|
Question 1.
Which three methods can be used to import devices into the Management Center for
VPN routers? Select three.
A. import directly from multiple devices
B. import from configuration files
C. multiple device import from XLS file
D. import directly from single device
E. multiple device import from CSV file
F. import from resource manager essentials
Answer: B, D, E
|
Please keep up to date thanks buddy
|
Question 1.
The XMLCHAR builtin function provides the ability to do which of the following?
A. Check XML for well-formedness
B. Check XML for validity
C. Create an XML buffer from a structure
D. Read an XML file into a structure
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following is a typical deadlock situation?
Situation 1:
Transaction A waiting for resource_2 and Transaction B waiting for resource_1 while resource_1 is held by Transaction C and resource_2 is held by Transaction B
Situation 2:
Transaction A waiting for resource_1 and Transaction B waiting for resource_2 while resource_1 is held by Transaction B and resource_2 is held by Transaction C
Situation 3:
Transaction A Waiting for resource_2, Transaction B waiting for resource_3, Transaction C waiting for resource_1 ,while resource_1 ,resource_2 and resource_3 are held by Transactions A, B and C respectively.
Situation 4:
Transaction B waiting for resource_1 and Transaction C waiting for resource 2 while resource_1 is held by Transaction C and resource_2 is held by Transaction A
A. Situation 1
B. Situation 2
C. Situation 3
D. Situation 4
Answer: C
Question 3.
Requirement:
If the value of the numeric variable I is 1 it needs to be changed to 2 and vice versa. In all other cases it must remain unchanged. Which of the following solutions meets the requirement and does not require essential structural modifications when the requirement is changed to the following: If the value of the numeric variable I is 512 it needs to be changed to 731 and if the value is 814 it needs to be changed to 5. In all other cases it must be set to 111.
A. lF I = 1 ! 1 = 2
THEN I = 3 - I;
B. DCLONETWO(2) BIN FIXED(15) INIT(2,1);
IF I = 1! I = 2
THEN I = ONETWO(I);
C. SELECT (I);
WHEN(1) I = 2;
WHEN(2) I = 1;
OTHER;
END;
D. IF I = 1 THEN I = 2;
IF I = 2 THEN I = 1;
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be performed by an online application?
A. Checkpoint/restart logic
B. Transaction processing
C. End user interaction
D. Sorting
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of the following PL/I features is NOT new with Enterprise PL/I?
A. VALUE attribute for named constants.
B. UNIONs or CELLs to assign identical storage to different variables.
C. Writing numeric constants with the underscore sign as a separator.
D. Using hexadecimal constants.
Answer: D
Question 6.
The lead developer on a project has just learned that Pat, a highly skilled programmer on the team, has been reassigned. The lead developer is familiar with Pat's work and is concerned because no one on the team has the necessary skills to pick up the work immediately. A new employee with the required skills is joining the team next week, but the timeline for a mission critical milestone has been moved up to the end of this week.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the lead developer to take to ensure that the critical milestone is met?
A. Direct the team to cover all of Pat's work until the new employee arrives.
B. Explain to the team why this change in schedule is important to the customer.
C. Personally cover the work until the new employee arrives.
D. Explore with the team whether they will be able to meet the new deadline.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Given the following declarations, which statement correctly refers to X?
DCL R CHAP(10);
DCLX CHAR(10) BASED;
DCL P PTR;
DCLZ CHAR(10);
P = ADDR(R);
A. Z = P -> X;
B. P = ADDR(X);
C. Z = X;
D. X='THIS IS X';
Answer: A
Question 8.
Prerequisite:
A sorted input dataset with record length 100 contains at least one record for each of the values '1', '2', '3' in the first byte. The applied sort criteria is 1,100,ch,a.
Requirements:
1.) All records with '1' in the first byte must be ignored.
2.) All records with '2' in the first byte must be written to the output dataset.
3.) If there is a '3' in the first byte, the read iteration must be left.
4.) The program must not abend or loop infinitely.
If the code below does not fulfill the specifications provided above, which of the following is the most likely reason?
DCL DDIN FILE RECORD INPUT;
DCL DDOUT FILE RECORD OUTPUT;
DCL 1 INSTRUC,
3 A CHAR(1),
3 * CHAR(99);
DCL EOF_IN BIT(1) INIT('0'B);
DCL (Z1,Z2,Z3,ZO) BIN FIXED(31) INIT(0);
ON ENDFILE(DDIN) EOF_IN = '1'B;
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO (INSTRUC);
LOOP: DO WHILE (^EOF_IN);
SELECT(INSTRUC.A);
WHEN('1') DO;
Z1 +-= Z1;
ITERATE LOOP;
END;
WHEN('3') DO;
Z3 = Z3+1;
LEAVE LOOP;
END;
WHEN('2') DO;
Z2 = Z2+1;
WRITE FILE(DDOUT) FROM(INSTRUC);
END;
OTHER DO;
ZO = ZO+1;
PUT SKIP LIST(INSTRUC.A);
END;
END;/*select*/
READ FILE(DDIN) INTO(INSTRUC);
END ;/*loop*/
A. The code does not fulfill the requirement because the program will loop infinitely. A. The code
does not fulfill the requirement because the program will loop infinitely.
B. The code does not fulfill the requirement because the last record with '2' in the first byte will be
written twice to the outputdataset.C. The code does not fulfill the requirement because the last
record with '2' in the first byte will be written twice to the output dataset.
C. The code does not fulfill the requirement because not all records with '2' in the first byte will be
written to the outputdataset.C. The code does not fulfill the requirement because not all records
with '2' in the first byte will be written to the output dataset.
D. The code fulfills therequirement.D. The code fulfills the requirement.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Given the following declarations, which code is likely to perform best and correctly initialize structure 3?
DCL 1 S UNALIGNED,
2 A CHAR(3),
2 B BIN FIXED(31),
2 C DEC FIXED(5);
DCL 1 T UNALIGNED LIKE S;
T = ";
A. S= ";
B. S = T,BY NAME;
C. CALLPLIFILL(ADDR(S),'',STG(S));
D. CALLPLIMOVE(ADDR(S),ADDR(T),STG(S));
Answer: D
Question 10.
Given the following declarations, a list of 100 elements must be created so that the element created last can be accessed as the first element of the list. A new element is always inserted in front of the element created before. The variable NEXT in the last element should contain the value NULL.
Which of the following pieces of code implements this?
DCL 1 NODE BASED (ANCHOR).
2 NEXT POINTER,
2 DATA FIXED BIN (31);
DCL ANCHOR POINTER;
DCL P POINTER INIT (NULL());
DCL I FIXED BIN(31);
A. DO I = 1 TO 100;
ALLOCATE NODE;
NODE.DATA = I;
NODE.NEXT = P;
P = ANCHOR;
END;
B. DO I = 1 TO 100;
P = ANCHOR;
ALLOCATE NODE;
NOTE.DATA = I;
NODE.NEXT = P;
END;
C. I = 1 TO 100;
ALLOCATE NODE;
NODE.DATA = I;
NODE.NEXT = P;
ANCHOR = P;
END;
D. DO I = 1 TO 100;
NODE.DATA = I;
NODE.NEXT = P;
ALLOCATE NODE;
P = ANCHOR;
END;
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D
Question 2.
In a routing type workflow process, on which nodes does IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 use the information specified to deliver the record to individuals?
A. Condition and Task
B. Manual Input and Task
C. Interaction and Manual Input
D. Manual Input andSubprocess
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is the maximum value (as a percentage of total cost) that an item identified as conditioncoded can have?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D
Question 4.
In order to use the item records at the site level, to what must the item be added?
A. Asset
B. Location
C. Storeroom
D. Rotating Asset
Answer: C
Question 5.
What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A
Question 6.
What is used to execute a task at a particular time against any application on a user-defined schedule with user-defined parameters?
A. Sets
B. Workflow
C. Cron Task
D. Notification
Answer: C
Question 7.
Can an item balance ever be allowed to be negative?
A. Never
B. Always
C. Depends on which item
D. Depends on if it is allowed in the Inventory Default settings
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item
Master application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but
inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are
created in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are
created in the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master
application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are
created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A
Question 9.
What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particularLot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled fromlotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups.
It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. UseNTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Useonly offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Managerclient without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C
Question 2.
A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment.
Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D
Question 3.
A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster.
How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C
Question 5.
In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Managerserver activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the
client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B
Question 7.
What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C
Question 9.
In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore fullSnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBMTivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. queryconfig
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
In an environment that includes both a Master Domain Manager (MDM) and Backup Master Domain Manger (BMDM), which two options are appropriate for the location of the database? (Choose two.)
A. Local database installed on the MDM only
B. Live local database installed on the BMDM only
C. Single database on a clustered machine remote from the MDM and BMDM
D. Live database installed on a single Fault Tolerant Agent within IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler
network
E. Live database on MDM and High Availability Disaster Recovery/Data Guard standby database
on BMDM
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
Which two commands are used to migrate IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler to version 8.5 on a UNIX system? (Choose two.)
A. launch.sh
B. wdinstspb
C. SETUP.bin
D. twsinst -migrate
E. SETUP.bin -silent
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
When building the job stream MASTER#NEW_STREAM in the composer command line, which option should be used to apply the settings in the Variable Table "LIVE_VARS" to be associated to the jobs in the job stream?
A. SCHEDULE MASTER#NEW_STREAM
VARTABLE LIVE_VARS
ON RUNCYCLE DAILY "FREQ=DAILY"
:
B. SCHEDULE MASTER#NEW_STREAM
ON RUNCYCLE DAILY "FREQ=DAILY"
:
JOBVARTABLE LIVE_VARS
C. SCHEDULE MASTER#NEW_STREAM
USE VARIABLE_TABLE=LIVE_VARS
ON RUNCYCLE DAILY="FREQ=DAILY"
:
D. SCHEDULE MASTER#NEW_STREAM
ON RUNCYCLE DAILY="FREQ=DAILY"
JOBVARTABLE=LIVE_VARS
:
Answer: A
Question 4.
What is the correct command to stop the currently executing job "test" in JOBS job stream on a local machine?
A. conman "k test"
B. conman "cj test"
C. conman "kjobs.test"
D. conman "cj jobs.test"
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler report will provide the job history?
A. rep2
B. rep3
C. rep7
D. rep8
Answer: C
Question 6.
In which order are job stream / job dependencies resolved?
A. Predecessor - start time - prompt - file - resource
B. Start time - prompt - predecessor - resource - file
C. Prompt - predecessor - start time - file - resource
D. File - start time - prompt - resource - predecessor
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which report will provide information on the most recently completed plan?
A. Report 08 - Job Histogram
B. Report 07 - Job History Listing
C. Report 10B - Actual Production Detail
D. Report 11 - Planned Production Schedule
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which command is issued on an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler master to determine link status and collect into a user created report?
A. netstat -rn >
B. conman "sc" >
C. conman "show links" >
D. conman "disp lnk status" >
Answer: B
Question 9.
After making changes to the monitoring configuration file for the event monitoring engine on an agent, which conman command will force the change immediately?
A. loadconf
B. resetconf
C. deployconf
D. deploymonman
Answer: C
Question 10.
How can a Job with EXEC as Internal Status be stopped in the Job Scheduling Console?
A. Select Kill from the menu
B. Select Release from the menu
C. Select Cancel Job from the menu
D. Select Cancel Pending from the menu
Answer: A
|
Question 1. All of the following provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol EXCEPT: A. SSL. B. SSH. C. L2TP. D. IPSeC. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following allows an attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data? A. Steganography B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Virus Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page? A. Teardrop B. TCP/IP hijacking C. Phishing D. Replay Answer: B Question 4. How should a company test the integrity of its backup data? A. By conducting another backup B. By using software to recover deleted files C. By restoring part of the backup D. By reviewing the written procedures Answer: C Question 5. Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices? A. Vulnerability scanner B. NIPS C. Protocol analyzer D. Network mapper Answer: D Question 6. When should a technician perform penetration testing? A. When the technician suspects that weak passwords exist on the network B. When the technician is trying to guess passwords on a network C. When the technician has permission from the owner of the network D. When the technician is war driving and trying to gain access Answer: C Question 7. An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam real-time block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server? A. SMTP open relaying is enableD. B. It does not have a spam filter. C. The amount of sessions needs to be limiteD. D. The public IP address is incorrect. Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data? A. Hashing algorithms B. Symmetric key algorithms C. Asymmetric key algorithms D. ECC algorithms Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points? A. Rogue access points B. War driving C. Weak encryption D. Session hijacking Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following BEST describes ARP? A. Discovering the IP address of a device from the MAC address B. Discovering the IP address of a device from the DNS name C. Discovering the MAC address of a device from the IP address D. Discovering the DNS name of a device from the IP address Answer: C
|
Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B
|
Question 1. In what way do the procedures for dealing with evidence in a criminal case differ from the procedures for dealing with evidence in a civil case? A. evidence procedures are not important unless you work for a law enforcement agency B. evidence must be handled in the same way regardless of the type of case C. evidence in a civil case must be secured more tightly than in a criminal case D. evidence in a criminal case must be secured more tightly than in a civil case Answer: B Question 2. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION C. HKEY_USER D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER Answer: C Question 3. If a suspect's computer is located in an area that may have toxic chemicals, you must A. coordinate with the HAZMAT team B. do not enter alone C. assume the suspect machine is contaminated D. determine a way to obtain the suspect computer Answer: A Question 4. Profiling is a forensics technique for analyzing evidence with the goal of identifying the perpetrator from their pervious activity. After a computer has been compromised by a hacker, which of the following would be most important in forming a profile of the incident? A. The vulnerability exploited in the incident B. The manufacture of the system compromised C. The nature of the attack D. The logic, formatting and elegance of the code used in the attack Answer: D Question 5. What information do you need to recover when searching a victims computer for a crime committed with specific e-mail message? A. Username and password B. Firewall log C. E-mail header D. Internet service provider information Answer: C Question 6. The use of warning banners helps a company avoid litigation by overcoming an employees assumed ___________________ when connecting to the companys intranet, network, or virtual private network (VPN) and will allow the companys investigators to monitor, search, and retrieve information stored within the network. A. right of privacy B. right to Internet access C. right to work D. right of free speech Answer: A Question 7. When examining a hard disk without a write-blocker, you should not start Windows because Windows will write data to the: A. Case files B. Recycle Bin C. BIOS D. MSDOS.SYS Answer: B Question 8. How many sectors will a 125 KB file use in a FAT32 file system? A. 16 B. 25 C. 256 D. 32 Answer: C Question 9. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION B. HKEY_USER C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Answer: B Question 10. You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems administrator for a local school system requesting your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab. When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC and put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future proceedings? A. incremental backup copy B. full backup copy C. robust copy D. bit-stream copy Answer: D
|
Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.