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Braindumps for "642-691" Exam

Exam Labs......help please......

 plz...help 



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Braindumps for "156-315" Exam

Check Point Security Administration NGX II R65

 Question 1.
The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High Availability member 

When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become active?
 

A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1 1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active

Answer: B

Question 2.
What is the command to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 SmartCenter Server to VPN-1 NGX using a CD?

A. cd patch add
B. fwm upgrade_tool
C. cppkg add
D. patchadd
E. patch addcd

Answer: E

Question 3.
You have a production implementation of Management High Availability, at version VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R55. You must upgrade your two SmartCenter Servers to VPN-1 NGX.

What is the correct procedure?

A. 1. Synchronize the twoSmartCenter Servers.
2. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the primary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects version to VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
B. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
    2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Configure both SmartCenter Server host objects to version VPN-1 NGX.
5. Synchronize the Servers again.
C. 1. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
   2. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
3. Synchronize the primary with the secondary SmartCenter Server.
4. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
5. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
6. Synchronize the Servers again.
D. 1. Synchronize the two SmartCenter Servers.
   2. Perform an advanced upgrade on the primary SmartCenter Server.
3. Configure the primary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
4. Synchronize the two Servers again.
5. Upgrade the secondary SmartCenter Server.
6. Configure the secondary SmartCenter Server host object to version VPN-1 NGX.
7. Synchronize the Servers again.

Answer: B

Question 4.
Your primary SmartCenter Server is installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine, which is also a VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You want to implement Management High Availability (HA). You have a spare machine to configure as the secondary SmartCenter Server. How do you configure the new machine to be the standby SmartCenter Server, without making any changes to the existing primary SmartCenter Server? (Changes can include uninstalling and reinstalling.)

A. You cannot configure Management HA, when either the primary or secondary SmartCenter 
    Server is running on a VPN-1 Pro Gateway.
B. The new machine cannot be installed as the Internal Certificate Authority on its own.
C. The secondary Server cannot be installed on a SecurePlatform Pro machine alone.
D. Install the secondary Server on the spare machine. Add the new machine to the same network 
    as the primary Server.

Answer: A

Question 5.
You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use four machines with the following configurations: 
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 256 MB, Security Gateway
version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four Intel 3Com, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: four other manufacturers, memory: 128 MB,
Security Gateway version: VPN-1 NGX
SmartCenter Pro Server: MS Windows Server 2003, NIC: Intel NIC (one), Security Gateway and primary SmartCenter Server installed version: VPN-1 NGX

Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?

A. No, theSmartCenter Pro Server is not using the same operating system as the cluster 
    members.
B. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for aClusterXL deployment.
C. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
D. No, the SmartCenter Pro Server has only one NIC.

Answer: B

Question 6.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal networks can access your partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text. 

How do you configure the VPN Community?

A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the 
    Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the  
    Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP services to the 
     Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the 
    Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the Community  
    object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule in the 
    Security Policy to allow Any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field.

Answer: B

Question 7.
How does a standby SmartCenter Server receive logs from all Security Gateways, when an active SmartCenter Server fails over?

A. The remote Gateways must set up SIC with the secondarySmartCenter Server, for logging.
B. Establish Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the primary and secondary Servers. 
    The secondary Server can then receive logs from the Gateways, when the active Server fails  
    over.
C. On the Log Servers screen (from the Logs and Masters tree on the gateway object's General  
    Properties screen), add the secondary SmartCenter Server object as the additional log server.  
    Reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Create a Check Point host object to represent the standby SmartCenter Server. Then select  
    "Secondary SmartCenter Server" and Log Server", from the list of Check Point Products on the  
    General properties screen.
E. The secondary Server's host name and IP address must be added to the Masters file, on the 
    remote Gateways.

Answer: C

Question 8.
You want only RAS signals to pass through H.323 Gatekeeper and other H.323 protocols, passing directly between end points. 

Which routing mode in the VoIP Domain Gatekeeper do you select?

A. Direct
B. Direct and Call Setup
C. Call Setup
D. Call Setup and Call Control

Answer: A

Question 9.
Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for VPN-1 NGX?

A. VPN-1 Certificate Manager
B. SmartCenterServer
C. SmartLSM
D. Policy Server
E. Security Gateway

Answer: B

Question 10.
You are configuring the VoIP Domain object for a Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP) environment protected by VPN-1 NGX. 

Which VoIP Domain object type can you use?

A. CallManager
B. Gatekeeper
C. Gateway
D. Proxy
E. Transmission Router

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "9L0-401" Exam

Mac OS X Support Essentials v10.4 Exam Practice Test

 Question 1.
Deborah installed a utility that downloads movies from her Mac OS X v10.4 computer to a digital video recorder (DVR), so she can play them on her television. But the DVR is only able to access the movies files on her computer while she has the firewall on the computer turned off. 

How can Deborah configure her system to allow the DVR to access movie files on her computer while the firewall is on?

A. Using a text editor, add the port numbers used by the movie sharing utility to /etc/firewall. list.
B. In the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences, create a new port definition with the port numbers 
    used by the movie sharing utility, then turn the port on in the firewall list of ports.
C. In the Firewall pane of Network preferences, enter the range of ports used by the movie 
    sharing utility in the Allow list.
D. Using the Firewall Manager utility, add the port numbers used by the sharing utility to 
    /etc/firewall. list, then enable the ports in the Firewall pane of Sharing preferences.

Answer: B

Question 2.
What are three ways to access the command line in Mac OS X v10.4? (Choose THREE.)

A. Launch Console.
B. Start up in single user mode.
C. Launch Network Utility.
D. Start up in verbose mode.
E. Launch Terminal.
F. Choose Command from the Apple menu.
G. Log in remotely using SSH.

Answer: B, E, G

Question 3.
In Mac OS X v10.4, how do you enable printing to a printer shared by a Windows computer?

A. In the Print dialog, choose the workgroup from the Windows Printer entry in the Printer pop-up 
    menu, then select the printer from the list.
B. From the Printing pane of Print & Fax preferences, choose Windows Printers in the pop-up 
    menu, then select the workgroup and printer.
C. In Printer Setup Utility, select the workgroup and printer from the Default Browser pane in the 
    Printer Browser window, and click Add.
D. In Printer Setup Utility, click More Printers in the Printer Browser window and choose Windows 
    Printing from the pop-up menu, then choose the workgroup, select the printer, and click Add.

Answer: D

Question 4.
Which two utilities can display information about a wide range of system components? (Choose TWO.).

A. Network Diagnostics
B. Internet Connect
C. Console
D. Setup Assistant
E. System Profiler

Answer: C, E

Question 5.
Mac OS X v10.4 supports which two types of VPN connections by default? (Choose TWO.)

A. PPTP
B. PPPoE
C. L2TP
D. P2P
E. NAT

Answer: A, C

Question 6.
In Mac OS X v10.4, changes to network configuration ________.

A. require administrator authentication
B. require you to create a new network location
C. are made in the Internet pane of System Preferences
D. are user-specific

Answer: A

Question 7.
Press Exhibit to view the image. You have set up a network as shown in the exhibit. Computer A has been configured to share its Internet connection from the cable modem with computers B and C over Ethernet. 

Why could this configuration be problematic?

A. Internet Sharing is incompatible with cable modems.
B. A computer running Mac OS X v10.4 can use Internet Sharing to share its Internet connection 
    with only one other computer on the network.
C. Internet Sharing must be enabled on all three computers in order to share the cable modem.
D. Receiving and sharing an Internet connection over the same Ethernet port on Computer A can 
    cause network problems for other ISP customers.

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which is NOT a valid reason to use the command line rather than the Finder in Mac OS X v10.4?

A. It is easier to execute undo at the command line than to undo commands in the Finder.
B. Some file system commands executed at the command line, like chown and chmod, have 
    options for which there are no equivalents in the Finder.
C. Commands executed at the command line can be combined for efficiency.
D. Commands executed at the command line can be executed from a different user account more 
    easily than their Finder equivalents.

Answer: A

Question 9.
Press Exhibit to view the image. In the Finder, Chris creates a folder in her home directory and sets the permissions as shown in the exhibit. In Terminal, Chris types: ls -l ~ and presses Return.

What permissions are shown for the new folder?

A. -rwx-wx-wx
B. drwx-wx-wx
C. drw--w--w-
D. -rw--wx-wx
E. drw--wx-wx

Answer: B

Question 10.
Authorization verifies ________.

A. a resource availability to a given user account
B. a user's name and password
C. a file's creator and type
D. a computer's membership in a computer list

Answer: A



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Braindumps for "117-101" Exam

General Linux, Part I Practice Test

 Question 1.
You have just added a CD.ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to your system and have added it to yourfstab. Typically you can use which of the following commands to mount media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?

A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount/dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom

Answer: D

Explanation:
/mnt/cdrom or /media/cdrom is the mount point for cdrom specified in /etc/fstab.
/dev/hdd /media/cdrom auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0
/dev/hdc /media/cdrecorder auto pamconsole,exec,noauto,managed 0 0
So we need to mount just typing mount /media/cdrom command.

Question 2.
With Xorg 7.0, what is the name of the default font server?

A. xfserv
B. xfs
C. fonts
D. xfstt
E. fserv

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 3.
CORRECT TEXT
Which command (without options) would you use to display how much space is available on all mounted partitions?

 

Answer: /BIN/DF

Question 4.
CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameter will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program apache2?

 

Answer: KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2

Question 5.
The command echo $! will produce what output?

A. the process id of last background command
B. the exit status of the last command
C. the exit status of the last background command
D. the process id of the current shell
E. the name of the command being executed

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 6.
You are using quota on your system. How can you see disk quota details?

A. repquota
B. quota. I
C. quota
D. quotacheck
E. quota. list

Answer: A

Explanation:
repquota prints a summary of the disk usage and quotas for the specified file systems. For each user the current number of files and amount of space (in kilobytes) is printed, along with any quotas created with edquota.
Example : repquota /home à prints the summary of disk usage and other information of all users.

Question 7.
What is the difference between the.remove and the.purge action with the dpkg command?

A. -remove removes the program, -purge also removes the config files
B. -remove only removes the program, -purge only removes the config files
C. -remove removes a package, -purge also removes all packages dependent on it
D. -remove removes only the package file itself, -purge removes all files related to the package

Answer: A

Explanation:
?r or ??remove remove everything except configuration files. This may avoid having to reconfigure the package if it is reinstalled later. (Configuration files are the files listed in the debian/conffiles control file). ?P or ??purge removes everything, including configuration files. If ?a or ??pending is given instead of a package name, then all packages unpacked, but marked to be removed or purged in file /var/lib/dpkg/status , are removed or purged, respectively.

Question 8 CORRECT TEXT
What application can be used in place of xhost? Please enter only the name without path. Answer:

 

Answer: XAUTH

Question 9.
You have read/write permission on an ordinary file foo. You have just run In foo bar. 

What would happen if you ran rm foo?

A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed, bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. You would be asked whether bar should be removed.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Correct Answer is B. The ln command is used to create the link. There are two types of link a. Soft 
link b. Hard link.
a. Softlink à Can create for directory also, can span multiple pratations but available until and
unless Original Files remain.
Syntax for Softlink
ln -s originalfile linkfile
b. Hardlink à One separate Physical File, can't create for directory, can't span multiple file but
remains the link file if original file removed.
Syntax for Hardlink
ln originalfile linkfile
In Questions, created the bar hardlink of foo. That means bar is on separate physical file. The file
bar is accessible after removing the foo file also.

Question 10.
Which of the following commands will change all CR-LF pairs in an imported text file, userlist.txt, to Linux standard LF characters and store it as newlist.txt?

A. tr '\r\n' " < userlist.txt > newlist.txt
B. tr -c '\n\r' " < newlist.txt > userlist.txt
C. tr -d '\r' < userlist.txt > newlist.txt
D. tr '\r' '\n' userlist.txt newlist.txt
E. tr -s'^M' '^J' userlist.txt newlist.txt

Answer: C

Explanation:


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Braindumps for "642-446" Exam

Implementing Cisco Unified Communications IP Telephony Part 1 (CIPT1)

 Question 1.
DRAG DROP
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Drag the definition of the resource on the left to the media resource type on the right No1 all media resources are used.

Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Question 2.
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)

A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone 
    configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified 
    Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in 
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name 
    of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

Answer: C, E, F

Question 3.
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)

A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn 13-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}

Answer: B

Question 4.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its Answer: description on the right
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the XML application service information field name on the left to its description on the right

Answer:
 

Question 5.
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?

A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on theControl Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio 
    button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the Answer:server, and clicking on the radio 
    button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of 
    the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the 
    service

Answer: C

Question 6.
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)

A. trans coding
B. audio conferencing C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination

Answer: A

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the MoH server parameter on the left to its description on the right. Not all parameters apply.
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 8.
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)

A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page

Answer: B, C, E

Question 9.
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)

A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager 
     servers 
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)

A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified 
    Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified 
    Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified 
    Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if the phones are in the same Cisco 
    Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the 
    same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in 
    the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.

Answer: B, C, D

Question 11.
DRAG DROP
Click and drag the function of the left to the type of barge that it indicates.
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.
Click and drag the function of the left to the type of barge that it indicates.

Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.



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Braindumps for "PMI-001" Exam

Project Management Professional Practice Test

 Question 1.
The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?

A. Performance reviews
B. Work performance information
C. Forecasted completion
D. Performance measurements

Answer: A

Explanation:
Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved change requests, and deliverables.

Question 2.
You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country. You know, but have not yet informed your company, that you are going to go to work for the competitor, which happens to be bidding for this same opportunity. 

What is the most appropriate response?

A. You decide to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because any 
    information you gain now will help you when you make the move to the new company.
B. You inform the foreign business partners that you're going to be working with a new company 
    and that you know the deal they'll receive from the competing company is better than the one 
    this company is proposing.
C. You decline to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because of 
    a conflict of interest.
D. You've not yet received an official offer from the competing company for your new job 
    opportunity, so you choose to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business 
    partners.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most appropriate response is to decline to participate because of a conflict of interest.

Question 3.
The most effective team motivator is:

A. understanding the importance of the project
B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. the visibility of the team's contribution
E. the individual's professional challenge

Answer: D

Question 4.
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______ .

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Administer Procurements

Answer: B

Explanation:
Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements.

Question 5.
Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.

A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. analyze the reasons for variances
C. establish the variances
D. identify the problems
E. All of the other alternatives apply.

Answer: E

Question 6.
You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a poor job of scope definition. 

Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?

A. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.
B. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables 
    needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
C. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure, 
    and costs will increase.
D. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Option A might seem like a correct answer, but option D is more correct. There isn't enough information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.

Question 7.
You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented. 

Which of the following statements is true?

A. This condition is known as culture shock.
B. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
C. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
D. This condition is known as globalculturalism.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching information about the country you'll be working in can help counteract this.

Question 8.
Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Defines all people associated with each activity
D. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the matrix chart.

Question 9.
The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency.

A. Soft logic
B. Subcontracted
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
E. External

Answer: C

Question 10.
You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. 

What should you do next?

A. Control Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Value analysis
D. Verify Scope

Answer: B

Explanation:
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.



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Braindumps for "000-061" Exam

IBM Dynamic Infrastructure Technical Support Leader

 Question 1.
A manufacturing customer is not concerned about system failure, they believe heir 2 week manufacturing cycle allows for recovery. You wish to identify an opportunity for business esilience. 

Which of the following is the impact of system failure?

A. Automated recovery capabilities
B. Redundant servers
C. Quality of Service
D. Resource utilization

Answer: C

Question 2.
Identifying each customer recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a Business Resilience (BR) engagement. A customer determines they have anRTO of 2-6 hours.

Which of the following addresses this BR requirement?

A. Continuous availability, end to end automation
B. Rapid data recovery
C. Tape based backup and restore
D. Real time data and server replication

Answer: B

Question 3.
A fundamental driver for the efficiency of any server is the level of utilization that is achieved. 

What are the typical current utilization levels for various processor types and what should be done to increase this utilization?

A. Mainframe 80%
B. Unix >50%
C. X86 >10%
D. Mainframe 100%
E. Unix >40%
F. X86 >10%
G. Mainframe >80%
H. Unix 15-25%
I. X86 <10%
J. Mainframe >80%
K. Unix >50%
L. X86 >20%
M. Application provisioning

Answer: C

Question 4.
Estimating resources can be the most difficult task in the performance-planning process. 

What are the components that the NEDC Technical Leader should be primarily interested in?

A. CPU time, disk access rate, LAN traffic, amount of real memory
B. Disk access rate, number of simultaneous users, number of concurrent batch jobs
C. Paging rate, CPU time, networking bandwidth
D. CPU clock speed, operating system type and communication I/O

Answer: A

Question 5.
A large manufacturing customer datacenter has reached its physical limits. 

A Which of the following is the key element in the Active Energy Strategy green agenda?

A. IT Management solution to monitor IT Assets
B. Facility monitoring into single portal
C. Smart management of IT devices, cooling systems and virtualization of infrastructure
D. A full chargeback suite for usage and accounting

Answer: C

Question 6.
A securities trading bank has a critical performance issue. Peaks in trading behavior temporarily result in a huge number of orders which must be processed in time to avoid penalties. 

Which of the following meets this immediate situation?

A. IBM SAN Volume Controller provides outstanding performance. Develop a virtualized 
    architecture with the customer to leverage caching properties to meet the
B. IBM server technology withCUoD
C. Analyze the business application; providing high performance solutions for a few peaks is not 
    cost
D. affective. Suggest your customer negotiate the service levels
E. Identify the real issue and develop the proper solution combining software, hardware and 
    services out of IBM comprehensive portfolio.

Answer: B

Question 7.
A prospect is confused with the multiple pillars (BR, EE, VC, and II) within the NEDC strategy. They are interested in virtualization and consolidation, but are concerned that too many pillars will result in a compromise and a poor solution. 

Which of the following is an effective response?

A. The pillars are interrelated and should be implemented together for maximum benefit
B. NEDC Innovation Workshop will help them identify which pillars are most critical and create a 
    roadmap for implementation of one or more pillars
C. NEDC pillars should be implemented one at a time like most applications, combining them as 
    goals makes implementation very difficult
D. Select the most urgent with the highest ROI. Once a successful track record is established 
    other pillars should be implemented

Answer: D

Question 8.
Following successful implementation of a NEDC project, the customer is concerned all of the objectives were not achieved. 

Which of the following would provide a check point for the project objectives for comparison?

A. NEDC Innovation Workshop
B. Scorpion study
C. Technical and Delivery Assessment
D. Team Solution Design

Answer: A

Question 9.
An IBM Solution Assurance Review (SAR) is conducted to facilitate which of the following? 

A. Expectations and assignment of responsibilities for a project
B. Confirms appropriate IBM hardware configuration
C. Ensure proper stakeholder support within an organization
D. Qualifies the Business Partner for Special Bid Pricing

Answer: A

Question 10.
One important factor in developing any BR strategy is to determine the customer Recovery Point Objective.

Which of the following defines a business RPO?

A. RPO indicates how much data the business canhafford to recreate (or lose)
B. RPO denotes the time interval between an outage and when the remote servers are available
C. RPO is the length of elapsed time that the business has agreed they can afford to be without 
    their systems and critical business applications
D. RPO is the distance between the product data centers and the recovery site

Answer: A


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CIW Application Developer exam

 Question 1.
Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?

A. print HTML>>;
B. print ;
C. print ("HTML">;
D. print ("HTML">;

Answer: B

Question 2.
Which method is not effective for protecting server scripts?

A. Assigning the cgi-bin directory read-only permissions.
B. Running the Web server under a user account with few permissions.
C. Using CGI wrapper scripts.
D. Saving scripts with only .exe, .cgi or .pl extensions.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?

A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='$state'};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};

Answer: A

Question 4.
Which one of the following lists of special characters denotes a space character in pattern matching?

A. \r \t \W \D
B. \r \t \n \f
C. \^ . * +
D. \s \D \W \f

Answer: B

Question 5.
List context versus scalar context is determined by which one of the following?

A. The compiler
B. The debugger
C. The interpreter
D. The environment

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which choice best demonstrates how to add a name-value pair to form data?

A. $object = append( name=>"state", value=>"New York");
B. $object = add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");
C. $object-> append( -name=> "state", -value=>"New York");
D. 4object ==> add( -name=>"state", -value=>"New York");

Answer: C

Question 7.
The file mode specifies which one of the following?

A. The access permissions.
B. The inode number.
C. The file's owner.
D. How the file is opened.

Answer: D

Question 8.
The CGI.pm module can be used to perform which one of the following tasks?

A. GET or POST data.
3
B. Load external variables.
C. Read large amounts of text into the script.
D. Access environment variables.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Given $_ = "alphabetais", consider the following substitution:
s/a+.*/greektome/gi;

What is the new value of $_ after this substitution?

A. isgreektome
B. ISGREEKTOME
C. greektome
D. alphabetais

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?

A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue'
D. DELETE state='Kentucky' AND color='blue' FROM MyDatabase

Answer: C



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SUN CERTIFIED SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9 PART II

 Question 1.
Given the output from a dumpadm command:
# dumpadm
Dump content: kernel pages
Dump device: /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1 (swap)
Savecore directory: /var/crash/wm13w1
Savecore enabled: yes

Which statement is correct?

A. The savecore command will run as the system shuts down following a panic.
B. The dump device is also the swap device.
C. Crash dumps are written to the /var/crash/wm13w1 file.
D. The system will dump the whole content of memory to the dump device.

Answer: B

Question 2.
You run an IT department and are responsible for purchasing hardware within a given budget. You are aware that 70 GBytes of data housed in a series of traditional disk slices is becoming critical to the business. You decide to mirror the data but have concerns about write performance. You can purchase the disk space to mirror the data.

What is a cost-free configuration enhancement that achieves fast write performance?

A. striping the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
B. arranging for the mirror to consist of just two disks
C. using RAID 5 to hold the data in each half of the mirror
D. concatenating the data across the disks in each half of the mirror

Answer: A

Question 3.
Your syslog configuration file contains the line:
mail.debugifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/syslog, @loghost)

Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two.)

A. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the /var/log/syslog file.
B. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the user loghost on the 
    Local system.
C. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are emailed to the root user at the 
    host loghost.
D. The ifdef statement is interpreted by the syslogd daemon.
E. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are sent to the host defined as the 
    loghost.

Answer: A, E

Question 4.
Given the line from a name service configuration file: 
ethers: nis [UNAVAIL=return] files

Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of the name service switch? (Choose two.)

A. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will continue by looking for 
    it in the local file.
B. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will end without looking in 
    the local file.
C. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will continue by 
    looking for it in the local file.
D. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will end without 
    looking in the local file.

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting for the resource to mount. 

Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?

A. ro
B. intr
C. bg
D. soft
E. hard
F. fg

Answer: C

Question 6.
You are creating a profile on your JumpStart server to install a new system and are using a Flash archive to provide the necessary software. The Flash archive is called /export/nb.flar and is shared on the network from the server grendel, which has the IP address 194.168.85.106. 

What is the syntax for the JumpStart client's profile file which will use this archive to install the new system?

A. archive_location grendel /export/nb.flar nfs
B. archive_location nfs grendel /export/nb.flar
C. archive_location 194.168.85.106 nfs /export/nb.flar
D. archive_location nfs 194.168.85.106:/export/nb.flar

Answer: D

Question 7.
The rules.ok file on your JumpStart server contains the line:
hostname client1 backup_root client_config set_root_passwd

Which two are correct statements about the function of this line? (Choose two.)

A. The client runs the backup_root script prior to installing software.
B. The client runs the set_root_passwd script after installing software.
C. The client will configure itself using either the backup_root, client_config, or set_root_passwd 
    profiles.
D. The client runs the backup_root, client_config and set_root_passwd scripts after installing 
    software.
E. The client runs the backup_root, client_config, and set_root_passwd scripts prior to installing 
    software.

Answer: A, B

Question 8.
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice. 

What initial action must you take?

A. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. run a command to create the first state database
E. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9

Answer: D

Question 9.
Given:
# getfacl file1
# file: file1
# owner: root
# group: other
user::rwuser:
user3:rwx #effective:r--
group::r-- #effective:r--
mask:r--
other:r--
You run the command:
setfacl -s u::rwx,g::rw-,o:r--,m:rw- file1

Which statement describes the effect of the setfacl command?

A. The permissions assigned to user3 remain unchanged.
B. The permissions for user3 are removed from the system.
C. The effective permissions of the group other remain unchanged.
D. Nothing happens due to a syntax error in the setfacl command.

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which three functions can the syslogd daemon perform? (Choose three.)

A. forwarding messages to a list of users
B. interrupting processes that are producing errors above a pre-configured threshold
C. writing messages to a system log
D. forwarding input from root to the user's processes
E. writing IPC messages to the processes that are generating errors rapidly
F. forwarding messages to the syslogd daemon on another host on the network

Answer: A, C, F



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Quality of Service (QOS)

 Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
 
Answer:
 

Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?

A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.

By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.

Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers. 

According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?

A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS

Answer: A

Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.

LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.

Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.

When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both  guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.

Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
 

A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to 
    policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to 
    policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco. 
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy

The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit

Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?

A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate

Answer: C

Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.

Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch. 

Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)

A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.

Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?

A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge 
    (for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based 
    queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE 
    router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.

Answer: D

Question 8. 
DRAG DROP
Drop
 

Answer:
 

Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
 

 



Answer:
 

Explanation:
 

Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?

A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps

Answer: F

Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.



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