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Braindumps for "156-310" Exam

CCSE - Any good dumps?

 I have managed to passed the CCSA recently! 

Thanks to all the VALUABLE advices and dumps here. Many other website which I have visited are outdated (they are still using the old 90+ questions - and yet still claimed to be the real questions!). 

Now I am going for CCSE, I am looking for good & reliable ADVICES and DUMPS. Anyone has any good recommendations? (pls note that I mean CCSE based on the new exam questions, not the old ones).

Thanks.




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Braindumps: Dumps for 000-135 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "000-135" Exam

Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1

 Question 1.
HATS Web applications can be deployed to WebSphere Application Server running on which operating systems?

A. Windows, AIX, IBMi, z/OS, or Linux on z
B. IBMi or z/OS only
C. Linux on Systemi or System z only
D. Windows or Linux only

Answer: A

Question 2.
Text replacement can be defined at various artifact levels. What is NOT a valid level to define text replacement?

A. project level
B. rendering item level
C. screen customization level
D. transformation level

Answer: D

Question 3.
To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display terminal window can be displayed. 

Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?

A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application button 
    standard.
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting the 
    Enable Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.

Answer: B

Question 4.
What happens when a user double-clicks an item in the HATS rich client Applications view?

A. A new instance of the selected application is opened.
B. The existing instance of the selected application is activated.
C. The user is prompted to update the connection settings for the selected application.
D. The user is shown a list of all running instances of the application.

Answer: A

Question 5.
Which widget allows manual entry of text and provides a valid value list?

A. Combo
B. List
C. Popup
D. Text input

Answer: C

Question 6.
Which statement is true about SSL connection security in HATS?

A. The connection from Web browser to application server can be encrypted using the SSL tab in 
    the connection editor.
B. An encrypted connection can be used without importing a certificate if the server certificate is 
    signed by a well-known certificate signer, such as Thawte.
C. An SSL-secured application can be tested offline using the host simulator facility.
D. 3270, 3270e, 5250, 5250W, and VT connections can be encrypted with SSL.

Answer: B

Question 7.
After creating a custom host component class, which action must be performed to ensure it functions properly at runtime?

A. store the new component in the /CustomComponent folder in the Navigator view
B. turn on Global Variable Overrides in Project Settings
C. enable the CustomComponent class in the style sheet
D. modify the WAR class loader policy of the HATS application

Answer: D

Question 8.
What is the scope of shared global variables in a rich client environment?

A. only instances of the same HATS rich client application
B. only instances of HATS rich client applications in the same EAR
C. all application instances running in the environment
D. Shared global variables are not available in a HATS rich client environment.

Answer: C

Question 9.
On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS Toolkit, supported to be deployed and run?

A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus (R) Expeditor Client
B. IBMWebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market

Answer: B

Question 10.
Which action will NOT disconnect the transformation connection when designing a HATS Web application?

A. requiring end users to press the Disconnect button on the HATS application keypad
B. using of theDisconnectOnClose parameter for a HATS portlet
C. configuring a session timeout for the Web application
D. using the Disconnect action on an application or screen customization event

Answer: B


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Braindumps: Dumps for JN0-303 Exam Brain Dump

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Braindumps for "JN0-303" Exam

Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-M)

 Question 1.
What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?

A. IGP
B. LDP
C. MPLS
D. BGP

Answer: D

Question 2.
A router receives an IPv6 packet which is 2000 bytes in length. The MTU of the outgoing interface is 1500 bytes. 

What action will the router take?

A. fragments the packet
B. forwards the packet
C. drops the packet and sends an ICMP message
D. drops the packet silently

Answer: C

Question 3.
In which two ways can you influence how downstream LSRs treat MPLS traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Use a DSCP rewrite table.
B. Statically assign a CoS value to an RSVP-signaled LSP.
C. Statically assign a CoS value to an LDP-signaled LSP.
D. Use an EXP rewrite table.

Answer: B, D

Question 4.
What is the use of MSDP across multiple PIM domains?

A. It advertises RPs to all downstream routers.
B. It advertises active multicast sources.
C. It prevents multicast routing loops.
D. It scopes multicast traffic.

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which two statements are true when configuring a domain-id ? (Choose two.)

A. The default OSPF domain-id is 127.0.0.1
B. For a layer 3 VPN connecting multiple OSPF domains, configuring a domain-id can help 
    Control LSA translations
C. In most cases, a domain-id must be configured
D. In most cases, you do not need to configure a domain-id

Answer: B, D

Question 6.
Into which protocol are LDP hello messages encapsulated?

A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. MPLS

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which two forwarding classes have bandwidth assigned when CoS is not explicitly configured in JUNOS software? (Choose two.)

A. Network control (NC)
B. Assured forwarding (AF)
C. Expedited forwarding (EF)
D. Best effort (BE)

Answer: A, D

Question 8.
In JUNOS software, which type of encapsulation is required on a PE router for the CE-facing interface in a Martini-based VPN?

A. ATM
B. CCC
C. Ethernet
D. HDLC

Answer: B

Question 9.
Which routing table stores IPv6 routes?

A. inet.2
B. inet.0
C. inet.v6
D. inet6.0
E. ip-net.0

Answer: D

Question 10.
Which three authentication options does IS-IS support? (Choose three.)

A. unauthenticated
B. MD5
C. Kerberos
D. simple password
E. DES

Answer: A, B, D


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Braindumps for "MB2-632" Exam

Applications in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0

 Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com has opened an office in Berlin, Germany. The Sales Director at ITCertKeys.com asks you to create a list of Opportunities, showing the Forecasted revenue in both the transaction currency (Euro) and in the base currency (US Dollars) along with the international exchange rate. You try to find the Opportunities with the required fields. However, none of the existing Opportunities views include all the required fields. 

What should you do to produce the data and make it available to the Sales Director as quickly as possible?

A. Export the data in Excel Worksheet and choose 'Dynamic PivotTable'. Select the required 
    columns in the report
B. Export to Excel Worksheet and choose 'Select DynamicTable' with records from the report. 
    select the required columns in the report
C. Execute Advanced Find to generate the view with correct fields. Save the results and share it
D. Export the data in Excel Worksheet and select 'Dynamic Worksheet'. Select the required 
    columns in the report

Answer: C, D

Explanation:
To product the data and make it available to the sales director as quickly as possible, you need to execute Advanced Find to generate the view with correct fields. Save the results and export the data in Excel worksheet. Select Dynamic Worksheet and select the required columns in the report. When working with queries in Advanced Find, you can look at the criteria in two ways: Detail mode and Simple mode. You can find and set the default settings for Advanced Find mode in the Personal Options form. When working in Details mode, you are further presented with the option to add an And clause or an Or clause to our query. Virtually every area of Microsoft Dynamics CRM has the ability to export to Excel. In addition to being able to export using the Advanced Find, you can select the Excel icon within Microsoft Dynamics CRM.

The Export to Data to Excel dialog box has three options:
Static Worksheet with Records from This Page- This option will export the records on the page, with only the columns that are visible on the view from the page. By default, the Inactive Contacts only have Full Name, Parent Customer, and Business Phone, so those will be the only fields exported. You can modify your view and additional columns by going to Settings, Customize and adding columns to the view, if necessary. Dynamic Pivot Table- When selected, the Select Columns button becomes enabled, allowing you to optionally add additional columns to the export After you're finished adding columns, you can export the data by selecting Export, and Excel will open in Pivot Table design mode allowing you to drag and drop to create Pivot Tables. This option is generally used to manipulate and report on data from Microsoft Dynamics CRM. Dynamic Worksheet - selecting this option will allow you to add new columns (as described in the first option, static worksheet); however, the columns are only added for the purpose of export and do not change the underlying view. 

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com is a large IT training company. You're the instructor at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys customers send their sales people to learn presentation skills. You ask the course attendees to produce PowerPoint presentations. To check and compare the presentations, you need to store the PowerPoint presentations produced by the attendees in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0. 

How should you store these presentations in the CRM so that the Course Manager and you can review each student's work? (Choose two answers. Each answers is part of the complete solution)

A. Locate the Contact and attach the PowerPoint presentation to it
B. Create a contact for each student and save the PowerPoint presentation as an attachment
C. Locate the Contact and create a task. Attach PowerPoint presentation and save the task
D. Create a contact for each student. Assign an identifying number and attach PowerPoint 
    presentation to each contact with the identifying number

Answer: A, C

Explanation:
To store presentations in the CRM so that the Course Manager and you can review each student's work, you need to locate the contact and attach the PowerPoint presentation to it. To view, locate the contact and create a task. Attach PowerPoint presentation and save the task. You can attach a file with a contact. This way it'll be easy to view the work of each student. The attach a file option is present in the contact form. Create a task from the contact. Task Activities are those that have some kind of action that doesn't fall within the other categories. The Task Activity will be the one most commonly used when the work doesn't fit neatly within the existing Activity types.

When working with the new Task Activity form, Subject and Owner are the only required fields in creating a Task. The area directly below the Subject field is generally reserved for details related to the Subject, but you can include those details on the Notes tab if you prefer. The Regarding field is not required by default; however, if you don't complete this field, the Task will not be part of a record's history. This is acceptable if you're creating Tasks for yourself, such as when preparing a document. However, if the preparation of a document Task is for an existing customer, Lead, or other entity, you'll want to enter that information so that the document preparation record becomes part of the related record

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com has a subsidiary that deals in corporate investments. You're the sales manager at a ITCertKeys subsidiary company. You handle the overall investment portfolios. Sales personnel have limited access. They can only view their own client records. One member of the sales team, Ralph gets ill. You have to allocate another sales executive to manage Ralph's accounts and opportunities while he is ill. The other sales executive named Denise will manage Ralph's account while he is ill. You also want Ralph to manage his own accounts and opportunities once he gets well and returns to work. 

What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Select all accounts that Ralph operates and assign them to Denise
B. Select all opportunities that Ralph operates and assign them to Denise
C. Transfer Ralph's account profile to Denise profile
D. Select all accounts that Ralph operates and share it with Denise
E. None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
To allocate another sales executive to manage Ralph's accounts and opportunities while he is ill and allow Ralph to manage his own accounts and opportunities once he gets well and returns to work, select all accounts that Ralph operates and share it with Denise.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is a leading IT Exam solution provider. You work as a sales manager. You send letters to contact using mail merge. To make the process easy, you have created a personal email template for these contacts. A marketing manager at ITCertKeys.com sees your personal email template. He wants to use it for sending letters to his accounts. 

How will you facilitate his request?

A. Teach marketing manager how to create an email template
B. Create a new email template and send it to the marketing manager
C. Share the email template by making it available to organization
D. Edit the email template and personalize it for marketing manager. Email the template to 
    marketing manager
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
You need to teach marketing manager how to create an email template. E-mail Templates enable you to create and modify your personal E-mail templates, as well as promote them to the Organizational level. E-mail Templates are the richest templates because they allow for specific customizations specific to the sender and receiver. E-mail Templates have several core properties that make up how they work:
* Template Type
* Viewable By
* Language
Templates cannot have attachments. If attachments are necessary, we recommend either including a URL to a public website where the attachment can be downloaded or including the attachment with the individual e-mail. You can include images in templates, but they must be available on public websites. Navigate to the website, and copy and then paste the image directly into the body of the template. Another use for templates is in the creation of an e-mail signature. To do this, create a template with Template Type equal to Global and add the desired signature values. When creating an email, select the Insert Template option and insert the Signature template. You can also add multiple templates in a single email.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 5.
ITCertKeys.com sells Computer hardware. You are in charge of processing orders. Orders are delivered to warehouses and invoices are sent to accounts department. The warehouses are not in the same location as the account department. You're already using the phone and fax fields on the order. You ordered the delivery drivers to call the cell phones of the people responsible for delivery and billing enquiries. 

How should you use Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 to record this information?

A. Select billing and shipping contact and link it to the order. Record the names of these people in 
    the Address contact fields
B. Create a new relationship role. Link billing contact to the shipping contact
C. Create a new relationship role. Link billing contact to the shipping contact and link it to the 
    order opportunity
D. Create two new relationship roles under the order it relates to. One is billing contact and the 
    other shipping contact.

Answer: A

Explanation:
To record this information using Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, you need to select billing and shipping contact and link it to the order. Record the names of these people in the Address contact fields. Contacts are individuals that either are Customers or are in some way related to an Account. Although they aren't required to have a relationship with an Account, they often do. An example of a Contact without a relationship to an Account is someone like the mailman, whom you want to keep in the system so that all the employees can get information about him such as his name or birth date (everyone should wish the mailman happy birthday), but there might not be reason to have the United States Post Office as an Account just for the mailman.

Since the order is the main entity billing and shipping is related to. So you need link billing and shipping contact to the order. Now you should record the names of these people. You can easily do that in the address contact fields. Segregate the names of these people according to their work. If a person is in the billing contact, put him in the billing contact.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com manufactures computer hardware. You work as an accountant. You are streamlining and automating the accounting process. You want to record the name of your contact at the LED manufacturing plant that supplies LEDs to ITCertKeys.com in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0. 

What should you do to record this in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0?

A. Ask the CRM administrator to create a new record for the supplier and separate it from the 
    customers
B. Setup an account record with a relationship type as Supplier. Record the contact of your 
    supplier and link it to the account
C. Create a supplier account and the contact. Link the contact to the supplier account. Create a 
    rule so that the supplier account is not confused with your customers
D. Create a supplier account and a contact. In the details tab under the description enter details 
    about the supplier
E. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:
To record the name of the contact at the LED manufacturing plant, you need to create a supplier account and the contact. Link the contact to the supplier account. Create a rule so that the supplier account is not confused with your customers. In general terms, users should consider Accounts as businesses or organizations. Some Accounts have many contacts associated with them (such as a normal customer that has two dozen employees whom you have contact with on some level); other Accounts have no contacts associated with them (the Internal Revenue Service might be a good example of this). The Account Entity can be used not only for businesses you sell to, but also for vendors you purchase from, again tracking contacts that work for the vendor.

When working with Accounts, only two fields are required by default: Account Name and Owner . (However, you can easily customize the form to make other fields required if your business needs require it.) The Account Name field is limited to 160 characters and, by default, can be the same value as an existing Account name. Because the Account Name is the first field shown on the default quick find view, it is important to be descriptive here. Contacts are individuals that either are Customers or are in some way related to an Account. Although they aren't required to have a relationship with an Account, they often do. An example of a Contact without a relationship to an Account is someone like the mailman, whom you want to keep in the system so that all the employees can get information about him such as his name or birth date (everyone should wish the mailman happy birthday), but there might not be reason to have the United States Post Office as an Account just for the mailman.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com is a leading exam solutions provider. You're the sales manager at ITCertKeys.com. A new version of one of the products has been launched and the CEO of ITCertKeys.com has asked you to make sure that the old versions are not included in any sales from now on. The CEO wants to compare the sales of the new version with the sales of the old ones during the month. 

What should you do to achieve this task in Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0?

A. Access Settings area and navigate to the Product Catalog. Select products and deactivate it
B. Look Up the products in the navigate area. Select and deactivate it
C. Navigate to the product catalog. Select the old versions and delete them
D. Navigate to the product catalog. Select products and deactivate it
E. All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
You need to access the settings area and navigate to the Product Catalog. Select products and deactivate it. Information about the products being sold is managed in the Product Catalog. You must set up four areas:
* Discount Lists
* Unit Groups
* Price Lists
* Products
Since the CEO wants to compare the sales of the new version with the sales of the old versions during a month, it is recommended that you access the Product catalog in settings area and select the products that are old versions. Deactivate it. The new products are already activated. You can generate the report of the new product sales and compare it with the old ones in the product catalog.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition
Section 2: Multi-Lingual User Interface and Multi-Currency (2 Questions)

Question 8.
ITCertKeys.com offers vast range of products. You manage product catalog using Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0. The Sales Director asks you to set up the product catalog for all products. ITCertKeys.com's products are sold in single units and in 4 different currencies: US Dollars, Euros, Australian Dollars and Yen. You also want the product to be available to the members of a Trade Association at a 10% discount of the price available to the general customers. 

What should you do to set up the price list information for trade association and for the general customers?

A. Set two price lists: one for the non-members and one for the members. Set up the price in four 
    currencies in each price list.
B. Set a general price list with all four currencies for the non-members. Create a separate entity in 
    the price list with a 10% discount in each currency for the members
C. Set up four price lists. Once for each currency and create a discount list for the members
D. Setup eight price lists: four for the members and four for non-members. Each price list will be 
    in a single currency. So four price lists with four separate currencies for members and four 
    price lists with four separate currencies for the non-members.
E. All of the above.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To set up the price list information for trade association and for the general customers, you need to setup eight price lists: four for the members and four for non-members. Each price list will be in a single currency. Therefore, four price lists with four separate currencies for members and four price lists with four separate currencies for the non-members. Price Lists make up groupings of products with associated pricing. If you don't have varied pricing for any reason, you could easily set up a single Price List (called Standard Price List, Default Price List, or similar) with all your products and their pricing on it. Additionally, it might be common to have only a small number of prices lists, such as Retail and Wholesale. However, no limit governs the number of available Price Lists-you can create multiple prices lists by customer, region, time of year, or other consideration.

You can easily set up Price Lists in conjunction with Discount Lists for promotional and seasonal pricing for specific products. To do this, create a new Discount List with the discount and quantity of discount. (For this scenario, in which the promotional pricing would apply to every item, regardless of quantity, the beginning quantity would be 1 and the ending quantity would be whatever maximum level you wanted to set.) Create a new Price List and add existing products and units, as well as the Discount List you previously set up. Be sure to name both the Price List and the Discount List accordingly so that you'll know what they are for.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition

Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com has opened a new sales office in Tokyo, Japan. You are the third sales executive to work in Tokyo. You need to make sure that the default currency for account recorded you create is set to Japanese Yen. 

What should you do to achieve this task?

A. Access Set Personal Options and select default currency. Set it to Japanese Yen
B. Create a new Profile and select default currency. Set it to Japanese Yen
C. Choose convert the currency. And set the parameters to convert Euro to Japanese Yen
D. Open each case and edit it. Change the default currency to Japanese Yen
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
To make sure that the default currency for account recorded is set to Japanese Yen, you need to access Set Personal Options and select default currency. Then, set it to Japanese Yen. Access your account and select options. Select the default currency. This way every sales you make will be in Japanese Yen. Your personal account will depute the default currency and it will be shown in the opportunities, cases, accounts and sales you create.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition
Section 3: Customer-Centered View (0 Questions)
Section 4: Using Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Microsoft Office Outlook (3 Questions)

Question 10.
You want to synchronize data between Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 and Microsoft Outlook.

Which of the following records can be synchronized? (Choose two or more answers)

A. Contacts
B. Customer emails
C. Tasks
D. Customer accounts
E. Receipts
 
Answer: A, C

Explanation:
Contacts and Tasks are the only items that can be synchronized between Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0 and Microsoft Outlook. Outlook can synchronize any Task, Phone Call, Letter, or Fax that you are the owner of, as well as Appointments for which you're listed as an attendee. Contacts are a little trickier: Only the Contacts that you've specified in the Local Data settings are synchronized. You can navigate to the Local Data settings by clicking Local Data or by navigating to CRM, Modify Local Data Groups from the Outlook client. By default, Local Data synchronizes only Contacts for which you are listed as the owner. This prevents problems when organizations have a huge number of Contacts from all of them synchronizing with Outlook. However, if you want to have every Contact in the organization, or if you want to have all of your Contacts as well as all the Contacts your employees own, you can dynamically set that value here.

Reference: 
Working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM 4.0, Second Edition



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Braindumps for "NR0-017" Exam

Teradata Masters Update V2R5

 Question 1.
Which two attributes are copied for a CREATE TABLE from a subquery to the table being created? (Choose two.)

A. data types
B. FALLBACK option
C. column-level attributes
D. primary index
E. CHECK constraints

Answer: A, C

Question 2.
Which three features are associated with join indexes? (Choose three.)

A. a pre-aggregation of a single base table
B. the pre-join of multiple tables using INNER JOIN
C. the pre-join of multiple tables using FULL OUTER JOIN
D. a replicated subset of a single base table

Answer: A, B, D

Question 3.
You want to generate three mutually exclusive sample sets from a customer table.
SELECT customer_id, age, income, SAMPLEID
FROM customer_table

Which clause needs to be added to complete the task?

A. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 ;
B. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10, .05 WITH REPLACEMENT ;
C. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 ;
D. SAMPLE .6, .25, .10 WITH REPLACEMENT ;

Answer: C

Question 4.
Consider the table t1 created as follows:
CREATE TABLE t1 (
a integer,
d date,
v varchar(100))
PRIMARY INDEX (a)
PARTITION BY RANGE_N(d BETWEEN
DATE '2001-01-01' AND DATE '2005-12-31'
EACH INTERVAL '7' DAY); and the query:
SELECT v FROM t1 WHERE d = DATE '2004-03-16';

Which plan does the Optimizer use to find qualifying rows?

A. full table scan on a single AMP
B. single partition scan on every AMP
C. value lookup on every AMP
D. hash lookup on each AMP
E. single partition scan on a single AMP

Answer: B

Question 5.
If neither RANGE_N nor CASE_N are used to define the number of partitions, how many partitions will the Optimizer assume?

A. 255
B. 0
C. 32767
D. 1
E. 65535

Answer: E

Question 6.
Which two statements are true concerning parameters within a stored procedure? (Choose two.)

A. Parameters and their attributes are always stored in the Data Dictionary.
B. Parameters can be used to build a dynamic SQL statement.
C. Parameters can be altered using the FORMAT clause.
D. Parameters can include status variables such as ACTIVITY_COUNT.

Answer: A, B

Question 7.
Which two tools can be used to alter database objects to improve workload performance? (Choose two.)

A. Teradata System Emulation Tool (TSET)
B. Teradata Visual Explain
C. Teradata Statistics Wizard
D. Teradata Index Wizard

Answer: C, D

Question 8.
Which three are attributes of an Active Data Warehouse? (Choose three.)

A. high availability
B. tactical queries
C. complex queries
D. expanding batch windows

Answer: A, B, C

Question 9.
Which join plan makes use of a primary index on each of two tables with matching partitioned primary indexes (PPIs)?

A. rowkey-based merge
B. nested
C. exclusion merge
D. rowhash merge

Answer: A

Question 10.
You are evaluating the possible use of a hash index on a multi-terabyte table. 

Which two factors complicate the implementation of a hash index on such a table? (Choose two.)

A. A partitioned primary index (PPI) is defined on the table.
B. A large number of users access the table.
C. Triggers are defined on the table.
D. The maintenance job for the table is MultiLoad.

Answer: C, D



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Braindumps for "220-701" Exam

A+ Essentials

 Question 1.
Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and Trojans?

A. Spam Blocker
B. Antivirus
C. Anti Spyware
D. Anti Adware

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 2.
An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to trouble shoot the issue?

A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory.
B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output.
C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer.
D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Question 3.
Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email?

A. SFTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. POP3

Answer: D

Explanation:

Question 4.
On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader?

A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices
B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices
C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices
D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 5.
A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. 

Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults?

A. Anti-static wrist straps
B. Compressed air
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Operating system rescue disk

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 6.
Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when installing RAM?

A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components
B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post
C. Wearing a grounded wristband
D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 7.
Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD?

A. Celeron
B. Athlon
C. Pentium
D. Core 2 Quad

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 8.
A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be stopping after POST. 

Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem?

A. Format the external USB hare drive.
B. Turn off the external monitor
C. Disconnect the external monitor
D. Remove and reset the laptop battery

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 9.
A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the system and video drivers need to be upgraded. 

Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers?

A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website
B. The manufacturer’s website
C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List
D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 10.
A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. 

Which of the following is problem?

A. The technician is not in administrator mode.
B. System restore is turned off.
C. System 32 folder has been removed.
D. System restore is not supported on the OS version.

Answer: B

Explanation:



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Braindumps for "220-702" Exam

Practical Application

 Question 1.
Which of these are symptoms of malware on a computer? (Select TWO).

A. Hard drive and network activity is higher when the computer is idle
B. CD-ROM ejects unexpectedly from the computer
C. Web browser accesses unexpected websites
D. Prints from the computer have random characters and symbols instead of text
E. The monitor has a permanent image burned into the display

Answer: A, C

Explanation:

Question 2.
Which of the following commands will map a shared network drive?

A. SFC
B. NSLOOKUP
C. NET USE
D. IPCONFIG

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 3.
A technician wants to copy the entire documents and settings folder and subfolders to a new computer. 

Which of the following commands should the technician use?

A. EDIT
B. XCOPY
C. COPY/A
D. MOVE

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 4.
A laptop reports the following RAM configuration. Assuming RAM is the same price per Mb, which of the following would be the least expensrve upgrade to the laptop to give it 12GB of RAM? 
Memory 3lots 2
DRAM Frequency 661.0 MHz
Memory Timings 9-9-9-24 (CL-RCD-RP-RA3)
Device Locator Slot 1
Capacity 4096 MBytes
Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700)
Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333)
Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz
EPP SPD Support No
XMP SPD Support No
Device Locator Slot 2
Capacity 2048 MBytes
Memory Type DDR3 (PC3-10700)
Speed 667 MHz (DDR3 1333)
Supported Frequencies 457.1 MHz, 533.3 MHz, 609.5 MHz, 685.7 MHz
EPP SPD Support No
XMP SPD Support No

A. Two 6Gb DDR3 PC 10700 RAM modules
B. One 10Gb DDR3 PC10700 RAM module
C. One 8Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module
D. One 6Gb DDR3 PC12800 RAM module

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 5.
A SOHO user has just installed a new wireless router on the network. 

Which of the following is the FIRST thing the user should do to secure the router from unauthorized use?

A. Change the default administrator name and password
B. Update the firmware in all of the client computers
C. Setup MAC filtering to limit the devices that can connect
D. Determine the DHCP range and any static exclusions

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 6.
Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to move a user' s documents and file settings, when upgrading the user from a Windows Vista computer to a Windows 7 computer?

A. Easy Transfer
B. Backup and Restore
C. XCOPY
D. System Restore

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 7.
User profiles in Windows 7 are stored in which of the following locations?

A. C:\UserProfiles
B. C:\DocumentsandSettings\UserProfiles
C. C:\Documents and Settings
D. C:\Users

Answer: D

Explanation:

Question 8.
After a video card upgrade nothing is displayed on the LCD screen. 

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A. The new video card has to be first installed using the Services MMC.
B. The onboard video of the motherboard is still enabled in the BIOS.
C. New video cards require new monitors as their resolutions do not match
D. The new video card has to be enabled by a DIP switch on the motherboard.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 9.
Which of the following multimeter settings should only be used when there is no electrical flow through the part being tested? (Select TWO).

A. Ampere
B. Continuity
C. volt
D. Resistance
E. Wattage

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

Question 10.
Which of the following commands would be used to map a network drive?

A. MD
B. SFC
C. IPCONFIG
D. NET

Answer: D

Explanation:



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Braindumps for "225-030" Exam

CDIA+ Certification Exam

 Question 1.
A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. 

Which of the following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?

A. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Watermarking
D. Checksumming

Answer: B

Question 2.
What key roles are performed by the Project Manager?

A. Manage goals, company expectations, staffing and equipment needs, and costs
B. Secure funding, write proposals, and manage departmental priorities
C. Manage and maintain image quality control and production goals
D. Manage and ensure that the imaging process is documented and that costs are contained

Answer: A

Question 3.
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. 

What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A. Tracking capability
B. Records management
C. Scan-to-folder
D. Error handling

Answer: A

Question 4.
A customers current document security model provides access to paper documents based upon job definition. Employees change jobs periodically based upon skills and business needs. An electronic system would need to implement:

A. role-based security.
B. user privilege sets.
C. modifiable document classification models.
D. user group security.

Answer: A

Question 5.
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A. Resolution, compression, and memory
B. Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
C. Documents, images, and storage medium
D. Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

Question 6.
A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. 

Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a document capture process.
D. The customer does not have a records management process.

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to obtain customer commitment for a document imaging project?

A. A series of white papers on the solution
B. Executive briefing with only senior management
C. Onsite demonstration with customers documents
D. Onsite demonstration with the consultants prepared documents

Answer: C

Question 8.
Currently, corporate headquarters maintains a central document repository with a Records Manager that maintains custody of these confidential documents. There are 18 branch locations connected via intranet with six new additional locations opening within the year. If a branch office needs confidential documents, an e-mail request is sent to the Records Manager who will then fax or overnight the documents to the branch locations. 

What would be the impact of implementing a web-based solution for end-users?

A. It would require extensive training on use and operation.
B. End-user productivity would dramatically increase.
C. The new system would be slower to receive desired information than the current system.
D. Most end-user computers would need to be upgraded to support a web-based solution.

Answer: B

Question 9.
A customer is printing large TIFF images. The method with the LEAST impact on network load is to decompress the image at the:

A. printer.
B. jukebox.
C. client workstation.
D. network server.

Answer: A

Question 10.
In order to allow for the encrypted access of documents over the web, the web server should support:

A. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
C. FTP.
D. XML.

Answer: B



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Braindumps for "350-060" Exam

CCIE SP Operations Written Exam v1.0

 Question 1. DRAG DROP
 

Answer:
 

Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?

A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Question 3. 
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?

A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?

A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment

Answer: E

Explanation: 

Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long. 

Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?

A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed

Answer: A

Explanation: 
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html

Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.

Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?

A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media 
    gateway

Answer: C

Explanation:  
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer

Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?

A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD

Answer: A

Explanation: 

Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?

A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are 
    Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any 
    NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally 
    defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are 
    standards-based

Answer: D

Explanation:  
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632

Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?

A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)

A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation: 


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Braindumps for "640-692" Exam

CCT Routing & Switching

 Question 1.
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?

A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 2.
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)

A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

Question 3.
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. 

Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)

A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7

Answer: A, C

Explanation:

Question 4.
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)

A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

Answer: A, D

Explanation:

Question 5.
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:

Question 6.
Which of the following is a DTE device?

A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 7.
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)

A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.

Answer: B, D

Explanation:

Question 8.
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?

A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 9.
Refer to the exhibit.
 

Which type of cable us used on the ATM card?

A. Fiber-optic BNC
B. Coaxial
C. Serial
D. Crossover

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 10.
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

Answer: A, B

Explanation:


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