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I need some questions, Please upload the new questions. advanced thanks....
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Question 1.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You discover that some mailboxes have been infected by malware. However there are no malware infection notifications in the Forefront Protection for Exchange Server Console. You need to immediately check specific mailboxes to see if they are infected by the malware.
What should you do?
A. You should run a Forefront Client Security scan on the client computers.
B. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform a real-time scan of the
mailboxes.
C. You should use Forefront Protection for Exchange to perform an on-demand scan of the
mailboxes.
D. You should install Microsoft Security Essentials on client computers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment.
How would you configure FPE to enable spam filtering?
A. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSEScheduledScan cmdlet.
B. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run Set-FseSpamFiltering the cmdlet.
C. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FseSpamContentCheck cmdlet.
D. By using the Forefront Management Shell to run the Set-FSERealtimeScan cmdlet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails. The subject line in each of the emails is: “Free access to our new online tournament!” You note that the sender email address is spoofed to appear to be from a different domain for each email.
How can you block this spam attack in future?
A. You should configure an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. You should configure a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. You should configure a keyword filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. You should configure a sender-domain custom filter in FPE.
E. You should configure a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 4.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. Four servers running Windows 2008 Server host the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers.
Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to improve the security of the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to configure email scanning in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010.
How should you configure FPE to scan all emails sent from within the ABC.com domain to email recipients in the ABC.com domain?
A. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
B. You should configure FPE to perform Internal scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
C. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
D. You should configure FPE to perform Inbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
E. You should configure FPE to perform Outbound scanning on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The network environment is secured using Microsoft Forefront. A server named ABC-ShPoint1 runs Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010. The SharePoint system is protected by Forefront Protection 2010 for SharePoint (FPSP).
How can you configure the environment to ensure that scanning is performed on all documents that pass through the SharePoint Portal?
A. By logging into the SharePoint portal and configuring the scanning for uploaded and
downloaded documents.
B. By logging into the SharePoint Central Administration website and configuring the scanning for
uploaded and downloaded documents.
C. By logging into the Forefront Protection for SharePoint console and configuring the scanning
for uploaded and downloaded documents.
D. By logging into IIS Manager on the SharePoint Web Server and configuring the scanning for
uploaded and downloaded documents.
E. By logging into the Security Centre on the SharePoint Database Server and configuring the
scanning for uploaded and downloaded documents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails.
How can you block a future spam attack based on repeated words in the body of the email?
A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.
E. by configuring a subject line filtering custom filter in FPE.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 7.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. The company uses Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to protect the Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. While monitoring the logs in the FPE console, you discover that users in the company have received spam emails. You examine the email headers and discover a common source IP address.
How can you block a future spam attack based on the IP address?
A. by configuring an allowed sender custom filter in FPE.
B. by configuring a file filtering custom filter in FPE.
C. by configuring a sender-domain filtering custom filter in FPE.
D. by configuring a keyword custom filter in FPE.
E. by configuring a connection filter in FPE.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 8.
You are responsible for the security of the ABC.com network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You need to ensure the maximum security when users access their emails on the Exchange servers. You want to ensure that emails are scanned for as much malware as possible.
Which two of the following actions should you perform? (Choose two).
A. You should enable on-demand scanning.
B. You should enable real-time scanning.
C. You should select the option to scan message body.
D. You should select the option to scan after engine update.
E. You should increase the scanning timeout value.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
You work as a Security Administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of Windows 2008 Servers hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. A new scan engine definition is released for Exchange Server 2010.
How can you immediately apply new definitions in Forefront Protection for Exchange Server?
A. by running the Set-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.
B. by running the Start-FseSignatureUpdate PowerShell cmdlet.
C. by running the Get-FseSignatureOptions PowerShell cmdlet.
D. by running the Set-FseEngineManagement PowerShell cmdlet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
You work as a Network Administrator at ABC.com. Your responsibilities include the security of the computers in the network. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named ABC.com and includes servers running Windows Server 2008 and client computers running Windows 7 Professional. A pool of servers running Windows 2008 Server hosts the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment.
Two servers named ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Edge Transport servers. Two servers named ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2 are configured as Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Servers and also run the Microsoft Exchange Hub Transport server roles. You have recently implemented Forefront Protection for Exchange Server (FPE) 2010 to secure the Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 environment. You receive reports from users saying that they receive undeliverable mail bounce messages for emails that they did not send. You suspect that the sender field has been forged in the failed messages.
How can you ensure that users do not receive undeliverable mail messages for emails that they did not send?
A. You should configure a sender filter on ABC-Mbox1 and ABC-Mbox2.
B. You should configure a backscatter filter on ABC-Edge1 and ABC-Edge2.
C. You should disable Delivery Status Notifications (DSN) messages on ABC-Edge1 and
ABCEdge2.
D. You should configure a separate Exchange mailbox to receive all Delivery Status Notifications
(DSN) messages.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down.
What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E
Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C
Question 3.
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E
Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
Answer: A
Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP
addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in
The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses
in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same
subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP
Addresses in the same subnet
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D
Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B
Question 2.
Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Agent
Answer: B
Question 3.
SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D
Question 4.
The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources.
They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B
Question 5.
What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B
Question 6.
Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B
Question 7.
What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D
Question 8.
What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: A, C, F
Question 9.
When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D
Question 10.
CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A
Question 2.
VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C
Question 3.
fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer.
What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in
the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D
Question 5.
You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E
Question 9.
The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's troubleshooting guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A
Question 10.
NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it
access to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load
passing through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C
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Question 1. What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets? A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0 B. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255 C. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255 D. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 Answer: D Question 2. What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection? A. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value B. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path C. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value D. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path Answer: A Question 3. Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.) A. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping C. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing D. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification E. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification Answer: B, F Question 4. Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type? A. Link-state request B. Hello C. Database description D. Goodbye E. Link-state acknowledgment Answer: D Question 5. Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules? A. 4300 B. 5012 C. 6040 D. 5682 E. 6080 Answer: B Question 6. Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support? A. PVCs only B. SVCs only C. PVCs and SVCs Answer: A Question 7. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)? A. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks B. Site and content blocking C. Enhanced session logging D. Java Blocking E. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM) Answer: B Question 8. Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.) A. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion B. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO) C. All packets have equal rights to network resources D. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP E. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped Answer: A, B, C Question 9. Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.) A. Dynamic Security Link B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) C. Network Address Translation (NAT) D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) E. IP Security (IPSec) F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) Answer: B, D, E Question 10. In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way? A. FIFO Queuing B. Weighted Fair Queuing C. Class Based Queuing D. Fair Queuing E. Priority Queuing F. Custom Queuing Answer: C
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Question 1.
An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1
Gb/sec
D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8
Gb/sec
Answer: C
Question 2.
Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the backend servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address.
On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?
A. ACL
B. Client
C. Virtual server
D. Back-end server
Answer: A
Question 3.
How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A. Use the default TCP monitor
B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer: C
Question 4.
An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment.
What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?
A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard oncete correct vserver is selected
Answer: B
Question 5.
Page 2 of 24
An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance.
Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?
A. Client connection count increases
B. Server side request rate increases
C. Client connection count decreases
D. Server side request rate decreases
Answer: D
Question 6.
An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
A. SNMP trap
B. SNMP user
C. SNMP group
D. SNMP community
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?
A. entityup
B. entitydown
C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh
Answer: D
Question 8.
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds.
How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C. setmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D. add lbmon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer: D
Question 9.
Scenario: An administrator is planning on configuring health checks for services bound to web servers 1 and 2 which are listening on TCP port 80 for HTTP and TCP port 443 for HTTPS. Service1 receives the encrypted traffic and Service 2 receives the clear text traffic.
How should the administrator create the monitor for Service1 using the command line interface?
A. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -secure YES
B. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -secure YES
C. setmon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -transparent NO
D. add lbmon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -transparent NO
Answer: B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network services because of a local natural or human disaster.
Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired?
Click the Task button to answer.
Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
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Question 1.
An administrator created a template of a Microsoft Windows XP SP3 virtual machine (VM) and now needs to modify it.
How can the administrator modify the template?
A. Export the template from the XenServer host, import it to another system, power it on and
Make the changes
B. Power on the VM template, make the changes and save the template
C. Create a new VM based on the original template, make the changes to the new VM and turn
the new VM into the new template
D. Put the XenServer host in Maintenance mode, make the changes to the VM template and then
exit Maintenance Mode
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which step requires an administrator to enable maintenance mode on a XenServer host?
A. Creating Fibre Channel storage repositories
B. Enabling high availability
C. Creating NIC bonds
D. Enabling storage multipathing
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which storage repository type allows an administrator to create a new storage repository that does not erase any existing data on the specified storage target?
A. EQUAL
B. NFS
C. EXT
D. NetApp
Answer: B
Question 4.
What must an administrator configure on the pool master to allow migration of virtual machines (VMs) between servers in the pool?
A. Shared Storage
B. NIC bond
C. High availability
D. Management Interface
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which is a valid MAC address?
A. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0
B. 255.255.255.255
C. 6A:70:A0:5E:D0:04
D. 127.0.0.1
Answer: C
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
An administrator needs to connect a network to an external VLAN using the command line interface (CLI). Click the Task button to place the steps necessary to connect a network to an external VLAN using the CLI in the correct order. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
Answer:
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button to place the steps in the correct order for an administrator to configure multipathing using XenCenter. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item.
What is the correct order of steps for the configuration of multipathing using XenCenter?
Answer:
Question 8.
Which two XenServer CLI commands are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Pool-ha-enable
B. Pool-backup
C. Pool-recover-slaves
D. Pool-create-pool
Answer: A, C
Question 9.
An administrator recently created an ISO library for a XenServer environment. The administrator now wants to make the ISO library available to all XenServer hosts.
What must the administrator do before the ISO library can be attached using XenCenter?
A. Copy the ISO library to the control domain
B. Build a directory to copy the ISO library into
C. Make an exploded network repository using FTP
D. Create an external NFS or CIFS share directory
Answer: D
Question 10.
An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0.
Which upgrade path should the administrator take?
A. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager
B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0
C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0
D. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode
Answer: C
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Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience.
Which of the following is the impact of system failure?
A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C
Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.
Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?
A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: B
Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved.
What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?
A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning
Answer: C
Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process.
What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarily interested in?
A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O
Answer: A
Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits.
A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?
A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting
Answer: C
Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties.
Which of the following meets this immediate situation?
A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized
architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not
cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and
services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.
Answer: B
Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution.
Which of the following is an effective response?
A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a
roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as
goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established
other pillars should be implemented
Answer: D
Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved.
Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?
A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design
Answer: A
Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following?
A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing
Answer: A
Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.
Which of the following defines a business RPO?
A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without
their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?
A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?
A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f
Answer: B
Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?
A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?
A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
Answer: C
Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?
A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.
Answer: D
Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?
A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;
What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?
A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase
Answer: C
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