Count and Room_Num are integer numbers, whereas Bldg_Name, Location and Res_Name are all represented by variable-length strings with a maximum of 20 characters.
Which SQL statement best implements the RESIDENT relation shown in this diagram?
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
Room_Num, Res_Name, BuildingJD NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY
R_ID NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
BuildingJDREFERENCES BUILDING(BuildingJD));
RoomJMum, ResJMame,
BuildingJD NOT NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD
INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame
VARCHAR (20), BuildingJD INTEGER NOT
NULL);
Answer: CREATE TABLE RESIDENT( RJD INTEGER NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num INTEGER, ResJMame VARCHAR (20),
BuildingJD INTEGER NOT NULL, FOREIGN KEY BuildingJD
REFERENCES BUILDING (BuildingJD));
Answer: Pending
Question 8.
Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit?
A. Update
B. Transaction
C. Encapsulation
D. Operational group
Answer: B
Question 9.
Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of the database design life cycle.
Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A. Information Engineering (IE) data model
B. Corporate data model
C. Database requirements model
D. ERD model
Answer: B
Question 10.
Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following SQL statements would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A. SELECT * FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80
OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C. SELECT'FROM Customers
WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80
AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D. SELECT * FROM
Customers WHERE
Satisfaction_Rate
BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator has implemented QoS (prioritization) to ensure that ICA traffic is prioritized appropriately. Session Reliability is using the default port.
What should the administrator check on the firewall to verify that Session Reliability will work?
A. TCP 1494 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
B. TCP 2598 is opened for inbound traffic to the server.
C. TCP 1494 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
D. TCP 2598 is opened for outbound traffic from the server.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator is attempting to restart one of the servers in a Presentation Server farm. However, the IMA Service fails with an error message that states:
"Setup Could Not Start The IMA Service."
To troubleshoot the issue in this scenario, the administrator should verify that the ____________.(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. server name has not been changed
B. startup type of the IMA Service is set to manual
C. WMI Service is started in the context of the administrator
D. print spooler service was started in the context of the system
Answer: D
Question 3.
An administrator received phone calls from users who are unable to bypass authentication when they log onto their disconnected sessions.
What is the reason for this issue?
A. NTLM v2 is not enabled in Active Directory.
B. The administrator did not enable the Streaming Client trust.
C. Smart Card authentication was not enabled on the Web Interface site.
D. The administrator did not set a policy for the application delivery method.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Users in different time zones have notified an administrator of a Presentation Server environment that the time displayed on their applications is incorrect.
How can the administrator correct this issue?
A. Configure the Client Time Zone (CTZ) rule.
B. Configure local time estimation for all users.
C. Enable the time zone rule for the server in the policy.
D. Disable the time zone ruleDo not use client local time in the policy.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Scenario: Users are unable to log on to their desktops in a Presentation Server farm. The users all receive a message that states:
"You do not have access to logon to this session."
How can the administrator troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the listener from the Presentation Server Console.
B. Check the settings on the listener port in the Terminal Services Configuration.
C. Look for the users' accounts in the User Summary Report in the Resource Manager node.
D. Look at the amount of sessions on the server in the Server Summary Report from the
Resource Manager node.
Answer: B
Question 6.
How can an administrator remove a server in a Presentation Server farm from the load balance table after an IMA Service failure?
A. Enable the appropriate Health Monitoring check.
B. Configure the IMA Service to run QFARM/LOAD upon failure.
C. Enable the Load Throttling rule within the Server Load Evaluator.
D. Change the Windows services dependencies of the IMA Service.
Answer: A
Question 7.
When restoring a backup of a Microsoft SQL data store database, what is the LAST thing that needs to be done to complete the restoration sequence?
A. Copy the DSN file to the new database server.
B. Verify that all servers are using the correct DSN.
C. Stop and restart the IMA Service on all servers in the farm.
D. Run the DSMAINT CONFIG command to change the IMA Service configuration on all servers
in the farm.
Answer: C
Question 8.
An administrator needs to deliver a video-based training application that is highly graphical on a server running Presentation Server.
What should be enabled to configure this type of application?
A. CPU optimization
B. Memory optimization
C. SpeedScreen Progressive Display
D. SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: C
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator just obtained a new server to add to a farm. Once the server is added to the farm it begins a trust query cycle. However, the cycle could not complete due to communication issues.
Which component does the server need to communicate with to complete the trust query cycle?
A. Data store
B. Data collector
C. Summary database
D. Database connection
Answer: A
Question 10.
Scenario: Users at a small remote office report that ICA sessions are slow and sometimes drop, especially When large print jobs are running. The administrator plans to upgrade the WAN link later this year but is currently unable to do so. The administrator has already implemented Session Reliability. The next step the administrator should take is to______________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. implement ICA Keep-Alive
B. adjust the bandwidth policies
C. select Auto Client Reconnect
D. prioritize the Print Manager Service
Answer: B
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Question 1.
An administrator currently has Secure Gateway and web interface on the same server in the DMZ. After learning about Access Gateway, the administrator decided to purchase two units for redundancy that will be located in the DMZ and implement the increased functionality that Access Gateway offers. Two new Interface servers will be introduced.
Where should the administrator place the web interface servers?
A. Both Web Interface servers should be placed in the DMZ
B. One Web interface server should be placed on the internal network and one web interface
server should be placed on the external network
C. Both Web Interface servers should be placed on the internal network
D. One web interface server should be placed in the DMZ and one web interface server should
Be placed on the internal network
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you remove Secure Gateway from the DMZ and replace it with the Access Gateway, you can move the Web Interface to your internal secure network. The Access Gateway authenticates and authorizes users and then connects to the Web Interface. This provides greater security because there are two fewer Windows servers in the DMZ. (Installation Guide p.102)
Question 2.
An administrator decided to make a number of video-based training packages available to the Finance department through Citrix XenApp. The Citrix XenApp farm silo's its applications and all Finance Applications are in the Finance Application silo. Other application silos include Technical, Sales and workflow.
Where can an administrator enable multimedia optimization for the finance training applications?
A. A policy applied to all finance users
B. Server properties
C. Server farm properties
D. A policy applied to all servers in the finance application silo
Answer: B
Explanation:
All SpeedScreen Options are configured on a Per server or Per Farm Basis using the Properties Page of the Fram or each individual Server. Exceptions here are the SpeedScreen Latency Reduction (Done on a Per Server Basis using the "SpeedScreen Latency Reduction Manager") And SpeedScreen Image Acceleration (Done using Policies). In this case it would be the server Properties because the settings need to beapplied only for the finance app and they have their 2 own Application silo.
Question 3.
What should an administrator use to confirm the name of a Citrix License Server?
A. The hostname command in a command prompt
B. The basic information screen in the Windows 2008 system applet
C. The query command in a command prompt
D. The server information screen in the Access Management Console
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command hostname is correct. This is the easiest way to identify what hostname a server is currently using.
Question 4.
A single web interface server named xenappweb1.mycompany.com is currently being leveraged to host applications for Citrix users through HTTP. For additional redundancy and security as equired by management, a second web interface server named xenappweb2.mycompany.com will be made available and load-balanced with a hardware load balancer and SSL will be used to secure all traffic to the web interface servers.
In order to configure the environment to meet the requirements defined above, which three statements are valid configuration steps? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new load balancing group on the load balancer that contains the web interface sites
from each web interface server that are to be load balanced
B. Create a new DNS entry for xenapp.mycompany.com and assign it the IP Address of the VIP
on the hardware load balancer
C. Install a root certificate on each web interface server that matches the certificate on the load
balancer
D. Create a new CNAME alias a DNS for xenapp.mycompany.com and add both web interface
server names to the record for load balancing
E. Install a separate SSL certificate on each server that matches the FQDN of each server
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Creating a CNAME Allias would be a valid way of doing things if you did not have Hardware load balancer. This would round Robin connections to each WebServer using DNS Round Robining. Installing a seperate SSL Certificate matching the FQDN for each server would result in Certificate errors in the Browser because the initial connection would be to the load balancer and that has a different FQDN.
Question 5.
An administrator configured a session bandwidth policy. The administrator set a maximum bandwidth rule of 200 Kbps and placed a 50 Kbps and a 30% restriction on the audio channel. The effective bandwidth for the audio channel will be _______________ kbps? (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 50
B. 60
C. 15
D. 200
Answer: A
Explanation:
50 is lower than 30% (which would be 60) so the 50 is what will be the effective limit as both have been defined but 50 would be reached first. Default full load is 90% and default no load is 10%
Question 6.
To which Citrix service does Web Interface forward a user's logon credentials?
A. MFCOM
B. Independent Management Architecture
C. WMI
D. XML
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Citrix Web Interface communicates only with the XML Service on the Xenapp Server. This is by default port 80 or 443 if SSL ecryption is configured. It may be changed however if the need arises.
Question 7.
How can an administrator turn off a policy rule without having to edit every policy that contains that rule?
A. Lower the priority of the policy
B. Change the Policy to deny
C. Delete the Policy
D. Change the rule in the highest priority policy to disabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rules in a higher ranked policy override the same rules in a lower ranked policy. (Course Ware p.349)
Question 8.
The Citrix License Management Console runs on which two supported web servers? (Choose two.)
A. Sun Java System Web Server
B. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Apache HTTP Server
D. IBM HTTP server
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The License Management Console runs as a Web service. Configure a Web service-either Apache or IIS-before you install the License Management Console. (Citrix eDocs on Licensing: Licensing Your Product->Getting Started with Citrix Licensing->Prerequisites->Configuring a Web Service)
Question 9.
An administrator wants to provide access to a group of help desk users to manage sessions remotely on a server.
Which two options are the most secure ways of solving this issue using the least privilege security model? (Choose two.)
A. Assign only the administrative rights required within the Access Management Console
B. Assign only the administrative rights required within the XenApp Advanced Configuration Tool
C. Instruct the help desk users to install the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool and manage
sessions from their workstation
D. Instruct the help desk users to install the Access Management Console and manage sessions
from their workstation
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Almost all Managemnt Tasks have been moved to the Acces Managment Console in Xenapp 5.0. Th Advanced Configuarion Tool (Perviously the CMC) only handels Policies, zone and Printer Features now.
Question 10.
Several new policies were recently created in a Citrix XenApp farm. A user has called stating that he cannot see client drivers or printers when connecting to the farm since the polices were implemented.
What could an administrator use to determine which policies are conflicting?
A. Policies Search Engine
B. Report Center
C. Event Viewer
D. Diagnostic Facility
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Policy search engine can be used to see a resultant set of Policies based on Criteria that the admin can define in the search. The first step when trouble shooting Policies should always be to use the Policy Search Engine to view the resultant policy.
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Question 1. Which step must an administrator take before configuring administrative roles within a Provisioning Server environment? A. Create an administrative service account B. Create the administrative groups in Active Directory C. Grant the farm administrator db_admin rights in SQL D. Add the currently logged in user to the local administrator group Answer: B Question 2. Scenario: An administrator is planning a Provisioning Server 5.0 environment for a worldwide organization; there are four offices on two continents. The administrator intends to set up a different farm for each of the four office locations in North America and Europe. How many databases must the administrator plan for when setting up the Provisioning Server 5.0 environment? A. Four databases, one for each farm B. Two databases, one for each continent C. One database to keep all vDisks centralized D. Five databases, one for each farm and a back up Answer: A Question 3. For which purpose do target devices use TFTP? A. To request and receive a boot file from the TFTP service B. To request and receive the IP address of the TFTP server C. To contact the Stream Service to stream a vDisk to the target device D. To contact the least busy Provisioning Server to stream a vDisk to the target device Answer: A Question 4. According to best practices, what should an administrator do prior to installing Provisioning Server? A. Set up a proxy DHCP B. Set up the SOAP service C. Disable spanning tree portfast mode D. Assign a static IP address to each server Answer: D Question 5. Which DHCP option identifies the IP address of the TFTP service? A. 60 B. 66 C. 67 D. 69 Answer: B Question 6. An administrator is configuring a store that points to the UNC path of the Windows file share where the vDisks are stored. Which two store types could the administrator be configuring in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. Site B. Farm C. Private D. Distributed Answer: A, B Question 7. What are the four configuration requirements for a user or system account running the Stream Service? (Choose four.) A. Registry read access B. Registry read/write access C. Domain administration rights D. Read/write access to any vDisk location E. Datareader/Datawriter permissions to the data store F. Read/write access to G. \Program Files\Citrix\Provisioning Server Answer: A, D, E, F Question 8. Scenario: An organization has several branch offices. Each branch office will have an administrator that manages target devices for their location. The farm administrator will oversee the branch office administrators and wishes to make role delegation simple and easy to manage. How should the farm administrator lay out the farm? A. Configure a single farm store B. Set up a farm for each branch location C. Create sites according to branch location D. Assign each branch location a farm administrator Answer: C Question 9. An administrator needs to ensure that all DHCP broadcasts are allowed through the routers in a network environment. What must the administrator do to ensure communication between target devices and the Provisioning Server are allowed through the routers in the network? A. Configure options 66 and 67 on the DHCP server. B. Configure the router using the ip helper command. C. Enable spanning tree portfast mode on all switch ports. D. Disable spanning tree protocol in the network environment. Answer: B Question 10. Scenario: An administrator wants to delegate management of a Provisioning Server farm. The administrator needs to delegate only these specific tasks: 1. Shut down target devices 2. Boot target devices 3. Send messages to target devices Which role should the administrator assign for these tasks? A. Device Operator B. Site Administrator C. Farm Administrator D. Device Administrator Answer: A
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Question 1.
Scenario: Printing errors are generated randomly in a Citrix XenApp server farm. An investigation reveals that the Citrix Print Manager Service has been failing at random intervals. An administrator is asked to use the Health Monitoring and Recovery feature to check the service.
What should the administrator do to monitor the service?
A. Create a custom test
B. Install the HMR Test Pack
C. Add the CPSVCTEST.EXE test
D. Add the SPOOLERTEST.EXE test
Answer: C
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that users on Windows XP workstations launch published applications with 16-bit colors in a 1024X768 session window. Users in this environment are launching published applications in seamless mode.
Which user experience setting should the administrator use in the ICACIient.ADM template?
A. Audio
B. Display
C. Graphics
D. Applications
Answer: B
Question 3.
Scenario: An administrator has enabled Configuration Logging in a Citrix XenApp farm. Following a number of changes applied over the weekend, users have begun to complain about issues related to accessing farm resources.
How can the administrator review the changes implemented in the farm?
A. Use the Event Viewer on the data store server
B. Use the Event Viewer on the Data Collector server
C. Run the Configuration Logging report using SQL reporting services
D. Run the Configuration Logging report using the Access Management Console
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which Citrix service directly depends on the IMA service?
A. WMI
B. Licensing
C. XTE Server
D. Print Manager
Answer: A
Question 5.
What is the impact on the user sessions connected over ICA if the IMA service on a Citrix XenApp server is restarted?
A. The user sessions are forcibly disconnected
B. The user sessions continue to work uninterrupted
C. All sessions on the server are gracefully logged off
D. Users receive an IMA error message but can continue working
Answer: B
Question 6.
What are two options that are available for the scheduling of the virtual memory management optimization process? (Choose two.)
A. Daily
B. Every two weeks
C. Only at startup time
D. Only at shutdown time
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
Scenario: Currently, the Citrix XenApp server farm hosts several streamed applications. The administrator is given a new business intelligence application that leverages Microsoft Excel for data mining. This new business intelligence application needs to be streamed. Microsoft Excel is currently profiled and is a streamed application.
What should the administrator do to enable Microsoft Excel as part of this business intelligence application profile using the least amount of storage space?
A. Create a new profile based on Microsoft Excel Viewer and the business intelligence application
B. Create a new profile and use the Inter-Isolation Communication option to combine both
applications
C. Create a pre-launch script that launches the profile of the new application and apply it to the
existing Microsoft Excel profile
D. Create a new profile and publish the streamed application using an alternate profile that points
to the Microsoft Excel profile
Answer: B
Question 8.
A new resource-intensive application has been added to a farm that consists of single CPU servers, and users are now complaining about poor application performance.
What should the administrator enable in order to address this issue?
A. Fair sharing of CPU between sessions in the farm
B. The CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer service
C. A load evaluator that does NOT include CPU or memory utilization
D. The removal of servers from the load balancing table within Health Monitoring and Recovery
Answer: A
Question 9.
In which situation should the "CPU Utilization Management/CPU Rebalancer" service be set to start automatically?
A. Citrix XenApp runs on a single processor server
B. The Resource Manager tool is used to monitor CPU sharing
C. It is desirable to monitor CPU sharing using the Access Management Console
D. Multiple instances of a single-threaded application are running on the same CPU
Answer: D
Question 10.
Scenario: An administrator enables Special Folder Redirection in a Citrix XenApp farm. Windows Vista users are able to save files successfully to their local Documents' folder. However, when a user tries to save a music file to the Music folder, the user was unable to see the file on the local client drive.
What would prevent the user from seeing the saved music file on the local machine?
A. The user saved the file as a .WAV instead of .MP3
B. The Special Folder Redirection feature only works for the Documents and Desktop folders
C. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp Web
site properties
D. The "Provide special folder redirection to all users" option is de-selected in the XenApp
Services site properties
Answer: B
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