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thanks to ITCertKeys send me nice dumps.
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Latest dump needed thanks
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Question 1.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a Web server farm that runs Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0. The Web server farm consists of three load balanced servers named ITCertKeys-SR11, ITCertKeys-SR12 and ITCertKeys-SR13. The Web server farm is accessed using http://corporate. ITCertKeys.com. You must install certificates on the Web server farm. The certificates must meet the following requirements:
• SSL encryption must be enabled for requests to the Web server farm.
• The certificates should not result in the Web browsers returning SSL errors.
What should you do?
A. You should acquire a certificate for each server in the Web server farm from a trusted
certification authority (CA).
B. You should acquire a single certificate from a trusted certification authority and install it on
each of the servers in the Web farm.
C. You should create three self-signed certificates and install one on each of the servers in the
Web farm.
D. You should create a single self-signed certificate and install it on each of the servers in the
Web farm.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Finance department, a Sales department and a Marketing department. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on a server named ITCertKeys-SR12. ITCertKeys-SR12 hosts a document library which is used by the managers of the Finance, Sales and Marketing departments. You must ensure that no user other than the three managers is able to view or add documents to the document library.
What should you do?
A. You should assign the three managers the Design permissions.
B. You should assign the three managers the Members permissions.
C. You should add the three managers to the Owners group.
D. You should assign the three managers the Contribute permissions.
Answer: B
Question 3.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You must design a new Windows SharePoint Service (WSS) 3.0 infrastructure for the ITCertKeys.com network. Your design must meet the following criteria:
• Content on the WSS must be centralized.
• Multiple servers must be used to distribute user requests for content.
What should you do?
A. You should install at least two Microsoft SQL Server 2005 servers and configure the SQL
servers as WSS front-end servers. Then you should host the content database on local SQL
Server 2005 instances on the SQL servers.
B. You should install at least two Microsoft SQL Server 2005 servers and configure the SQL
servers as WSS front-end servers. Then you should host the content database on a single
SQL Server 2005 instance.
C. You should install a single Microsoft SQL Server 2005 server and configure the SQL servers
as a WSS front-end server. Then you should install at least two instances of Microsoft SQL
Server 2005 to host the content database.
D. You should implement at least two Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 installations.
Answer: B
Question 4.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a Research department, a Manufacturing department, Sales department, Finance department and a Marketing department. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 Web site on a server named ITCertKeys-SR22. The WSS Web site hosts a document library that is used by the managers of the Finance and Sales departments. Rory Allen, the manager of the Manufacturing department informs you that one of his documents have disappeared from the document library. Rory Allen last accessed the document three weeks ago. You are required to recover the document.
What should you do?
A. You should check the Recycle Bin on Rory Allen's computer.
B. You should check the Recycle Bin of the document library.
C. You should check the Deleted from end user Recycle Bin view of the site collection.
D. You should check the Recycle Bin on ITCertKeys-SR22.
Answer: B
Question 5.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You are planning the deployment of Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. ITCertKeys.com currently has 5,000 users. The company intends hiring 2,000 more users over the next six months. All of these users will require access to the WSS Web site. ITCertKeys.com acquires four new servers named ITCertKeys-SR21 through ITCertKeys-SR24. Each of these servers has a single network adapter. You want to have the users' requests distributed across all four server servers.
What should you do?
A. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster and configure
The cluster for intra-array communication by using Internet Group Management Protocol
(IGMP) muliticasts.
B. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster and configure
The cluster for intra-array communication by using unicasts.
C. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster with one active
node and three passive nodes.
D. You should configure the servers as a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster with two active
Node and two passive nodes.
Answer: A
Question 6.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have installed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on a server named ITCertKeys-SR31. All SharePoint data is stored in a database that is hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys.com users begin complaining about poor performance when accessing ITCertKeys-SR31. You want to determine if ITCertKeys-SR31 has any hardware bottlenecks.
What should you do? (Each correct answer represents part of the solution. Choose THREE.)
A. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Network Interface counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
B. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Processor counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
C. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the WMI Objects counter on
ITCertKeysSR31.
D. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Web Service Cache counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
E. You should use Performance Logs and Alerts to monitor the Physical Memory counter on
ITCertKeys-SR31.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 7.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 Web site that is accessed by customers who are not members of the Active Directory domain. The login credentials of these customers are currently stored in database named Customers which is hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB04. You configure the WSS Web site for form-based authentication. However, customers complain that they are no longer able to authenticate to the WSS Web site. You must ensure that ITCertKeys.com customers are able to authenticate to the WSS Web site.
What should you do?
A. You should create a custom Web part with a Microsoft Office InfoPath form.
B. You should implement single sign-on (SSO) on the WSS site.
C. You should use an SSL-protected virtual directory to host the Web authentication form.
D. You should use the web.config file to specify the authentication provider.
Answer: D
Question 8.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have deployed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. A WSS Web site is used to distribute documents to ITCertKeys.com users. You need to configure the WSS Web site to provide only approved users with elevated permissions to the WSS Web site upon request.
What should you do? (Each correct answer represents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)
A. You should create an Active Directory security group.
B. You should create an Active Directory distribution group.
C. You should create a custom group in the Site Settings page.
D. You should configure the group to auto-accept requests for membership.
E. You should configure the group properties to accept request to join or leave the group.
Answer: C, E
Question 9.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You are in the process of configuring a new SharePoint site on the ITCertKeys.com network. You want the SharePoint site to store data on a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB02. However, the database for the SharePoint site is not created successfully. You need to ensure that you are able to create the database on ITCertKeys-DB02. You also need to ensure that the minimum permissions required to accomplish this task are granted to any account.
What should you do?
A. You should make the installation account a member of the local Administrators group on
ITCertKeysDB02.
B. You should make the installation account a member of the dbcreator and securityadmin role on
ITCertKeys-DB02.
C. You should make the installation account a member of the local Administrators group on the
WSS server.
D. You should stop and restart the SQL Server Agent service on ITCertKeys-DB02.
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as the SharePoint administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You have deployed Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0 on the ITCertKeys.com network. ITCertKeys.com users on the internal network access the WSS Web site through the URL: http://corporate. ITCertKeys.local. You must ensure that remote can access the same WSS Web site through the URL: http://external. ITCertKeys.com.
What should you do?
A. You should create a host header named external for the WSS Web site.
B. You should create an alias (CNAME) record named external in the ITCertKeys.local domain.
C. You should create an alternate access mapping for the http://external. ITCertKeys.com on
ITCertKeysSR18.
D. You need to add a secondary DNS zone for the ITCertKeys.local domain.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com uses a centralized call processing model to connect their saw mills in Albany and Columbus. Each mill is configured as a separate Location in Cisco Unified CallManager at HQ. Each Location has been configured with 256 Kbps of voice bandwidth.
How many G.729 calls can be placed between Locations simultaneously?
A. 23
B. 5
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8
Answer: D
Question 2.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A manager at HQ is holding a conference call with three of his staff members that are located at BR. The HQ region uses the G.711 codec, the BR region uses the G.711 codec, and the IP WAN region uses the G.729 codec. The MRGL associated with the manager has only the software conference bridge listed.
What will happen when the three staff members join the conference?
A. The staff members will not be able to join the conference until all the software conferencing
resources are consumed and the conference uses the hardware conferencing resources at BR.
B. The staff members will join only after the manager has set the conference call up using the
hardware conferencing resources.
C. The staff members will all join the conference normally.
D. The staff members will be prevented from joining because the software conference bridge only
supports the G.711 codec and the staff members will be using the G.729 codec.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com needs to have the receptionist at extension 5000 handle all callers who exit their auto attendant by pressing "0". After changing the Operator parameter from 5500 to 5000, callers are still sent to extension 5500 when they press "0" in the auto attendant.
What needs to be done to correct this issue?
A. Dial peer 1 needs to be restarted using the shutdown and no shutdown commands.
B. The application needs to be edited to point to the correct operator.
C. The aa application needs to be reloaded in order to recognize the parameter changes.
D. The gateway needs to be reloaded for application changes to take effect.
E. The Operator parameter should be configured under dial peer 1 using the param command.
Answer: C
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A branch site with an H.323 gateway has lost connectivity to the main site. You want to initiate SRST and get back the operation to normal. Select the appropriate steps in the correct order. Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. You have configured transcoder resources in both an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When you review the configurations in both devices the IP addresses and transcoder names are correct, but the transcoder is failing to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which command needs to be edited to allow the transcoder to register properly?
A. The associate ccm 2 priority 1 command needs to be changed so the ccm value matches
identifier 1 in the sccp ccm 10.1.1.1 command.
B. The maximum sessions command must match the number of codecs configured under the dsp
farm profile.
C. The sccp ccm group number must match the voice-card number.
D. The sccp ccm group number needs to match the associate ccm 2 command.
E. The associate profile and dsp farm profile numbers need to match associate ccm 2 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message "Not Enough Bandwidth" on their phone and hears a fast busy tone.
Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured
under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
D. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150
configured under the AAR Settings.
Answer: D, E
Question 7.
How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
A. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The
SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco
Unified Communications Manager.
B. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the
SRST gateway.
C. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their
registration with the SRST gateway.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications
Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to
register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Exhibit:
You work as a network administrator ITCertKeys.com. When a Cisco IP Communicator Phone roams from the San Jose site to the RTP site, the Physical Location for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone changes and the Device Mobility Group remains the same. After roaming to RTP, the user called a colleague in RTP and conferenced in a phone in his home location (San Jose).
Which statement about the MRGL for the Cisco IP Communicator Phone is true?
A. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since his Device
Mobility Group (DMG) remained the same.
B. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_MRGL since his Device Mobility Group
remained the same.
C. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the RTP_ MRGL regardless of Device Mobility
Group.
D. The Cisco IP Communicator Phone will use the Home MRGL (SJ_MRGL) since he is
conferencing a user at his home location.
Answer: C
Question 9.
As the Administrator for an IT company that's using a Centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology, you've been tasked to implement Device Mobility feature for users that roam between their home country (US) and Europe. Due to frequent travels to different countries, your goal is to implement Device Mobility without requiring users to learn each country's numbering plan.
Which scenario will accomplish your goal?
A. Place each roaming user in a country specific User Device Profile.
B. Place each site in a different device pool but use the same Device Mobility Group.
C. Place each site and user in the appropriate Device Calling Search Space so they always use
the local PSTN gateway for each country.
D. Implement Mobile Connect.
E. Place each site in a different Device Mobility Group.
Answer: E
Question 10.
A remote site MGCP gateway will be used to provide redundancy when connectivity to the central Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is lost.
Which three steps are required to enable IP phones to establish calls to the PSTN when they have registered with the gateway? (Choose three.)
A. POTS dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the IP phones to the PSTN.
B. COR needs to be configured to allow outbound calls.
C. The default service must be enabled globally.
D. The command ccm-manager mgcp-fallback must be configured.
E. The default service must be configured on an inbound POTS dial peer.
F. VoIP dial peers must be added to the gateway to route calls from the PSTN to the IP phones.
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
Which of the following types of portable media offers the LARGEST storage capacity?
A. DVD.DL
B. CD.RW
C. CD.R
D. DVD.R
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. \\computername\sharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
\\computername\sharename is a net command that manages network print jobs and IP_ip_address is a static IP address that is configured on a network printer so that it can be seen on the network by a computer. This address can be verified from printer's configuration.
Question 3.
While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports.
Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The chassis of a PC is designed for proper internal airflow across the various components. However, if your PC's enclosures are open, then the cooling of the PC changes dramatically. The cooling of some components can be reduced or totally eliminated and can cause damage.
Question 4.
Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The port 80 is associated with HTTP TCP/IP protocol.
Question 5.
Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find the port that your printer is currently using, you need to open the properties of the printer from the Printer's Control Panel
Question 6.
Users are reporting that print jobs being sent to a shared printer are not printing. A technician has verified the printer is online and prints a configuration page from the printer.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? (Select TWO).
A. QoS for printing is not functioning over the LAN.
B. The printer needs to have a cartridge replaced.
C. A job in error status is at the top of the print queue.
D. The printers IP address has changed.
E. New drivers have been released and need to be installed.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The possible cause of the problem in this case is that either a job in error status is at the top of the print queue or the IP address of the printer has changed. Sometimes, certain print codes in the file that is printing can confuse the print job and the job gets stuck in the print queue. The printer would not start printing again till that print job is removed from the queue. Sometime if the IP address of the printer is changed you cannot print. To find this problem you can ping the printer from your computer.
Question 7.
Which of the following connector types is used with twisted pair cable?
A. T-Connector
B. BNC
C. RJ-45
D. LC
Answer: C
Explanation:
With twisted pair cable you can use RJ-45 connector. The UTP ( unshilded twisted pair) cable often is installed using a Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector. The RJ-45 is an eight-wire connector used commonly to connect computers onto a local-area network (LAN), especially Ethernets
Question 8.
Which of the following bus speeds is used for a PCIe card? (Select TWO).
A. 1x
B. 3x
C. 6x
D. 8x
E. 24x
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
For a PCIe or PCI expansion card, 1x and 8x bus speeds can be used.
Question 9.
A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
A. Start>Run>typeipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.
B. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the
results.
C. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
D. Start>Run>typecmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ipconfig command is used to find the IP configuration information of a computer. The Syntax IPCONFIG /all displays full configuration information. You can type the Ipconfig command by clicking Start->Run and then typing cmd to open the command prompt to type the ipconfig command.
Question 10.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
A. Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.
B. Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
C. Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
D. Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of DNS is the mapping of IP addresses to human readable names. The DNS server strictly functions as an ip address lookup for a given domain name.
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Question 1. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue? A. A virus has infected the system B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file C. Corrupt MBR D. Boot sector corruption Answer: C Explanation: The Master Boot Record (MBR) is the operating system information stored in the first sector of any hard disk .It locates and loads the operating system into the computer's main storage or random access memory. If for any reason, the Master Boot Record becomes damaged or corrupt, then the operating system will be unable to load and the message Error loading operating system will be displayed. Question 2. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next? A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot. B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media. C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT. D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted. Answer: B Question 3. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue? A. Cable tester B. Multimeter C. Loop back plugs D. Crossover cable Answer: A Explanation: Cable tester is a simple instrument that can help in detecting mis -wired and incomplete network cables. A multimeter is used to test the voltage, a loop back plug is used to test the loopback connectivity of a device and the crossover cable is used to connect two network devices. Question 4. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting? A. Use recovery console and thefixmbr command. B. Use recovery console and thebootcfg /rebuild command. C. Use recovery console and thefixboot command. D. Use recovery console and thechkdsk command. Answer: C Question 5. A customer reports they are unable to connect to any computers outside of the office and they are unable to connect to the Internet. When the technician runs ipconfig, the customer gets the following output: IP address169.254.2.4 Subnet Mask.255.255.0.0 Default Gateway. Which of the following could be causing the issue? A. The subnet mask is not correctly configured. B. The DNS client has not been configured on the computer. C. The DHCP client is unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. D. The default gateway is not specified. Answer: C Explanation: The problem here is the inability of DHCP client to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. One of the most common DHCP server problems is the failure of clients to obtain configuration from a working server, which results in such connection issues. Question 6. A user reports that their system is starting to run slower, especially when opening large local files. The system has sufficient RAM for the users applications, but the hard drive seems to have higher than normal activity when opening large files. Which of the following would be the BEST tool to diagnose and troubleshoot this problem? A. Task Manager B. NTBACKUP C. FDISK D. Disk Defragmenter Answer: D Explanation: To fix the problem, in this case you should use the Disk Defragmenter. It is a computer program designed to increase access speed of files by rearranging them on the disk so that they occupy contiguous storage locations. The purpose defragmenting is to optimize the time taken to read and write files to/from the disk and maximizing the transfer rate. Question 7. A user states they receive a message Boot device not found half of the time they boot their system. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. A dead CMOS battery B. The OS is not installed on the hard drive C. A faulty RAM D. A faulty HDD connection Answer: D Explanation: The most likely cause of the problem is the faulty HDD connection. This error occurs when the Master boot record (MBR) is not found on the system. The MBR is present on the first sector of the hard disk. In this case the system is unable to get the MBR due to the faulty HDD connection Question 8. A user reports they can no longer change the web browser home page. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? A. They are using the wrong WEP key. B. They have been infected with malware. C. They have lost Internet connectivity. D. They need to update their network device drivers. Answer: B Explanation: When your computer is affected with a malware then you will not be able to change the home page of the web browser of your computer. This is because malware prevents you from doing that. Every time you try to change it, you will be redirected to another page. This is one of the most common symptoms of a spyware infected computer. Question 9. A technician needs to check which ports are open in the Windows Firewall. Which of the following will allow the technician to view these settings? A. netsh firewall show logging B. ipconfig /all C. netsh firewall show state D. arp -a Answer: C Explanation: To find out the ports open in the Windows Firewall, you need to use netsh firewall show state command. This command ishows current state of Windows Firewall and you can see the state of all the ports. Question 10. Which of the following are methods to automatically update the antivirus application? (Select TWO). A. Establish rules in the email scheduling program to perform updates. B. Select Update Now from the program options. C. Use the Automatic Update feature built into the application. D. Use scripts. E. Use Windows Update. Answer: C, D
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Question 1. Refer to the exhibit The pictures on the fight ate the internal components of the Cisco UCS 6250 Blade Server Which component image should be applied to which empty component block? A. CPU for block A, adapter card for block B, hard drive for block C. memory for block D B. CPU for block C. adapter card for block D, hard drive for block A. memory for block B C. CPU for block B, adapter card for block C, hard drive for block D, memory for block B D. CPU for block D. adapter card for block A. hard drive for block B. memory for block C Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two commands or key sequences display a list of the available commands in the Cisco NXOS prompt UCS-switch (nxos) #? (Choose two) A. Tab (key) B. help C. ? D. ~ (tilde key) E. w Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 3. Refer to the exhibit Which tab displays the hard disk drives that are installed1? A. A-CPUs B. B - Memory C. Power Supplies D. D - Storage E. E -Adapters Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device types of Overall Status are acceptable and do not indicate failure? (Choose two.) A. Online B. OK C. Unassociated D. Active Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 5. Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects? A. KVM cable B. console cable C. Ethernet cable D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which cable is used to access the command-line -interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects? A. KVM cable B. console cable C. Ethernet cable D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. A. Block A, power supply. Block B is a supervisor module B. Block A is switching module, Block B is a fan try Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. From the Cisco NX-OS prompt"UCS-switch (nxos) #, which command displays the Cisco NX-OS configuration that is currently in use? A. show configuration B. show startup-config C. show boot-config D. show mem-config E. show running-config Answer: E Explanation: Question 9. Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance or replacement? A. Force the server to shut down B. Disassociate the service profile C. Decommission the server D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt? UCS-switch-A (nxos)# A. maintenance mode B. EXEC mode C. local management mode D. global configuration mode E. Cisco IOS mode Answer: A Explanation:
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Question 1.
After connecting to a codec via WebGUI, you are prompted for a username and password.
Which username password combination is used on the codec by default?
A. Cisco, Cisco
B. admin, Cisco
C. Cisco, Cisco
D. admin, cisco
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1300?
A. The system is designed to support meetings of six to eight participants
B. The system features three 65-inch screens, three cameras, microphones, and speakers
C. Voice-enabled switching is performed by the codec to select the active speaker in the room
and capture the video for the remote side
D. The power and Ethernet outlets must be positioned directly behind the unit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
When using Auto-Collaborate, what two actions need to be done to display the laptop content after connecting the cable? (Choose two.)
A. Press the Auto-Collaborate softkey
B. Initiate Auto-Collaborate on the codec’s GUI
C. Set the laptop resolution to 1024x768
D. Set your laptop resolution to 1024x720
E. Use function key on the laptop to send signal to external display
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
Question 4.
During your RRA assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room you notice:
• The HVAC diffuser has noticeable noise (measured at48 1dB) which sounds like rushing air
What three recommendations should be made to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. The customer should turn the fan level down on the HVAC system to insure the fan noise is
minimized in the Cisco TelePresence room
B. The customer should contact an HVAC specialist to review and recommend an appropriate
solution
C. The customer should not worry about the HVAC fan noise because the Cisco TelePresence
System uses a noise suppression algorithm designed to identify HVAC fan noise and minimize
those frequencies
D. The customer should replace the diffusers with a diffuser that is rated with a noise criterion of
10 or greater
E. The customer should replace the ducting directly above the room with acoustically treated
ducting to remove the sound of rushing airflow
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
Question 5.
In the Cisco TelePresence administration WebGUI, the camera Auto Adjust can be used to check which setting?
A. life size
B. zoom and focus
C. white color balance
D. HDMI input threshold
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the leveling process for the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 frame?
A. With only one display, there is no need to level the frame before attaching it to the wall
B. Attach the frame to the wall and level the frame by raising or lowering the feet.
C. Place a level on the middle and upper crossbars and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure
that the frame is horizontally level
D. Place a level on the side of the frame and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the
Frame is vertically level
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
Refer to the exhibit.
Identify the port number where the Audio Video expansion box should connect.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 9
F. 10
G. 11
H. 12
I. 13
Answer: H
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which statement is correct when tuning the cameras by using the WebGUI of the Cisco TelePresence codec?
A. If there is a noticeable flicker on the screen, the 50 Hz Flicker Reduction button will eliminate
the flicker and increase the image resolution.
B. If the user is 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 m) away from the display, click the 4 feet radio button for the
Focus Distance radio choice. If the user is farther than 5 feet (1.5 m) away, click the 6 feet
choice.
C. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness
and Camera Auto Color Balance choices.
D. Auto Color Balance can produce the best results when the colors of the walls in your room are
white or gray.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which three statements are correct when tuning the camera on a Cisco TelePresence CTS-1xxx system? (Choose three.)
A. Target placement should match the green and red boxes on the screen, respectively
B. Place the large target three feet behind the small target.
C. Place the large target five feet behind the small target
D. Tune the camera so that the red and green bars line up as closely as possible
E. Perform auto-adjust to optimize focus and sharpness
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras? (Choose two)
A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button fur the Camera Auto
Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to
add more light
C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable- radio button for the Camera Auto
Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness
and Camera Auto Color Balance
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
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Question 1. Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT: A. A third-party identity provider. B. The customer organization. C. The SaaS provider. D. A user. Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications? A. Cloud providers will do application development. B. The development process needs to change. C. The role of the IT department will change. D. This can speed up the development process. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold their contract? A. Consult the company's exit plan. B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier. C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers. D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common? A. Involvement of external staff B. Improved flexibility C. Reduced expense D. Shorter time to market Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud computing? A. Provisioning services B. Incident management C. Technology upgrade monitoring D. Security and risk management Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the function of orchestration services? A. Assemble functional requirements for application development B. Configure application clusters with Web services C. Enable and disable load balancers D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing? A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction B. Desire for improved security C. Desire for improved user experience D. Desire for reducing compliance issues Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is important to standardize? A. Information standards and applications B. User names and hardware providers C. Virtual machine images and applications D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost. A. increases B. reduces C. shifts D. equates Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party. A. companies, others B. companies, themselves C. individuals, others D. individuals, themselves Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode? A. EPP/ECP B. ECP C. EPS D. EPP Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops? A. PCI B. PCMCIA C. MCA D. ISA Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. Processor B. LAN Card C. RAM D. HDD Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU? A. Caching B. DMA C. Spoofing D. Spooling Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable? A. RAM B. NIC C. Hard disk D. Motherboard Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer? A. Quick formatting B. High-level formatting C. Low-level formatting D. Initial-level formatting Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. What amount of data can a sector hold? A. 1000 bytes B. 512 bytes C. 625 bytes D. 1024 bytes Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following PC components has an air filter? A. RAM B. HDD C. CD-ROM D. CPU Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard? A. VGA B. DVI C. CGA D. SVGA Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port? A. 256 Kbps B. 800 Mbps C. 256 Mbps D. 400 Mbps Answer: B Explanation:
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