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Question 1.
Which PBX features are unnecessary for Cisco Unity to support a full integration? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Message call service.
B. Call message retrieval.
C. Easy message access.
D. Direct message retrieval.
E. Message waiting indication.
F. Call forward to personal greeting.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
Which of the following cannot be managed using the Cisco Unity
Assistant? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Password.
B. Class of service.
C. Message playback.
D. Message notification.
E. Public distribution lists.
Answer: B, E
Question 3.
Which of the following are invalid standard features of the Cisco Unity software? (Choose three)
A. voice mail
B. fax notification
C. multiple languages
D. audiotext application
E. RSA enhanced security
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which of the following are not the required objects that you should configure before adding the subscribers to Cisco Unity System? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The account policy
B. The subscriber IDs
C. The access control list
D. The subscriber template
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
You are the administrator of a Cisco Unity system at ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys is experiencing a problem with MWI performance. A number of ITCertKeys users have reported that their message lights are going on and off very slowly. This happens most often between 10:00 a.m. and 2.00 p.m.
Which of the following are unnecessary steps to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose all that apply.)
A. run a port usage report for all the ports on the Unity system for the past seven days.
B. check the MWI off codes in UTIM and on the telephone switch to ensure that they match.
C. check the ports page to see if the ports that perform MWIs are also answering calls.
D. run two port usage reports for the past seven days, one for the ports that turn MWIs on and the
other for all ports that answer calls.
Answer: A, B
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Help me with Dumps Plzzz. thanks
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Question 1.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008. The client computers run a mix of Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Enterprise. The company is planning to roll out Windows 7 Enterprise throughout the network. Users that require legacy applications will be able to run them in Windows XP Mode virtual machines on their computers.
You are conducting some testing with Windows XP Mode virtual machines (VMs). You have two Windows XP Mode VMs on your Windows 7 client computer. You want to configure the networking options for the two VMs so that they have network connectivity to each other but not to your host computer or the rest of the ABC.com network.
How should you configure the VMs?
A. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Internal Network option.
B. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Shared Networking (NAT) option.
C. You should navigate to the Networking node in the VM Settings and configure the network
adapter to use the Bridge Mode option.
D. You should configure the Bridge Connections option in the Network Adapter properties in
Windows XP on each VM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. The network includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 server named ABC-Deploy1. ABC-Deploy1 runs the IIS Server role and is part of the company’s Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MEDV) environment. Your Windows 7 client computer is named ABC-Tech1. The MED-V Management console is installed on ABC-Tech1. You are configuring the Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment to deploy MED-V virtual machines to several client computers. You have configured a MED-V image with the required applications. You run Sysprep on the image and upload it to ABC-Deploy1.
Which two of the following steps will ensure that computer names following a specified naming convention are generated when the VMs are first run after the deployment? Choose two.
A. In the Workspace settings, navigate to the VM Setup tab and configure the computer name
pattern.
B. In the Workspace settings, navigate to the Deployment tab and configure the computer name
pattern.
C. Add a Script Action to rename the computer.
D. Run the Setup Manager Wizard and configure the computer name pattern.
E. Add the computer names to Sysprep.inf.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as a desktop technician at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. You need to configure a central image repository for client computers to download images from. You install a Windows Server 2008 R2 member server named ABC-Deploy1. You create a folder named MEDVImages on ABC-Deploy1.
What should you do next on ABC-Deploy1?
A. You should share the MEDVImages folder.
B. You should install the IIS Server role and configure a virtual directory to point to the
MEDVImages folder.
C. You should install the FTP Server component of IIS and configure an FTP site to point to the
MEDVImages folder.
D. You should install an SSL Certificate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. ABC.com runs a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. A Windows Server 2008 R2 member server named ABC-Deploy1 is configured to run Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) Server and hosts the central MED-V image repository. You notice that the disk space on ABC-Deploy1 is running low due to the MEDVImages folder taking up a large amount of disk space. You open the MED-V Management Console and note that there are several versions of the MEDV Workspace virtual machines (VMs).
How can you minimize the disk space used by the MEDVImages folder?
A. By deselecting the “Workspace is persistent” option.
B. By configuring the image update settings to keep a limited number of images.
C. By configuring the image update settings to select the “Clients should use the Download
manager when downloading the images” option.
D. By manually deleting old image files.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008. The client computers run a mix of Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of migrating the Windows XP Professional client computers to Windows 7 Enterprise. You need to design a solution to resolve application compatibility issues. You are planning a desktop virtualization solution that will run legacy applications on virtual machines (VMs) running Windows XP Professional. You want to deploy Windows Virtual PC 2007 and a virtual machine image to the client computers when they are migrated to Windows 7 Enterprise.
How can you create a single installation package that includes both Windows Virtual PC 2007 and a virtual machine image?
A. By using the Packaging Wizard from Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V).
B. By using Package Manager (pkrmgr.exe) from the Windows Automated Installation Kit (WAIK)
tools.
C. By using a template created using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
2008 R2.
D. By using Windows System Image Manager from the Windows Automated Installation Kit
(WAIK) tools.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2. You have recently migrated 2000 client computers from Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Enterprise and deployed Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) to resolve application compatibility issues. All client computers use a single MED-V Workspace. For performance reasons, company policy states that the hard drives of the client computers should not be indexed. You are planning to update the Workspace image.
How can you minimize the network impact of the client computers downloading the updated image?
A. By configuring the image update settings to select the “Clients should use the Trim Transfer
when downloading the images” option.
B. By compressing the folder on the deployment server that contains the images.
C. By using the Pack option in MED-V to compress the images.
D. By compressing the folder on the client computers that contains the virtual machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You have been asked to deploy a custom sales application named SalesApp to the client computers in the Sales department. However the custom application will only run on Windows XP Professional. You install Windows XP Mode on your Windows 7 computer. You plan to test the application in Windows XP Mode and deploy Windows XP Mode to the Sales department computers if your tests are successful. You install the application in the Windows XP Mode virtual machine. You click the start menu in the VM and successfully launch SalesApp. You attempt to start the application from your Windows 7 start menu but there is no shortcut to SalesApp.
How can you ensure that Sales users will be able to start SalesApp from their Window 7 start menus?
A. By copying the SalesApp application shortcut to the All Users profile in Windows 7.
B. By copying the SalesApp application shortcut to the All Users profile in the Windows XP Mode
virtual machine.
C. By installing the Virtual PC Integration Components in the Windows XP Mode virtual machine.
D. By installing the Virtual PC Integration Components in Windows 7.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. All client computers will use a single MED-V Workspace. The virtual machine (VM) image will be downloaded from a central image repository on a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer.
How can you ensure that any changes made by users to the VM are maintained between sessions?
A. By configuring the Allow – Write permission on the server folder containing the VM image.
B. By configuring the Allow – Write permission on the VM image files on the client computers.
C. By selecting the Workspace is revertible option in the MED-V Management Console.
D. By selecting the Workspace is persistent option in the MED-V Management Console.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. You are in the process of configuring a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment. You want to install MED-V in a server cluster. You install MED-V on one server in the cluster.
What should you do next?
A. You should install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on all servers in the cluster.
B. You should install the MED-V client on all servers in the cluster.
C. You should install Cluster Administrator on all servers in the cluster.
D. You copy the /Servers/ConfigurationServer folder from the installed node to a
shared network folder.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as a network administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of an Active Directory Domain Services domain named ABC.com. All servers on the network run Windows Server 2008 R2 and all client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise. ABC.com includes a Development department. Users in the Development department develop software applications for use by ABC.com customers. You have configured a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) environment to provide the Developers with temporary test environments.
The temporary MED-V Workspaces have expiry dates configured on them.
How can you minimize the disk space used by obsolete MED-V Workspaces?
A. By configuring the option to keep a limited number of old image versions on the Virtual
Machine tab in the MED-V Management console.
B. By configuring the Workspace Deletion options on the Deployment tab in the MED-V
Management console.
C. By selecting the Workspace is revertible option on the Virtual Machine tab in the MED-V
Management console.
D. By clearing the Enable Workspace option on the Deployment tab in the MED-V Management
console.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Question 1.
Given:
1. public class Threads2 implements Runnable {
2.
3. public void run() {
4. System.out.println("run.");
5. throw new RuntimeException("Problem");
6. }
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Thread t = new Thread(new Threads2());
9. t.start();
10. System.out.println("End of method.");
11. }
12. }
Which two can be results? (Choose two.)
A. java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
B. run
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
C. End of method.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
D. End of method.
run.
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
E. run
java.lang.RuntimeException: Problem
End of method.
Answer: D, E
Question 2.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible for more than two threads to deadlock at once.
B. The JVM implementation guarantees that multiple threads cannot enter into a deadlocked
state.
C. Deadlocked threads release once their sleep() method's sleep duration has expired.
D. Deadlocking can occur only when the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods are used
incorrectly.
E. It is possible for a single-threaded application to deadlock if synchronized blocks are used
incorrectly.
F. If a piece of code is capable of deadlocking, you cannot eliminate the possibility of deadlocking
by inserting invocations of Thread.yield().
Answer: A, F
Question 3.
Given:
7. void waitForSignal() {
8. Object obj = new Object();
9. synchronized (Thread.currentThread()) {
10. obj.wait();
11. obj.notify();
12. }
13. }
Which statement is true?
A. This code can throw an InterruptedException.
B. This code can throw an IllegalMonitorStateException.
C. This code can throw a TimeoutException after ten minutes.
D. Reversing the order of obj.wait() and obj.notify() might cause this method to complete
normally.
E. A call to notify() or notifyAll() from another thread might cause this method to complete
normally.
F. This code does NOT compile unless "obj.wait()" is replaced with "((Thread) obj).wait()".
Answer: B
Question 4.
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output if the main() method is run?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. Compilation fails.
F. An exception is thrown at runtime.
G. It is impossible to determine for certain.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Given:
11. class PingPong2 {
12. synchronized void hit(long n) {
13. for(int i = 1; i < 3; i++)
14. System.out.print(n + "-" + i + " ");
15. }
16. }
17. public class Tester implements Runnable {
18. static PingPong2 pp2 = new PingPong2();
19. public static void main(String[] args) {
20. new Thread(new Tester()).start();
21. new Thread(new Tester()).start();
22. }
23. public void run() { pp2.hit(Thread.currentThread().getId()); }
24. }
Which statement is true?
A. The output could be 5-1 6-1 6-2 5-2
B. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 5-2
C. The output could be 6-1 5-2 6-2 5-1
D. The output could be 6-1 6-2 5-1 7-1
Answer: B
Question 6.
Given:
1. public class Threads4 {
2. public static void main (String[] args) {
3. new Threads4().go();
4. }
5. public void go() {
6. Runnable r = new Runnable() {
7. public void run() {
8. System.out.print("foo");
9. }
10. };
11. Thread t = new Thread(r);
12. t.start();
13. t.start();
14. }
15. }
What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The code executes normally and prints "foo".
D. The code executes normally, but nothing is printed.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Given:
11. public abstract class Shape {
12. private int x;
13. private int y;
14. public abstract void draw();
15. public void setAnchor(int x, int y) {
16. this.x = x;
17. this.y = y;
18. }
19. }
Which two classes use the Shape class correctly? (Choose two.)
A. public class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
}
B. public abstract class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
}
C. public class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw();
}
D. public abstract class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw();
}
E. public class Circle extends Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw() {/* code here */}
F. public abstract class Circle implements Shape {
private int radius;
public void draw() { /* code here */ }
Answer: B, E
Question 8.
Given:
11. public class Barn {
12. public static void main(String[] args) {
13. new Barn().go("hi", 1);
14. new Barn().go("hi", "world", 2);
15. }
16. public void go(String... y, int x) {
17. System.out.print(y[y.length - 1] + " ");
18. }
19. }
What is the result?
A. hi hi
B. hi world
C. world world
D. Compilation fails.
E. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given:
10. class Nav{
11. public enum Direction { NORTH, SOUTH, EAST, WEST }
12. }
13. public class Sprite{
14. // insert code here
15. }
Which code, inserted at line 14, allows the Sprite class to compile?
A. Direction d = NORTH;
B. Nav.Direction d = NORTH;
C. Direction d = Direction.NORTH;
D. Nav.Direction d = Nav.Direction.NORTH;
Answer: D
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement is true about the classes and interfaces in the exhibit?
A. Compilation will succeed for all classes and interfaces.
B. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 2.
C. Compilation of class C will fail because of an error in line 6.
D. Compilation of class AImpl will fail because of an error in line 2.
Answer: C
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Question 1. What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'? A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker. B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker. C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target. D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid. Answer: C Explanation: The ethical hacker uses the same techniques and skills as a cracker and the motive is to find the security breaches before a cracker does. There is nothing that says that a cracker does not get paid for the work he does, a ethical hacker has the owners authorization and will get paid even if he does not succeed to penetrate the target. Question 2. What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean? A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons. B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons. C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes. D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes. Answer: C Explanation: Ethical hacking is only about defending your self or your employer against malicious persons by using the same techniques and skills. Question 3. Who is an Ethical Hacker? A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes Answer: C Explanation: The Ethical hacker is a security professional who applies his hacking skills for defensive purposes. Question 4. What is "Hacktivism"? A. Hacking for a cause B. Hacking ruthlessly C. An association which groups activists D. None of the above Answer: A Explanation: The term was coined by author/critic Jason Logan Bill Sack in an article about media artist Shu Lea Cheang. Acts of hacktivism are carried out in the belief that proper use of code will have leveraged effects similar to regular activism or civil disobedience. Question 5. Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply) A. CHAT rooms B. WHOIS database C. News groups D. Web sites E. Search engines F. Organization's own web site Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F Explanation: A Security tester should search for information everywhere that he/she can access. You never know where you find that small piece of information that could penetrate a strong defense. Question 6. What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two. A. DoS B. Passive C. Sniffing D. Active E. Cracking Answer: B, D Explanation: Passive and active attacks are the two basic types of attacks. Question 7: You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed ontheir website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is outdated? A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy. B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website. C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer. D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information. Answer: B Explanation: The Internet Archive (IA) is a non-profit organization dedicated to maintaining an archive of Web and multimedia resources. Located at the Presidio in San Francisco, California, this archive includes "snapshots of the World Wide Web" (archived copies of pages, taken at various points in time), software, movies, books, and audio recordings (including recordings of live concerts from bands that allow it). This site is found at www.archive.org. Question 8. User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving e-mail scams and mail fraud? A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act Answer: B Explanation: http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode18/usc_sec_18_00001030----000-.html Question 9. Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting? A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded. B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets. C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database. D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine. Answer: C Explanation: Passive footprinting is a method in which the attacker never makes contact with the target systems. Scanning the range of IP addresses found in the target DNS is considered making contact to the systems behind the IP addresses that is targeted by the scan. Question 10. Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic? A. Network aliasing B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) D. Port scanning Answer: B Explanation: This reference is close to the one listed DNS poisoning is the correct answer. This is how DNS DOS attack can occur. If the actual DNS records are unattainable to the attacker for him to alter in this fashion, which they should be, the attacker can insert this data into the cache of there server instead of replacing the actual records, which is referred to as cache poisoning.
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Question 1. Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans? A. Spam Blocker B. Antivirus C. Anti Spyware D. Anti Adware Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue? A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory. B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output. C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer. D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems. Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email? A. SFTP B. FTP C. SMTP D. POP3 Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader? A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults? A. Anti-static wrist straps B. Compressed air C. Anti-static wipes D. Operating system rescue disk Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM? A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post C. Wearing a grounded wristband D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD? A. Celeron B. Athlon C. Pentium D. Core 2 Quad Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem? A. Format the external USB hare drive. B. Turn off the external monitor C. Disconnect the external monitor D. Remove and reset the laptop battery Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers? A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website B. The manufacturer’s website C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the following is problem? A. The technician is not in administrator mode. B. System restore is turned off. C. System 32 folder has been removed. D. System restore is not supported on the OS version. Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of these are symptoms of malware on a computer? (Select TWO). A. Hard drive and network activity is higher when the computer is idle B. CD-ROM ejects unexpectedly from the computer C. Web browser accesses unexpected websites D. Prints from the computer have random characters and symbols instead of text E. The monitor has a permanent image burned into the display Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following commands will map a shared network drive? A. SFC B. NSLOOKUP C. NET USE D. IPCONFIG Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A technician wants to copy the entire documents and settings folder and subfolders to a new computer. Which of the following commands should the technician use? A. EDIT B. XCOPY C. COPY/A D. MOVE Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. A laptop reports the following RAM configuration. Assuming RAM is the same price per Mb, which of the following would be the least expensrve upgrade to the laptop to give it 12GB of RAM? Memory 3lots 2 DRAM Frequency 661.0 MHz Memory Timings 9-9-9-24 (CL-RCD-RP-RA3) Device Locator Slot 1 Capacity 4096 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No Device Locator Slot 2 Capacity 2048 MBytes Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700) Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333) Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz EPP SPD Support No XMP SPD Support No A. Two 6Gb DDR3 PC 10700 RAM modules B. One 10Gb DDR3 PC10700 RAM module C. One 8Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module D. One 6Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. A SOHO user has just installed a new wireless router on the network. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the user should do to secure the router from unauthorized use? A. Change the default administrator name and password B. Update the firmware in all of the client computers C. Setup MAC filtering to limit the devices that can connect D. Determine the DHCP range and any static exclusions Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to move a user' s documents and file settings, when upgrading the user from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows 7 computer? A. Easy Transfer B. Backup and Restore C. XCOPY D. System Restore Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. User profiles in Windows 7 are stored in which of the following locations? A. C:\UserProfiles B. C:\DocumentsandSettings\UserProfiles C. C:\Documents and Settings D. C:\Users Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. After a video card upgrade nothing is displayed on the LCD screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The new video card has to be first installed using the Services MMC. B. The onboard video of the motherboard is still enabled in the BIOS. C. New video cards require new monitors as their resolutions do not match D. The new video card has to be enabled by a DIP switch on the motherboard. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following multimeter settings should only be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select TWO). A. Ampere B. Continuity C. volt D. Resistance E. Wattage Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following commands would be used to map a network drive? A. MD B. SFC C. IPCONFIG D. NET Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection? A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Watermarking D. Checksumming Answer: B Question 2. What key roles are performed by the Project Manager? A. Manage goals, company expectations, staffing and equipment needs, and costs B. Secure funding, write proposals, and manage departmental priorities C. Manage and maintain image quality control and production goals D. Manage and ensure that the imaging process is documented and that costs are contained Answer: A Question 3. A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned? A. Tracking capability B. Records management C. Scan-to-folder D. Error handling Answer: A Question 4. A customers current document security model provides access to paper documents based upon job definition. Employees change jobs periodically based upon skills and business needs. An electronic system would need to implement: A. role-based security. B. user privilege sets. C. modifiable document classification models. D. user group security. Answer: A Question 5. What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner? A. Resolution, compression, and memory B. Workflow, ease of use, and productivity C. Documents, images, and storage medium D. Interface, resolution, and paper handling Answer: D Question 6. A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process? A. The customer has a formal records storage management process. B. The customer has an informal records management process. C. The customer has a document capture process. D. The customer does not have a records management process. Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project? A. A series of white papers on the solution B. Executive briefing with only senior management C. Onsite demonstration with customers documents D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents Answer: C Question 8. Currently, corporate headquarters maintains a central document repository with a Records Manager that maintains custody of these confidential documents. There are 18 branch locations connected via intranet with six new additional locations opening within the year. If a branch office needs confidential documents, an e-mail request is sent to the Records Manager who will then fax or overnight the documents to the branch locations. What would be the impact of implementing a web-based solution for end-users? A. It would require extensive training on use and operation. B. End-user productivity would dramatically increase. C. The new system would be slower to receive desired information than the current system. D. Most end-user computers would need to be upgraded to support a web-based solution. Answer: B Question 9. A customer is printing large TIFF images. The method with the LEAST impact on network load is to decompress the image at the: A. printer. B. jukebox. C. client workstation. D. network server. Answer: A Question 10. In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support: A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP). B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). C. FTP. D. XML. Answer: B
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long.
Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html
Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media
gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer
Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are
Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any
NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally
defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are
standards-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632
Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
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Question 1. Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic? A. AUX B. Gigabit Ethernet C. Fast Ethernet D. Channelized serial Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two) A. Encapsulation type B. Interface status C. Layer 2 address D. Layer 3 address E. Keep alive Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 3. The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two) A. Pins 1 and 4 B. Pins 1 and 7 C. Pins 2 and 5 D. Pins 2 and 8 E. Pins 1 and 5 F. Pins 2 and 7 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two) A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad C. Start > All Programs > Notepad D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain. C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID Answer: A, B, E Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is a DTE device? A. router B. CSU/DSU C. cable modem D. DSL modem Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two) A. It is a repeater. B. It is a data link layer device. C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host. D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port. E. It acts as an amplifier. Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router? A. Crossover B. Straight-through C. Fiber D. Rollover Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cable us used on the ATM card? A. Fiber-optic BNC B. Coaxial C. Serial D. Crossover Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.) A. a single strand of glass fiber B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber C. cost is less than multimode fiber D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber Answer: A, B Explanation:
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