Question 1.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox control's properties cannot be changed with a logo that you have added to the PictureBox in the designer of the form base. Before the time you have added a form to the Microsoft Windows Forms Control Library project and add a PictureBox control to the form. The form is presenting CertKiller.com's logo.

What action should you take?

A. You should set the Locked property to False.
B. You should set the Locked property to True.
C. You should set the Modifiers property to Private.
D. You should set the Modifiers property to Protected.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
When you set the Modifiers property to Private, the value will show that only the base form can modify the control.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You should not set it to False, because the control can be moved and resized.
B: If you set the property to True the control cannot be removed of resized. .
D: If you set the Modifiers property to Protected, the value will show that the base form and any of the form yet to come can modify the control.

Question 2.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS005 as developing collateral. You have just included a DateTimePicker control to a form. You then set the format property to Time. During the cause of the day, you check how the DateTimePicker control is working, and learnt that it does not allow the ITCertKeys.com users to change the selected time.

What should you do to change the control so that it will allow the ITCertKeys.com uses to change the selected time?

A. You should set the ShowUpDown property to True.
B. You should set the ShowSelectBox property to True.
C. You should set the Visible property to False.
D. You should set the Checked property to False.

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The ShowUpDown property is by default set on False. You should set it on True. On False it will show the DateTimePicker must simulate a drop-down control. This setting will allow the users to set the MonthCalender. If it is set to True the users can select the time.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The ShowSelectBox will not resolve the problem. This will show if a CheckBox should be displayed on the DateTimePicker.
C: If you set the Visible property to False, it will hide the DateTimePicker. .
D: You should not set the Checked property to False. If this is set on True, a CheckBox control will be displayed on the DateTimePicker.

Question 3.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS002 as developing collateral. The manager of ITCertKeys.com wants to have a borderless form with the background shown in the exhibit.
 

When the form is view, the manager named Rory Allen does not want the maroon area to be visible. He only wants the blue to be visible when the form is displayed. 

Which of the following code segments should be used?

A. this.TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon;
B. this.BackColor = Color.Maroon;
C. this.TransparencyKey = Color.CornflowerBlue
D. this.BackColor = Color.Transparent;

Answer: A

Explanation: 
The TransparencyKey = Color.Maroon specify the color that the transparent represents the area on the form. With this setting the blue will respond to the mouse.

Incorrect Answers:
B: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Maroon. This will determine the background color of the form.
C: You should not use this code segment. The manager does not wan the blue area to be transparent.
D: You should not use the BackColor = Color.Transparent. The manager does not want the background to be transparent.

Question 4.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have configured three columns to a form and add a TableLayoutPanel to the form. You want the two side columns to have a fix width of 200 pixels each and anchor the four edges of the form to the control. A ITCertKeys.com manager wants the center column to fill the remaining space, when ever the form is resized. You need to change the ColumnStyle instance that represents the center column? 

How should you set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property?

A. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.
B. Set it to Absolute and the Width property to 100F.
C. Set it to Percent and the Width property to 100F.
D. Set it to AutoSize and the Width property to 0F.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
This setting will show that the column should fill the remaining space.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This setting will allow the column to be sized enough so that not any of its child controls are clipped. In this setting the middle will not occupy the remaining free space. 
B: If you set it to Absolute, the value of the Width property will show the number of pixels for the column.
D: You need to set the ColumnStyle instance's Size Type property to AutoSize and the Width property to 100F.

Question 5.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You have added a SplitContainer control named ITCertKeysSplitContainer to a form. You then left the control to the default properties. To the right-most container of the SplitContainer control, you need to add a PropertyGrid.

Which of the following code segments should you use?

A. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetContainerControl[];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
B. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    Panel rightPanel = [Panel] ITCertKeysSplitContainer.GetNextControl[propertyGrid, true];
    rightPanel.ControlAdd[porpertyGrid];
C. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Container.Add[propertyGrid, "RightPanel"];
D. PropertyGrid propertyGrid = new PropertyGrid[];
    ITCertKeysSplitContainer.Panel2.Control.Add[propertyGrid];

Answer: D

Explanation: 
An area can be divided into two containers, which is separated by a movable bar, if you use the SplitContainer control. When the two Panels are created, the left one is the Panel1 and the right is Panel2. You are adding a panel so it will be on the right. You then need to specify Panel2.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: You should not use the Add method of the SplitContainer.Container to add the PropertyGrid. You also should not pass a PropertyGrid instance to the GetNextControl method to return a Panel instance. This will actually retrieve the next tab-ordered control given the current control. You also should not call the GetContainerControl method to return a Panel instance. This will return the logical container of the SplitContainer control.

Question 6.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy to develop a Microsoft Windows Forms exam delivery application. This is going to be used to access the content of the exam via the Internet. A WebBrowser named testbrowser is added to the control to a form named ITCertKeysForm, which is define as follows:
[PermissionSet[SecurityAction.Demand, Name="FullTrust"]]
[System.Runtime.InteropServices.ComVisible[true]]
public ITCertKeysForm : Form
{
public ITCertKeysForm[]
{
InitializeComponent[];
}
public void Expire[]
{
}
}
The JavaScript-based timer that is used by the Web site for the exam has a function to inform the exam delivery application when the time has expired for the exam, which is the following:
window.external.Expire[];

What should you do to make sure that the Expire method of ITCertKeysForm is called when the JavaScrip function is carry out? 

A. You should set the Document.DomDocument property of the browser instance to the current 
    instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.
B. You should set the ObjectForScripting property of the browser instance to the current instance 
    of the ITCertKeysForm class.
C. You should call the AttachEventHandler of the Document property of the browser instance.
D. You should call the ExecCommand method of the Document property of the browser instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
You must set the ObjectForScripting for the browser instance to the current instance of the ITCertKeysForm class.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The property of the Document.DomDocument represents the true DOM object of an HTML document.
C: The AttachEventHandler allows you to attach a HTML Document Object Model event to an event handler.
D: The ExecCommand method allows you to execute commands against DOM documents.

Question 7.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS003 as developing collateral. You have received instructions to make sure that the PictureBox will display dynamically loaded images.

Which property will display a static image if any dynamic image fails to load?

A. BackgroundImage
B. Image
C. ErrorImage
D. InitailImage

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The ErrorImage property specifies the image that should be displayed. This will happened only if the image that you are trying to load dynamically fails.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The BackgroundImage property specifies a background image which is used by the control.
B: The Image property specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display.
D: The InitailImage specifies the image you want the PictureBox control to display while the other one is loading.

Question 8.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are developing a Web service for new updates to query automatically, by use of a Microsoft Windows Forms application. You then add a NotifyIcon component named ITCertKeysnotify to the application's main form. Whenever a new update is available you want the following balloon tip to display as seen in the exhibit for 5 seconds.
 

Which segment should you use to write a code to download the updates if the users click the balloon tip?

A. ITCertKeysnotify.BallonTipClick +=delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000, "New Update Available"; "Click here to download"
, ToolTipIcon.Info];
B. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5];
   ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
C. ITCertKeysnotify.BalloonTipIcon = ToolTipIcon.Info;
   ITCertKeys.Balloon TipTitle = "New Update Available";
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipText = "Click here to download";
ITCertKeys.Click += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}
ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5000];
D. ITCertKeysnotify.ShowBallonTip[5, New Update Available", "Click here to download",
   ToolTipIcon.Info];
ITCertKeys.BalloonTipClick += delegate
{
// Download the updates
}

Answer: A

Explanation: 
You should use an event handler, attach the BalloonTipClicked to the event and call the ShowBalloon Tip method of the NotifyIcon class. When a user clicks a balloon tip, a BalloonTipClicked event is raised.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: You should not attach the BalloonTipClicked even to an event handler after you have called the ShowBalloonTip method. Also note that the event is raised when the icon is clicked and not the balloon tip.

Question 9.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS020 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a MenuStrip control, which has an instance of a ToolStripMenu item named testjobItem, to a form in a Microsoft Windows Forms application. This item's display text is Job. You have received instructions to add two menu items to the Job menu item. The first item's display text should be Create New Job, and the second one is Run Job.

Which code segment should you use to programmatically add the two menu items?

A. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Container.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Container.Add[runJobItem];
B. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[createNewJobItem];
jobItem.Owner.Items.Add[runJobItem];
C. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.DropDownItems.AddRange[items];
D. ToolStripMenuItem createNewJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Create New Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem runJobItem = new ToolStripMenuItem["Run Job"];
ToolStripMenuItem[] items = new ToolStripMenuItem[]{create NewJobItem,
runJobItem}
jobItem.Owner.Items.AddRange[items];

Answer: C

Explanation: 
For the jobItem instance you should call the AddRange. The property of the DropDownItems represents a collection of child items of the jobItem instance, which allows you to add the two items to the job menu item.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This property returns an instance of IContainer, which represents a logical container for other components.
B: The Owner property returns the Menu script instance that owns the ToolStripMenuItem instance.
D: This action will add the two new menu at the same level as the Job menu item.

Question 10.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS050 as developing collateral. You were busy with a task to add a ContextMenuStrip control to a form.

What should you do to display a custom control as a menu item of the ContextMenuStrip control?

A. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the ContextMeniStrip 
    control to the controls of the ToolStripContainer control.
B. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ToolStripControlHost instance to the Items 
    collection of the ContextMeniStrip control.
C. Add a ToolstripContainer control to the form and add the custom control to the Controls 
    collection residing on the toolStripContainer control. You should then add the 
    ToolstripContainer control to the controls of the ContextMeniStrip controls.
D. Of ToolStripControlHost, create an instance and specify your custom control instance as a 
    parameter to the conductor. You should then the ContextMeniStrip controls to the collection of 
    the ToolStripControlHost instance.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The ToolStripControlHost class to host a custom control as a menu item in the ContextMeniStrip. You should also the custom control instance as the parameter to the constructor.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: The ToolstripContainer should not be used to reach your goal. Furthermore, you cannot host a ToolstripContainer control as the menu item in a ContextMeniStrip controls.

Question 11.
You are working as an application developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com uses Visual Studio 2005 as an application platform. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Development department. You as the developer of ITCertKeys.com use a client computer named ITCERTKEYS-WS007 as developing collateral. You are busy adding a WebBrowser control named, ITCertKeysbrowser to a form in a Microsoft Windows Form application. To control the navigation of the documents, you add Button controls and a TextBox control to the form, just incase a HTML document needs to e programmatically parse through the content.

Which code segment should be used to create an event handler?

A. browser.Navigated =+ delegate
{
HtmlDocument document = browser.Document;
//Parse the document
}
B. browser.FileDownload =+ delegate
   {
HtmlDocument document = browser.Document;
//Parse the document
}
C. browser.DocumentCompleted =+ delegate
   {
HtmlDocument document = browser.Document;
//Parse the document
}
D. browser.Navigating =+ delegate
   {
HtmlDocument document = browser.Document;
//Parse the document
}

Answer: B

Explanation: 
For the DocumentComplete event, you should create an event handler. When a document is complete in the WebBrowser control, a DocumentComplete will be raised.

Incorrect Answers:
A: A Navigated for the event handler will raise after the WebBrowser control has begun with the downloading of the HTML document.
C: You should not create an event handler for the FileDownload event. This will raise when the WebBrowser downloads a file.
D: This will result in the event raise after the WebBrowser control navigates to an HTML document.

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Braindumps for "350-050" Exam

CCIE Wireless Exam

 Question 1.
Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies. You are configuring a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to utilize QoS and have configured the platinum queue on the controller. 

However, the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch to provide the necessary QoS for voice clients on the wireless network?

A. Enable 802dot1p
B. Config wlan qos wlan-id platinum
C. Swithchport priority extend cos 5
D. Mls qos trust dscp

Answer: D

Question 2.
Which properties are of an AP in H-REAP mode?

A. Allows some SSID/VLAN traffic to be switched locally while other SSID/VLAN traffic has full 
    LWAPP functionality
B. Support Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming
C. Can switch client data traffic locally
D. Perform client authentication locally when its connection to the controller is lost

Answer: A, B, C, D

Question 3.
Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?

A. UDP 12222 and 12223
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. TCP 16666 and 16667

Answer: A

Question 4.
The IEEE 802.11 standards define different encryption mechanisms. 

Which is the basic of defining the most secure encryption solution in IEEE 802.11 standards?

A. WEP
B. AES-CCMP
C. IPSEC
D. TKIP

Answer: B

Question 5.
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?

A. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational
B. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known
D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller

Answer: A

Question 6.
A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network by use of controllers. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.)

A. On the Cisco WCS
B. On the RADIUS Server
C. On the Access Point
D. On the Client

Answer: C, D

Question 7.
Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error. 

Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?

A. Show exlusionlist
B. Show database summary
C. Show sysinfo
D. Show wps summary

Answer: B

Question 8.
Can you tell me when a client will provide an AP with its version of Cisco Compatible Extensions for WLAN devices?

A. In an 802.11 association or reassociation request frame
B. When the AP sends an unsolicited update embedded in a beacon packet
C. Upon successful EAP or dot1x authentication to the AP
D. In a Broadcast probe request packet

Answer: A

Question 9.
Wi-Fi Multimedia is a technology maintaining the priority of audio, video and voice applications in a Wi-Fi network so that other applications and traffic are less likely to slow them.

A. Definition of the differentiated services filed
B. Enhanced Distributed Coordination Function mechanism
C. Four Access categories: A label for the common set of Enhanced Distributed Channel Access 
    parameters that are used by a WMM STA to contend for the channel in order to transmit 
    MSDUs with certain priorities
D. Unscheduled Service Period. The service period that is started when a WMM STA transmits a 
    trigger frame to the WMM AP

Answer: B, C, D

Question 10.
Before sending a frame over a medium and verifying that the medium is free, which process does a wireless client go through?

A. Send an RTS frame, receive a CTS frame, then transmit the frame
B. Verify that NAV = 0, then transmit the frame
C. Send a CTS frame, receive an RTS frame, then transmit the frame
D. Check that NAV = 0, generate a random backoff, verify that the channel is free, verify that slot 
    times = 0, then transmit the frame

Answer: D

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Braindumps for "352-001" Exam

ADVDESIGN (CCDE)

 Question 1.
According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router B and Router C are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently.

How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it?
Exhibit:
 

A. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router B and Router C
B. create another link between Router A in AS1 and ISP A
C. configure iBGP between Router B and Router C to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2
D. configure two static routes in Router A for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router B and Router C

Answer: A

Question 2.
Study the topology provided in this exhibit. Which configuration change will maximize the efficiency of both the routing design and data forwarding plane?
Exhibit:
 

A. Configure Router B with a static route for the aggregate to Null0
B. Configure Router A to advertise 10.0.0.0/8 instead of the default route to Router B
C. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes in addition to the aggregate
D. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes instead of the aggregate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Null0 is an interface that doesn’t exist. The null0 interface can be used with static routes to route a packet into a black hole of sorts. In other words, if you have traffic that you do not want to reach a particular destination, you can create the static route for that destination with the next-hop interface pointing to null0. Any traffic that enters the Router destined for the network specified in the static route will be sent to the null0 interface and dropped.

When working with classless and classful routing, you should crate a static route with the classful variant of the classless route and point it to interface null0.
Example: ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null0

Question 3.
Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two)

A. To reduce the amount of information any specific Router within the network must store and 
    process
B. To isolate the impact of DDoS attacks
C. To improve optimal routing within the network
D. To reduce the impact of topology changes

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
Route aggregation, or route summarization, is the process of advertising a single route for multiple routes. This is useful in limiting the number of routes that will be stored in a routing table, thus cutting down on the amount of memory and processing power required.

Question 4.
Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.)

A. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network.
B. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes.
C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs.
D. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs.

Answer: A, C, D

Explanation:
Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding and Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers. In OSPF environment either we can summarize routes in ASBR or ABR. ASBR can summarize the external routes and ABR can summarize internal routes between Area.
Example:
Inter-Area Route summarization:
Router(Config)#Router ospf 1
Router(Config-Router)#Area area-id range address mask
External Route Summarization:
Router(Config)#Router ospf 1
Router(Config-Router)#summary-address ip mask

Question 5.
EIGRP performs route summarization at the interface level with the “ip summaryaddress” command. 

Which three statements correctly describe EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three)

A. By default, EIGRP automatically summarizes internal routes, but only each time a major 
    network boundary is crossed.
B. EIGRP route summarization can reduce the query diameter to help prevent SIA problems.
C. Summary routes are inserted in the routing table with a next hop of null 0 and a high 
    administrative distance, to prevent black holing of traffic.
D. The metric for each summarized route is inherited from the lowest metric of the component 
    routes.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 6.
Why build link state flooding domain boundaries in large-scale networks running OSPF or IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. Doing so provides logical break points at which to troubleshoot individual parts of the network, 
    rather than trying to troubleshoot the whole network at once.
B. Doing so limits the extent of SPF and allows the use of PRC for some best path calculations.
C. Flooding domain borders block the transmission of external routing information in the network, 
    which improves scaling and convergence times.
D. Network administrators can quickly find specific destinations when detailed link state 
    information is sorted by flooding domain in the link state database.

Answer: A, B

Question 7.
Which two options are true about the impact flooding domain boundaries have when built in OSPF? (Choose two)

A. They decrease convergence time by reducing the complexity and size of the shortest path 
    trees in the individual areas.
B. They isolate network failures within a domain.
C. They decrease convergence time by automatically summarizing reachability information 
    transmitted through the network, thereby decreasing the number of routes that must be 
    installed in each Router's routing table.
D. They increase convergence time by adding the time required to run two full Shortest Path First 
    computations on the area border Routers.

Answer: A, B

Question 8.
Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.)

A. To provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network
B. To segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another
C. To aggregate reachability information
D. To increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
Low-speed links and large numbers of spokes may require multiple flooding domains or areas to be supported effectively. You should balance the number of flooding domains on the hub against the number of spokes in each flooding domain. The link speeds and the amount of information being passed through the network determine the right balance. Design for these situations must balance the number of areas and the Router impact of maintaining an LSA database and doing Dijkstra calculations per area against the number of remote Routers in each area

Question 9.
What are three reasons to summarize link state topology information? (Choose three)

A. To reduce the amount of routing information being advertised
B. To create boundaries for containing potential network changes and instabilities
C. To permit traffic engineering between areas
D. To hide detailed topology information

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:
Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding, Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers.

Question 10.
Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies?

A. Redundant servers at the access level
B. High port densities at the access level
C. Modular block design at the access level
D. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level

Answer: C

Explanation:
The primary objectives in the design of a large-scale, shared-enterprise server farm are: 
• Performance— Up to 10 Gbps outbound bandwidth capacity is required from the server farm for most enterprises.
• Scalability— A critical requirement in every server farm. Server load balancing is most often deployed. As the number of servers requiring higher-bandwidth connections increases, port densities can exceed the capacity of a single switch or server farm block. Applying a modular block design to server farm deployments permits flexible growth.
• Availability— Availability is generally ensured through the overall network design. Networks are designed to minimize the occurrence of service problems and the time to recover from problems, for example, with backup recovery policies and procedures.
• Security— Security is an integral part of the network design. A single vulnerability could compromise the enterprise. Specialized security expertise is often required.
• Manageability— Manageability means much more than knowing if a server or other network element is up or down. Good manageability tools and qualified personnel lower operations costs and reduce wasted time, and they yield higher overall satisfaction.

Reference: 
CCDP Self-Study: Designing Cisco Network Architectures (ARCH) by Keith Hutton; Amir Ranjbar

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Braindumps for "640-460" Exam

IIUC Implementing Cisco IOS Unified Communications (IIUC)

 Question 1.
Which type of voice port will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN or a PBX?

A. FXO
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
E. BRI

Answer: C

Question 2.
In which of the following scenarios would a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?

A. In any cases as long as the switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. If the Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. If the Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only if both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.

Answer: C

Question 3.
The SBB Company is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. The company uses five-digit extensions and would like to be able to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO's home. The CEO's telephone number is 866-555-2222. 

Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
 

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F

Answer: A

Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
 

Which Cisco Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: C

Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
 
Which two statements about SIP trunk are true? (Choose two.)

A. A SIP trunk configuration is always needed for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed only to provide internet access for your data users.
C. SIP trunk configuration parameters should be provided to your service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is needed only if you are using voice mail to supply the Message Waiting Indicator 
    value to the Cisco Unity Express module.
E. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service 
    provider.
F. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.

Answer: E, F

Question 6.
A customer wants to use a signaling protocol on the voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager. 

What protocol should be recommended?

A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SRTP
D. MGCP

Answer: D

Question 7.
DRAG DROP
 

Answer:
 

Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
 

After deploying a UC500 system, you receive a support call from a user reporting that callers are going straight to the operator instead of going to members of the hunt group. 

Which two tabs have configuration parameters that are most likely going to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Device
B. System
C. Network
D. SIP Trunk
E. Voice Features
F. Dial Plan

Answer: E, F

Question 9.
What is the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?

A. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames.
B. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames.
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames.
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones 
    whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?

A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol

Answer: B

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Braindumps for "640-553" Exam

IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security

 Question 1.
Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?

A. access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
B. access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 3030
C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www

Answer: D

Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.
 

Answer:
 

Question 3.
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?

A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent

Answer: A

Question 4.
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below:
 
 

Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class-default"?

A. inspect
B. drop
C. police
D. pass

Answer: B

Question 5.
DRAG DROP
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
 

Answer:
 

Question 6.
Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration?
 

A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicit deny all.
B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted.
C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0.
D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the 
    source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet.

Answer: C

Question 7.
For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1?

A. pre-shared key
B. integrity check value
C. XAUTH
D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce

Answer: A

Question 8.
Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct?

A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.

Answer: C

Question 9.
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?

A. OTP
B. OOB
C. SAFE
D. MARS

Answer: B

Question 10.
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?

A. L2F tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. GRE tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel

Answer: D

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Braindumps for "640-721" Exam

Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Networking Essentials (IUWNE)

 Question 1.
For the following items .which one correctly describes fading?

A. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
B. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
C. A time varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the 
    movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a 
   different propagation delay and path loss.

Answer: C

Question 2.
Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?

A. ReaD. write access is not available; only reaD. only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not 
    nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to 
    which the client is associated.

Answer: C

Question 3.
As a network technician, you must know Cisco WiSMs . Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?

A. 16
B. 12
C. 24
D. 5

Answer: B

Question 4.
You work as a network technician read this subject carefully .then answer the question.  The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. 

What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?

A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor

Answer: D

Question 5.
What are the four types of wireless networks? (Choose four)

A. Wireless PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. VLAN
E. WAN

Answer: A, B, C, E

Question 6.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the following options .which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)

A. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. requires CCXv5
C. implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only

Answer: B, C

Question 7.
What happens when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero ?

A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Client exclusion is disabled.
C. Clients are never excluded.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.

Answer: A

Question 8.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n. 

Which will most likely cause this problem?

A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting 
    authentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.

Answer: D

Question 9.
How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?

A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 
    750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN 
     controllers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for 
    Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.

Answer: D

Question 10.
What is the typical maximum range of a wireless PAN?

A. 45 feet
B. 50 feet.
C. 55 feet
D. 60 feet

Answer: B

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