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Does anyone still have questions for the 640-910? If so can you email them to harianblink@hotmail.com. Thanks
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Question 1.
What are the results of the command: fw sam [Target IP Address]?
A. Connections to the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security Policy
B. Connections to and from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the
Security Policy
C. The Security Policy is compiled and installed on the target's embedded VPN/FireWall Modules
D. Connections from the specified target are blocked without the need to change the Security
Policy
Answer: B
Question 2.
The command fw fetch causes the:
A. Security Gateway to retrieve the user database information from the tables on theSmartCenter
Server.
B. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the debug logs of the target Security Gateway
C. Security Gateway to retrieve the compiled policy and inspect code from theSmartCenter
Server and install it to the kernel.
D. SmartCenter Server to retrieve the IP addresses of the target Security Gateway
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which of the following deployment scenarios CANNOT be managed by Check Point QoS?
A. Two lines connected directly to the Gateway through a hub
B. Two lines connected to separate routers, and each router is connected to separate interfaces
on the Gateway
C. One LAN line and one DMZ line connected to separate Gateway interfaces
D. Two lines connected to a single router, and the router is connected directly to the Gateway
Answer: D
Question 4.
Your company's Security Policy forces users to authenticate to the Gateway explicitly, before they can use any services. The Gateway does not allow Telnet service to itself from any location.
How would you set up the authentication method? With a:
A. Session Authentication rule
B. Client Authentication rule using the manual sign-on method, using HTTP on port 900
C. Client Authentication for fully automatic sign on
D. Client Authentication rule, using partially automatic sign on
Answer: B
Question 5.
You must set up SIP with a proxy for your network. IP phones are in the 172.16.100.0 network. The Registrar and Proxy are installed on the host, 172.16.101.100. To allow handover enforcement for outbound calls from SIP-net to the Internet, you have defined the following objects:
Network object: SIP-net: 172.16.100.0/24
SIP-gateway: 172.16.101.100
VoIP Domain object: VoIP_domain_A
End-point domain: SIP-net
VoIP gateway installed at: SIP-gateway host object
How would you configure the rule?
A. VoIP_domain_A / any / sip_any / accept
B. VoIP_Gateway_A / any / sip / accept
C. Unsupported because the SIP Registrar and the SIP Proxy are installed on the same host.
Separate and create two VoIP Domain objects.
D. SIP-net & SIP-gateway / any / sip / accept
Answer: A
Question 6.
A _______ rule is used to prevent all traffic going to the VPN-1 NGX Security Gateway
A. Stealth
B. Cleanup
C. SmartDefense
D. Reject
Answer: A
Question 7.
An advantage of using central vs local licensing is:
A. Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
B. Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
C. The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of a Security Gateway.
D. A license can be taken from oneSmartCenter Server and given to SmartCenter Server.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which command allows verification of the Security Policy name and install date on a Security Gateway?
A. fw ver -p
B. fw show policy
C. fw stat -l
D. fw ctl pstat -policy
Answer: C
Question 9.
What command displays the version of an already installed Security Gateway?
A. cpstat -gw
B. fw printver
C. fw ver
D. fw stat
Answer: C
Question 10.
When configuring objects in SmartMap, it is helpful to ____________ the objects so that they are properly defined for use in a policy rule.
A. Save
B. Actualize
C. Physically connect to
D. Expand
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which factor is a primary cause of IP hyper-aggregation?
A. IP routing protocols do not always select the best route to a destination
B. IP routing protocols always select multiple routes to a destination
C. IP routing protocols do not make use all availablenetwork attributes to select a path
D. Improper network design results in limited network path redundancy
Answer: C
Question 2.
Inspecting the MPLS header in the received packet and exchanging it for a new MPLS header is the function of which device?
A. iLER
B. LER
C. LSR
D. PE
E. eLER
Answer: C
Question 3.
Choose the answer that best completes the following statement. The device at the beginning of an LSP is referred to as the ____ while the device at the end of an LSP is referred to as the ____.
A. PE, P
B. LER, LSR
C. LSR, LER
D. iLER, eLER
E. eLER, iLER
F. P, PE
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the roles of devices in an MPLS domain?
Choose 2 answers.
A. An LER is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
B. An LSR is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
C. An LSR is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
D. An LER is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Receiving labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removing the MPLS header and forwarding unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain is the function of which device?
A. LER
B. LSR
C. PE
D. iLER
E. eLER
Answer: E
Question 6.
What are the functions of the control plane in a MPLS router? Choose 2 answers.
A. Route exchange
B. Label swapping
C. MPLS neighbor establishment
D. Label signaling
E. Routing lookups
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
Which of the following factors are driving the evolution of the MPLS protocol and services? Choose 2 answers.
A. Customers demand for differentiated IP services
B. MPLS usage has been mandated by the IETF
C. Providers want to improve service availability and reliability
D. It is an easier technology to configure and manage than IP alone
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
Which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
What is the function of the MPLS label assigned to a packet?
A. It identifies the FEC
B. It specifies the packets header length
C. It identifies the origin of the packet
D. It specifies the type of data contained in the packet
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation may use them as they see fit
B. They are used to carry theEthertype value
C. They are used to carry the TTL value
D. They are used to mapQoS classification
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flags
Answer: D
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Question 1. Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above. A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label Answer: A Question 2. The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel. What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above? A. Kompella B. Alcatel C. Martini D. HDLC Answer: C Question 3. Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by which of the following? A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS. B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation. C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN Answer: C Question 4. The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel. In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent? A. Service VC label B. Control word C. Inner label D. TCP/IP header Answer: B Question 5. Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations? (Choose two) A. Ethernet B. ATM AAL5 C. TDM D. HDLC E. Frame Relay Answer: B, E Question 6. The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel. What does "XXXXX" represent in the diagram? A. Control word B. Outer label C. Inner Transport label D. Service VC label Answer: D Question 7. True or False? Nodes that are not directly connected by a physical link cannot participate in a VPN A. True B. False Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following SAP encapsulations supports only a single service on a port? A. Dot1Q B. Null C. Q-in-Q D. ATM E. BCP Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following are considered to be services on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 Service Router? (Choose all that apply) A. IES B. VPRN C. VPLS D. Apipe E. Mirroring F. MPLS Answer: A, B, C, D, E Question 10. Which CLI command on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is needed to obtain the following output? A. Show service description B. Show service id C. Show service customer D. Show service information Answer: C
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Question 1.
The use of PIM as a multicast routing protocol provides for which one of the following services?
A. Authentication
B. Guaranteed Delivery
C. Device Security
D. Preventing packet forwarding loops
E. Preventing Denial of Service attacks
Answer: D
Question 2.
An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to which layer of the OSI stack?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 7
Answer: C
Question 3.
Choose the answer that best completes the statement: An end station on an Ethernet network receiving an IP multicast packet will:
A. Determine at Layer 1 if it is interested in the frame
B. Determine at Layer 2 if it is interested in the frame
C. Determine at Layer 2 after reading the protocol ID field if it is interested in the frame
D. Determine at Layer 3 if it is interested in the frame
E. Determine at Layer 7 if it is interested in the frame
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which of the following are characteristics of the one to many model of multicast data delivery? (Choose two)
A. Receivers are generally unknown by the source
B. Well suited for applications in which the receivers provide feedback to each other and the
source
C. There is a single data flow, from the source to the receivers
D. All devices are potentially capable of generating multicast data
E. Receivers are generally known by each other since any receiver may be a source
Answer: A, C
Question 5.
The OUI field of the MAC address for IP multicast frames is:
A. 00-01-5e
B. 01-01-53
C. 01-01-5e
D. 01-00-5e
E. 01-00-53
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which MAC address will multicast address 224.128.0.1 translate to?
A. 01-00-5e-80-00-01
B. 01-00-5e-22-41-40
C. 01-00-5e-22-28-01
D. 00-01-5e-80-00-01
E. 01-00-5e-00-00-01
F. 01-01-5e-22-28-01
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which two of the following addresses should not be used in a multicast network at the same time?
A. 233.44.12.35
B. 234.45.12.35
C. 235.46.12.35
D. 236.174.12.35
E. 237.171.12.35
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
Which MAC address will the IP multicast address 239.33.42.107 translate to?
A. 01-00-5e-a1-2a-6b
B. 01-00-5e-21-2a-6b
C. 01-00-5e-21-2c-6c
D. 00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E. 00-01-5e-21-2a-6b
F. 01-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is the range of addresses allocated for SSM?:
A. 239.0.0.0/8
B. 233.x.y.0/24
C. 224.0.0.0/24
D. 232.0.0.0/8
Answer: D
Question 10.
How many bits of the IP multicast address are copied directly to the multicast MAC address?
A. 27
B. 5
C. 28
D. 9
E. 23
Answer: E
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Question 1. Which technical development allowed the deployment of IP protocol features at any point in the network? A. The invention of ATM B. The IP enabling of the DSLAM C. The usage of IP in the home network D. The usage of an IP enabled BSA Answer: B Question 2. The Alcatel 7302 ISAM is typically located in: A. The customer home B. The Serving Area Interface (SAI) C. The provider Central Office (CO) D. The videoheadend Answer: C Question 3. The Broadband Service Access Node (BSAN) may be: A. The Alcatel 7330 FTTN ISAM B. The Alcatel 7342 FTTU ISAM C. Neither (a) or (b) D. Both (a) and (b) Answer: D Question 4. Why does the RG operate as a DHCP server? A. As a local backup in case the provider DHCP server is unreachable B. The subscriber may choose to manage their own IP addresses C. The RG will never operate as a DHCP server D. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in routed mode E. To assign IP addresses to the internal home devices when operating in bridged mode Answer: D Question 5. What are the minimum requirements for the Residential Gateway? Choose 2. A. NAT support B. Support Routed and bridged mode C. Multicast (IGMP) support D. Support IP packet filtering E. Be able to terminate multiple access mediums Answer: A, C Question 6. The internal BSAN architecture is composed of which of the following? A. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) B. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) C. Link Termination (LT) portion and a Network Termination (NT) D. Line Termination (LT) portion and a Node Termination (NT) Answer: A Question 7. Which of the following may be connected to the RG in the subscriber home network? Choose the best answer. A. P.C. B. TV with STB C. Gaming console D. LAN switch E. Any Ethernet connected device Answer: E Question 8. True or False. The RG is typically provider managed in Triple Play Services? A. True B. False Answer: A Question 9. Which of the following is not a TPSDA network zone? A. Home B. Broadband Access C. Broadband Aggregation D. Broadband Metro E. IP Services Edge Answer: D Question 10. Choose the best answer to complete the following statement. Ethernet frames transmitted by the RG contain: A. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits of all zero B. 802.1Q VLAN ID randomly assigned by the RG and 802.1P priority bits of all zero C. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits randomly assigned by the RG D. 802.1Q VLAN ID of one and 802.1P priority bits of all ones E. 802.1Q VLAN ID of zero and 802.1P priority bits as assigned by the application Answer: E
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Question 1.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1.
Review the configuration information shown below. What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which of the following debug statements can be used to troubleshoot if the OSPF adjacency is staying at xstart state? Select two answers.
A. Debug routerospf rtm
B. Debug routerospf packet dbdescr
C. Debug routerospf neighbor
D. Debug routerospf packet hello
E. Debug routerospf spf
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Based on the following configuration, which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. No OPSF adjacency found on Node 1
B. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-2
C. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-3
D. Full OSPF adjacency between Node-1 and Node-4
E. OSPF is enabled on Node 1
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
Two routers are physically connected to each other over Ethernet port 1/1/1. Review the configuration information below.
What state should the OSPF neighbor be in?
A. INIT
B. EXCHANGE
C. EXSTART
D. FULL
E. No OSPF neighbor
Answer: D
Question 5.
Two routers are physically connected running ISIS. ISIS L2 adjacency is up and running but L1 adjacency is not up. Review the configuration information shown below:
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level is not configured on both routers
B. The ISIS interface type should be configured as point-to-point interfaces
C. ISIS System IDs are not configured on both routers
D. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
E. ISIS level capacity are not configured on both routers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Two routers are physically connected to each other with ISIS configured. No ISIS adjacency can be found on both routers. Ping works fine on the local and the remote interface addresses on both routers. Review the confguration information shown below.
Which of the following statements best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS interface level configured does not match the ISIS level capability supported on the
routers
B. The ISIS authentication check is enabled but there is no authentication type and password
configured
C. ISIS Area addresses are not configured on both routers
D. L1 wide Metrics are disabled on the routers
E. ISIS Circuit id does not match on Node-1 and Node-2
Answer: C
Question 7.
L1 ISIS adjacency is up between two routers (Node-1 and Node-2) with MD5 authentication configured. During a maintenance window, an operator was planning to change one of the ISIS hello authentication key from admin to admin123. After removing the hello authentication key from Node-1 (no change on Node-2 side), the ISIS adjacency stayed up. The operator decided to fall back to the original configuration and called Alcatel for support.
Which of the following statement best describe the cause of the problem? Select one answer only.
A. The ISIS hello authentication key was not configured properly in the first place, that's why
removing the authentication key does not impact the adjacency
B. The ISIS authentication key is the same as the hello authentication key, therefore removing
hello authentication key does not impact the adjacency
C. The system interface is missing from theISIS configuration, therefore ISIS is not working
properly even before the change
D. ISIS hello authentication key is only used for hello packet exchange. It does not affect ISIS
adjacency
E. ISIS hello authentication key is not used to bring up ISIS adjacency when traffic-engineering is
enabled on the routers
Answer: B
Question 8.
What are the typical RIP related issues found during troubleshooting?
A. Interface filters
B. Broadcast/Multicast mismatch
C. Area id not match with neighbor
D. Group name not match with neighbor
E. Hop count too high
Answer: A, B, E
Question 9.
Two direct connected routers are running RIPv2, neighbors are up but there is no route in the RIP database. Review the configuration information below.
What is the potential problem?
A. System interface is not added to the RIP protocol
B. No import policy is configured
C. No export policy is configured
D. Split-horizon has to be disabled in RIP
E. Message-size has to be configured with a non-zero value
Answer: C
Question 10.
Node A has an active BGP route 10.1.1.1 in its routing table, but the same route is not found in Node D routing table.
Which of the following configurations are required to resolve this problem?
A. Add Interface X to OSPF on Node B as passive interface
B. Redistribute interface address Y and Z into BGP
C. ISIS Enable route-reflection on Node B
D. Enable next-hop-self on Node C
E. Enable route-reflection on Node C
Answer: A, E
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Question 1.
Which SiteScope tools may be used to troubleshoot URL Monitor problems? (Select four.)
A. Ping
B. Network
C. Trace Route
D. DNS Lookup
E. Check URL Sequence
F. Get URL and URL Content
Answer: A, C, D, F
Question 2.
What is business process grouping or hierarchy?
A. a method of grouping individual monitors by their business owners
B. a method of grouping individual monitors by Business Process Monitoring (BPM)
C. a method of grouping individual monitors by prioritizing their level of importance to the
business
D. a method of grouping individual monitors which target components of specific Business
Services
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following may be used as a heartbeat monitor in SiteScope? (Select three.)
A. DNS lookup
B. Ping monitor
C. Log file monitor
D. Process monitor
E. Websphere monitor
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
What SiteScope features are needed to turn off monitoring for a specific server during planned downtime? (Select two.)
A. Security
B. Log files
C. Schedules
D. Heartbeats
E. Dependencies
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
What causes a SiteScope instance to contain an excessive number of individual Alerts? (Select two.)
A. too many top-level groups
B. monitor-focused alerting approach
C. number of systems being monitored
D. type of alerts being configured withinSiteScope
E. type of monitoring being performed on the system
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Which statement best describes the differences in the Auto discovery mode between Windows and UNIX remote servers?
A. Auto-discovery only works for UNIX remote servers.
B. Auto-discovery is the same when adding Windows remote server or UNIX remote server.
C. Auto-discovery will only work when adding a Windows remote server to a UNIX remote server.
D. Unlike Windows remote servers, there is no auto-discovery when adding a UNIX remote
server.
Answer: D
Question 7.
What causes a Monitor Skip to occur?
A. lower then normal system traffic
B. higher than normal system traffic
C. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance is still running
D. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance completes running
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the total monitor capacity for each SiteScope server?
A. 500
B. 8000
C. 1000
D. 20000
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is an adequate bandwidth for optimum SiteScope performance?
A. 5mbps
B. 10mbps
C. 256kbps
D. 100kbps
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the name of the executable used for running process pooling?
A. Perfex.exe
B. Scope.exe
C. Pooling.exe
D. SiteScope.exe
Answer: A
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Question 1. What is important to implement when providing a non-disruptive IP telephony solution (VoIP)? A. Fabric Shortest Path First (FSPF) B. Packet caching (Pcache) C. Quality of Service (QoS) D. VLAN routing (vlanR) Answer: C Question 2. What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86 server environment? A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resources B. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failure C. to enable failover-failback between x86 processors D. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple servers Answer: D Question 3. Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling? A. lower reliance on hubs and switches B. longer distances C. easier implementation D. lower cost Answer: B Question 4. An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve their old data by reading backward two generations. Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select TWO. A. SDLT B. AIT C. LTO D. DLT E. SLR Answer: C, D Question 5. Which application functionality benefits most from a 64-bit architecture over a 32-bit architecture? A. Clustered DNS Server B. Clustered Print Spooling C. High Performance Computing D. Clustered AutoStore Capturing Answer: C Question 6. Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution across an enterprise environment? A. Altiris Deployment Server B. HP OpenView Helpdesk software C. HP Essentials software D. HP Client Manager tool Answer: D Question 7. Which legacy server platforms have high potential to migrate to the Intel Itanium server platform? Select TWO. A. HP 9000 servers B. HP AlphaServers C. HP ProLiant 300 family servers D. HP ProLiant 900 family servers Answer: A, B Question 8. Which backup method provides the lowest TCO? A. shared SCSI backup B. local SCSI backup C. data replication backup D. automated centralized backup Answer: A Question 9. Which HP 9000 server supports a maximum of two hard partitions? A. rp4440-4 B. rp4440-8 C. rp7420-6 D. rp8420-32 Answer: C Question 10. Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN (802.11b/g/a) access? A. VLAN B. DMZ C. RADIUS D. BOOTP Answer: C
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Question 1. You upgrade the BIOS to the current version. Customers logs in and discover that a specific software application does not work. A. Downgrade the BIOS to the previous version B. Contact HP for a replacement system board C. Contact HP for a replace BIOS chip D. Upgrade the affected software application Answer: A Question 2. Your customer's computer reboots with no warning. What should you try first to help isolate this? (Select two) A. Replace the system board and test B. Remove any third party hardware C. Check system event log D. Restore the unit and reinstall Answer: B, C Question 3. Your customer indicates that Windows in not recognizing their MultiBay hard disk drive. What can be done first to isolate this problem? A. Set the MultiBay hard disk drive as a slave B. Reinstal the factory image C. MultiBay is not an HP supported configuration D. Reseat the MultiBay hard disk drive Answer: D Explanation: The system does not recognize a hard drive in the external MultiBay. The drive is not seated properly. Remove and reinsert the drive. The drive was inserted while the notebook was on, in Standby, or Hibernation. Always shut down the notebook before removing or inserting a hard drive. The drive is damaged. Replace the hard drive. Question 4. What can you do with a MultiBay hard disk drive? A. Increase the size of the existing hard disk drive B. Attach a SCSI drive C. Install an additional hard disk drive D. Daisy chain multiple hard disk drives Answer: C Question 5. Where would you confirm a spare part number? A. HP PartSurfer B. device manager C. HP parts library D. Windows Control Panel Answer: A Question 6. What tool do you use to test ESD equipment? A. volt meter B. osciloscope C. ohm meter D. amp meter Answer: C Explanation: Electrostatic discharge protection A sudden discharge of static electricity from your hand or another conductor can destroy staticsensitive devices or micro circuitry. You might not feel or hear the spark, but it can cause damage. An electronic device exposed to electrostatic discharge (ESD) may not be affected at all, or the device may function normally for a while, and then degrade in the internal layers, reducing its life expectancy. Networks built into many integrated circuits provide some protection, but in many cases, the discharge contains enough power to alter device parameters or melt silicon junctions. You should regularly check your ESD equipment using an ohmmeter. Question 7. Your customer is having problems after installing memory in their computer. What should they do? A. DPS test B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Task Manager Answer: A Question 8. What is the primary benefit of HP 3D DriveGuard? A. it protects hard drive from moisture damage B. it detects sudden motion and temporarily stops hard disk C. it encrypts the hard disk drive data D. it enhances Windows Aero security performance Answer: B Explanation: HP DriveGuard and HP 3D DriveGuard - Formerly known as HP Mobile Data Protection, this technology helps prevent hard disk drive failure and loss of data if the notebook is dropped or moved while running Question 9. The operating system doesn't load. What is the first step you should take to determine if a thirdparty component is related to the problem? A. Replace the third party component B. Remove the third party component C. Call the third party vendor's support line D. Update the component drivers/software Answer: B Question 10. Your customer is experiencing intermittent lockups on a computer kept inside. What is most likely cause? A. vibration B. temperature C. ESD D. altitude Answer: B
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