|
Question 1.
Which of the following types of attacks is typical of an intruder who is targeting
networks of systems in an effort to retrieve data of enhance their privileges?
A. Access attack
B. Denial of Service attack
C. Man in the middle attack
D. Authorization attack
E. Reconnaissance attack
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following types of attacks would be a most probable consequence of the
presence of a shared folder in a Windows operating system?
A. Denial of Service Attack
B. Access Attack
C. Authorization attack
D. Reconnaissance attack
E. Man-in-the-middle
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You are in the process of developing a strategy that has three tables named ABC1, ABC2, and ABC3. The ABC1 and ABC2 have the integer and varchar data type column types configured respectively. ABC3 has both the integer and varchar data types configured as column types. You have configured rowlevel compression on ABC1, and page-level compression on ABC2 and ABC3.
Which of the following describes the reason for this configuration?
A. It allows for the reduction of disk space usage, while modifying the data types in the tables of
the database
B. It allows for the reduction of disk space usage without modifying the data types in the tables of
the database
C. It allows for the increase of disk space usage, while modifying the data types in the tables of
The database
D. It allows for the increase of disk space usage, while modifying the data types in the tables of
the database
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You have received instructions to design a database strategy that includes a table which hosts data imported from an outside source. This data includes a field named Transaction Time that should be configured to make use of hh:mm:ss[.n] format. You have been informed that the data type selected for the TransactionTime field must allow for storage to be kept to a minimum. You, therefore, make use of the time(1) data type.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the time data type?
A. The default fractional precision is 7 (100ns).
B. The default fractional precision is 3 (100ns).
C. The time produced by the time data type is not time zone aware and is based on a 24-hour
clock.
D. The time produced by the time data type is time zone aware and is based on a 12-hour clock.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 3.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You have received instructions to design a strategy that has two tables named ABCVendor and ABCItem. You have configured a foreign key constraint between the ABCVendor and ABCItem tables on the ABCVendorID column. You have configured the ABCVendor table to display a 0 value for the ABCVendorID when a vendor is removed. You also want make sure that the ABCVendorID value in the ABCItem table is set to 0 when a vendor is removed. You then create a default constraint on the ABCVendorID column in the ABCItem table, which is used to set the value to 0.
Which of the following actions should you take NEXT?
A. You should consider setting the ON DELETE property of the foreign key constraint to Null.
B. You should consider setting the ON DELETE property of the foreign key constraint to Default.
C. You should consider setting the ON DELETE property of the foreign key constraint to
Cascade.
D. You should consider setting the ON DELETE property of the foreign key constraint to No
Action.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of a SQL Server 2008 instance to develop database strategies. You are in the process of designing a database strategy that makes use of the Integration Services and Microsoft Sync Framework SQL Server components.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the use of these components?
A. Microsoft Sync Framework allows for collaboration and offline access for applications,
services, and devices.
B. Microsoft Sync Framework prevents collaboration and offline access for applications, services,
and devices.
C. Integration Services allows for the merging of data from Heterogeneous Data Stores.
D. Integration Services prevents the merging of data from Heterogeneous Data Stores.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 5.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You have received instructions to design a strategy that helps ABC.com’s administration manager. You have created three entities named User, UserTask, and UserAssignment. You have configured the User entity to make use of the UserID attribute, the UserTask entity to make use of the UserTaskID attribute, and the UserAssignment entity to make use of the UserAssignmentID attribute. You have been informed that the strategy must allow for users to be assigned multiple tasks. You also need to ensure that a task is deleted when it has been completed, and that the assignment linked to that task is also deleted. Furthermore, a NULL value has to replace the user reference to the user assignment as soon as a user becomes unavailable to finish a task.
Which combination of the following actions should you take? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You should consider configuring Foreign Key constraints on the UserTaskID and UserID
attributes in the UserAssignment entity.
B. You should consider configuring Foreign Key constraints on the UserTaskID and UserID
attributes in the UserTask and User entities respectively.
C. You should consider referencing the UserTask and User entities respectively.
D. You should consider referencing the UserAssignment and User entities respectively.
E. You should consider specifying the On Delete property as NULL.
F. You should consider specifying the On Delete property as Default.
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
Question 6.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You are in the process of designing a strategy that includes a table with 500 columns and 50 million rows. The columns in the table have been configured to make use of the nvarchar(max) data type. After being informed that less than ten percent of the rows in each column will be populated, you decide configure the table for storage space optimization.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider changing the column data type for all columns to varbinary(max).
B. You should consider changing the column data type for all columns to varchar(max).
C. You should consider configuring all the columns in the table as sparse columns.
D. You should consider removing columns that have the least data in it.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. ABC.com has a database strategy that includes two tables named SalesPerson and SalesTerritory. You have been instructed to make use of a Cartesian product to generate sample data that includes the data from the SalesPerson and SalesTerritory tables.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should write code that performs a cross join, and includes a WHERE clause.
B. You should write code that performs a cross join, and includes an ON clause.
C. You should write code that performs an inner join, and includes a WHERE clause.
D. You should write code that performs a cross join, but does not include a WHERE clause.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 8.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. A ABC.com database includes a table named User that has four columns named UserID, UserType, FirstName, and LastName. You have configured a unique clustered index on the UserID column named IX_User_UserID, and a nonclustered index on the FirstName and LastName columns named IX_User_FirstName_LastName. You have also configured a nonclustered index on the UserType column named IX_User_UserType that has FirstName and LastName as included columns
You have written and performed the query shown below:
SELECT P.FirstName, P.LastName
FROM User P
WHERE P.UserType = 'DR'
Prior to making use of an execution plan for evaluating the execution of the query, You want to determine whether the indexes are used in the best possible way.
Which of the following actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. You should consider making sure that a clustered index scan operation is executed on the
IX_Person_PersonID index.
B. You should consider making sure that an index seek operation is performed on the
IX_Person_PersonType index.
C. You should consider making sure that a key lookup operation is performed on the
IX_Person_PersonType index.
D. You should consider making sure that a key lookup operation is performed on the
IX_Person_PersonID index.
E. You should consider making sure that a index seek operation is performed on the
IX_Person_PersonID index.
F. You should consider making sure that a index scan operation is performed on the
IX_Person_FirstName_LastName index.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You have created table within ABC.com’s database that includes numerous columns. You are required to create an index for the table.
Which of the following are TRUE with regards to indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. There has to be data in the table before you can create an index.
B. Using a clustered index allows for the physical order of the corresponding rows in a table to be
determined by the logical order of the key value.
C. Using a non-clustered index allows for the physical order of the corresponding rows in a table
To be determined by the logical order of the key value.
D. A table can only have one clustered index at a time
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 10.
You are employed as a database developer at ABC.com. You make use of SQL Server 2008 to develop database strategies. You are preparing to develop a strategy for a database, which includes a stored procedure that returns data from a table and produces aggregations using a transaction. You are required to make sure that the strategy prevents update operations from occurring on the returned data during the implementation of the store procedure. You also have to make sure that during the implementation of the stored procedure, data can be inserted into the table.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider configuring the use of the PARALLEL isolation level.
B. You should consider configuring the use of the READ DEDICATED isolation level.
C. You should consider configuring the use of the REPEATABLE READ isolation level.
D. You should consider configuring the use of the SNAPSHOT isolation level.
Answer: C
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. All of the above
D. Large enterprise distribution layer
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted
Random Early Discard)
D. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Eight hardware queues per switch
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Configurable queue processing
D. Queue priority is based only on FirstIn First Out (FIFO) algorithm
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.
Answer:
Question 7.
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Protect resources with network security
B. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
C. Block rogue applications
D. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: "An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
C. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
D. Creates a 12Gbps full-duplex link between switches
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. All of the above
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO version
or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B
Question 2.
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Internal_clear>- All_GwToGw
B. Communities >- Communities
C. Internal_clear>- External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>- Communitis
E. Internal_clear>-All_communitis
Answer: E
Question 3.
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line.
What happens to the user? The....
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username and password
for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.
Answer: B
Question 4.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line.
What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and password
for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B
Question 5.
You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 Gateway to SecurePlalform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VPN-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlalform NGX R60
D. SVN Foundation
E. VPN-1 ProfExpress NGX R60
Answer: C
Explanation:
SecurePlatform Upgrade
An IBM e305 server is configured as a SecurePlatform firewall with NG-AI HFA- 12. A new VPN-1 Pro/Express Gateway object is created in SmartDashboard. SIC is initialized and NG and NGX licenses are attached to the module.The starting point for the upgrade is illustrated in Figure 13.16.
Figure 13.16 The Package Management View SecurePlatform Pre-Upgrade
The next step is to add the SecurePlatform NGX to the Package Repository using the Add Package From CD option. Insert NGX CD1 containing the SmartUpdate client and click the Add Package From CD button in the toolbar to open a browse window. Select the appropriate drive and the packages are listed as displayed in Figure 13.17. p480, Configuring Check Point NGX VPN-1/FireWall-1, Syngress, 1597490318
Question 6.
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway ITCertKeys from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print ITCertKeys
B. fw licprint ITCertKeys
C. fw tab -t fwlic ITCertKeys
D. cplic print ITCertKeys
E. fw lic print ITCertKeys
Answer: D
Explanation:
cplic print - prints details of Check Point licenses on the local machine. On a Module, this command will print all licenses that are installed on the local machine - both Local and Central licenses.
P456, .
NG COMMAND LINE INTERFACE
Advanced Technical Reference Guide - NG FP3
Question 7.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal network can access your partners network, and vice versa . Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text.
How do you configure VPN Community?
A. Disable 'accept all encrypted traffic', and put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the
Community object Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the
Community object in the VPN field
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and http services to the
Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the
Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy with services FTP and http, and the Community
object in theVPN field
D. Put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the Community object Then add a rule in the
Security Policy to allow any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field
Answer: B
Question 8.
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via a text message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule.
Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A
Question 9.
You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a Check Point QoS rule.
What causes the Connection Rejection?
A. No QoS rule exists to match the rejected traffic
B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule's action properties are not set to
accept additional connections
C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than 10%, and
the Maximal Delay is set below requirements
D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global packet
buffers
E. The guarantee of one of the rule's sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself
Answer: B
Explanation:
QoS rules with the track field set to Log can generate the following types of log events:
QoS rejects a connection when the number of guaranteed connections is exceeded, and/or when the rule's action properties are not set to accept additional connections. 359, accel_ccse_ngx
Question 10.
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on Smart Dash board, for use with an LDAP server
A. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server, and
configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit
B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP
Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties
C. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and
create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and
create an LDAP resource object
E. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object
Answer: A
Explanation:
340, Check Point Security Administration NGX I Student Handbook
|
Question 1.
Which type of voice port will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN or a PBX?
A. FXO
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
E. BRI
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which of the following scenarios would a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?
A. In any cases as long as the switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. If the Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. If the Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only if both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.
Answer: C
Question 3.
The SBB Company is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. The company uses five-digit extensions and would like to be able to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO's home. The CEO's telephone number is 866-555-2222.
Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which Cisco Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C
Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about SIP trunk are true? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk configuration is always needed for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed only to provide internet access for your data users.
C. SIP trunk configuration parameters should be provided to your service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is needed only if you are using voice mail to supply the Message Waiting Indicator
value to the Cisco Unity Express module.
E. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service
provider.
F. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.
Answer: E, F
Question 6.
A customer wants to use a signaling protocol on the voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What protocol should be recommended?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SRTP
D. MGCP
Answer: D
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
After deploying a UC500 system, you receive a support call from a user reporting that callers are going straight to the operator instead of going to members of the hunt group.
Which two tabs have configuration parameters that are most likely going to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Device
B. System
C. Network
D. SIP Trunk
E. Voice Features
F. Dial Plan
Answer: E, F
Question 9.
What is the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?
A. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames.
B. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames.
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames.
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones
whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?
A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation.
What can you do to help pinpoint the problem?
A. Check for security alarms
B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device
configuration screen
C. View the SDI trace output
D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been
downloaded to the IP phone
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. Set preference to 1
B. Invoke a Tcl application
C. Enable dtmf-relay
D. Set codec to G.711
E. Disable DID
F. Disable VAD
Answer: B, C, F
Question 3.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
Answer: B
Question 4.
You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway.
What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same time-stamp
B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked
D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same TCP handle
Answer: A
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2?
A. Queue 2
B. Queue 3
C. Queue 1
D. Queue 4
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again.
Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The TON in incorrect
B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue
C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the
gateway
D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is
an internation call
E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls
Answer: A
Question 7.
You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Route Plan Report
B. Dial Plan Installer
C. Dialed Number Analyzer
D. RTMT Traces and Alarms
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
all patterns
unassigned DN
Call Park
Conference
Directory Number
Translation Pattern
Call pickup group
Route pattern
Message waiting
Voice mail
Attendant console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard
B. Control Center > Feature Services
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Answer: C
Question 9.
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings.
How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the
trace output
C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message
D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the
session
Answer: B
Question 10.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.
A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage.
Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?
A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?
A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: D
Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?
A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)
A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure.
What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?
A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements.
Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?
A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?
A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity
Answer: B
Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in
HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection
as asymmetric encryption
Answer: A, D
|
Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?
A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.
By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers.
According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?
A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.
LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.
Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.
When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.
Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to
policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to
policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco.
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy
The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit
Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.
Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch.
Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)
A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.
Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?
A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge
(for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based
queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE
router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.
Answer: D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?
A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps
Answer: F
Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.
|
Question 1.
An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IP Communications solution. The customer needs to support a variety of analog devices, voice mail, auto attendant, and 200 users.
Which solution should the account manager discuss with this customer?
A. a full Cisco CallManager solution
B. a full Cisco CallManager solution with Cisco Unity
C. Cisco CallManager Express
D. Cisco CallManager Express with Cisco Unity Express
Answer: D
Question 2.
One of your potential customers has concerns about choosing a Cisco IP Communications solution because, according to the competition, IP telephony solutions cost more than they are worth.
Which strategy would be most appropriate to defuse this concern?
A. Unlike traditional office environments where voice and data are separate, Cisco IP
Communications supports the idea of a converged network where the telephony and IP
components are integrated.
B. An IP-enabled PBX inevitably reaches a point called the golden phone, at which an addition
requires more than just a phone. In fact, it requires a card to support the phone, and possibly a
new shelf of a cabinet to house the card. These upgrades end up being very costly and offer
the customer no flexibility to implement nonproprietary solutions in the future.
C. With low operating and capital costs, a Cisco IP Communications deployment will pay for itself
in 18 months on average and will provide an average annual savings per user of US$334. The
drivers of the ROI are determined by the unique network circumstances of the customer, such
as the speed of migration, the remaining life on the PBX, and the extent of the data upgrade.
D. Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure rapid
ROI. Cisco or its IP telephony specialized channel partners can also customize these solutions
to meet business demands and realize cost savings resulting from existing equipment or
applications.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Organizations that embrace Cisco IP Communications solutions are able to interoperate with existing TDM systems and applications, as well as support which two traditional telephony networking standards? (Choose two.)
A. QSIG
B. BGP
C. SIP
D. TDM
E. DPNSS
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
The IT manager from a prospective client organization explains that their network is overloaded. The network has been in use since 2002 with minimal upgrades, and is composed of several different devices from different vendors. E.mail is slow, the voice.mail system is outdated, and employee productivity and responsiveness are suffering.
Given this scenario, which business driver is most appropriate to sell a Cisco IP Communications solution?
A. reduce operating costs
B. increase revenue generation
C. facilitate future expansion
D. reduce the number of employees
Answer: A
Question 5.
You require an easy-to-use, web.enabled tool to demonstrate to a prospective customer the benefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.
Which tool should you use?
A. Cisco ROI analysis
B. Cisco CNIC
C. business case from the industry of the prospect
D. customized hurdle rate analysis
Answer: B
Question 6.
An account manager is meeting with a service provider that has installed Cisco CallManager Express at a large number of its subscriber sites. The customer wants to maintain and troubleshoot Cisco CallManager Express remotely.
Which Cisco CallManager Express feature makes this possible?
A. CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. commanD.line interface
D. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which two baseline discovery questions would be most appropriate to ask an IT manager? (Choose two.)
A. in how many locations do you have Cisco routers deployed?
B. Would installing Cisco IP Communications Express with other business systems reduce the
complexity of your IP infrastructure?
C. How many platforms do you intend to use for call processing and voice mail?
D. Do you anticipate growth in the number of employees over the next few years?
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France, and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the needs of the customer?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Cisco Unity
C. customized XML applications
D. Cisco CallManager
Answer: A
Question 9.
How does a converged solution work?
A. Voice traffic is carried over a circuit-switched network, and data traffic is carried on an IP
network
B. Voice, video, and data are integrated onto a single IP network.
C. The network is comprised of proprietary timE.division multiplexing hardware and circuits.
D. The LAN is used for data traffic, and the WAN is used to integrate voice and video traffic
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at Certpaper.com. Certpaper has several global offices, including one in Britain, two in North America, and three in Asia. The company needs to investigate cost-effective voice mail and auto attendant, and has asked for your recommendation.
What application would best meet the requirements of the company?
A. Cisco Unity Express
B. Customized XML applications
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified CallConnector Mobility
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Which statement about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is router-based and scales up to 24000 users.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express scales up to 300 users.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 240 users.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is server-based and scales up to 24000 users.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is router-based and Cisco Unified
Communications Manager scales up to 30000 users.
Answer: E
Question 2.
A company's mission is to support its customers' technical needs. Its consultants work from home or on site. They must often work in teams to exchange information about new products and implementations. Choose the Cisco Unified Communications tool, features, and functions that will best support this company's goal.
A. Collaboration, bringing together voice, video, and web conferencing
B. Contact Center solutions, delivering intelligent contact routing, desktop and telephony
integration, and multichannel contact management
C. Unified Messaging, delivering every voice, email, and fax message into a single inbox
D. Presence, providing information about consultants, such as availability and busy status
Answer: A
Question 3.
An operations manager compares the cost of upgrading their current system to the cost of implementing a fully-featured Cisco Unified Communications system. She objects that the upgrade may not be justifiable.
Which two responses would most likely best answer to this objection? (Choose two.)
A. Seamlessly integrating your current PBX infrastructure with a full IP solution is the best way to
Stay ahead of the competition.
B. A Unified Communications solution will reduce more toll charges than an IP-enabled PBX.
C. The scalability of Cisco Unified Communications solutions will enable you to stay a step ahead
of the competition.
D. Simply enabling the current system may not accomplish these business objectives.
E. Accommodating unplanned growth and customer-driven changes can best be addressed with
a distributed PBX solution.
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
What are two features of Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. support for 12 languages
B. full-featured voice mail
C. IBM Lotus Domino or Microsoft Exchange message store
D. scalable performance
E. deployment flexibility
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
A large chemical company with a limited capital expenditure budget is considering a much-needed investment in a converged IP network but is having trouble justifying the initial costs to management.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. purchase
B. lease
C. Cisco Unity Unified Messaging
D. IP-enabled PBX
Answer: B
Question 6.
A potential customer requests a reliable, cost-effective method of monitoring and evaluating the quality of voice in Cisco Unified Communications solutions. This customer needs a tool which continuously monitors active calls supported by the Cisco Unified Communications system and provides near-realtime notification when the voice quality of a call, represented as end-user experience expressed by a Mean Opinion Score, fails to meet a user-defined quality threshold.
Which of the following tools should an account manager propose?
A. Cisco netManager Unified Communications
B. Cisco Network Analysis Module
C. Cisco Voice Provisioning Tool
D. Cisco Smart Care Services
E. Cisco Unified Service Monitor, which includes Cisco 1040 sensors
Answer: E
Question 7.
Read the customer objection and select the two best answers. (Choose two.) Telecommunications manager: Everyone knows that Cisco is good at data, but you simply do not have voice experience. None of your account managers, systems engineers, or professional service people truly understands the voice environment.
A. I understand your concern, especially because we are so well known for data. In addition to
our data experience, we are also very familiar with the voice environment. In fact, we helped
invent voice technology.
B. I am glad you brought that up! It is true that at one time, we were focused more on data than
on voice. Today, however, Cisco has a large percentage of employees with voice experience.
C. Thank you for mentioning that point. Because our focus is on QoS, which is currently not
supported by the Internet, people often believe that Cisco has no voice experience.
D. That is a valid concern, and I would like to address it. While it is true that we are strong in the
data arena, we are also actively and aggressively investing in staff voice skills, and also
recruiting the finest voice professionals in the market. The strength of our voice team has
brought us a great deal of respect in the marketplace.
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Based on the scenario below, what is the primary need of the finance manager? Account Manager: Have you considered the potential TCO savings that you can achieve with a Unified Communications upgrade?
Finance manager: To some degree, yes, but it sounds like a big investment, not only in terms of technology, but even more so in terms of staff and maintenance.
A. reduce operational costs
B. automate financial reports
C. increase revenue
D. increase the flexibility of revenue projections
Answer: A
Question 9.
A Cisco customer has a management team, each member of which has a number of needs. Operations manager:
Improve order processes
Improve the ability to make accurate forecasts
Finance manager:
Reduce the TCO of the existing IP communications infrastructure
IT manager:
Improve network reliability
Streamline the delivery of end-user support
Which business need would be the primary Cisco Unified Communications solution sales driver?
A. reduce the number of employees
B. reduce operating costs
C. increase revenue generation
D. facilitate future expansion
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following features could not be implemented with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. XML applications
B. Auto-attendant capabilities
C. Integrated messaging
D. Cisco Unified Presence
Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.