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Ok folks, just passed the 70-176 exam with a 720... All questions are from the dumps posted here, but read up on them as some of the answers are wrong.... Good luck to all
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Question 1.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.
The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys-DB01 also hosts two financial applications. You need to optimize the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and increase the performance of the two financial applications. You need to modify the SQL Server configuration to accomplish this goal.
What should you do?
A. Configure the max worker threads server option.
B. Configure the min memory per query server option.
C. Configure the max server memory server option.
D. Configure the min server memory server option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum amount of system memory that SQL Server 2005 is allowed to consume. Setting this option will ensure that the SQL Server 2005 does not consume all the available memory and can be used to ensure that sufficient memory is remains available for the other applications to run.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that are used to supported users connected to SQL Server. This does not assist in optimizing performance for other applications.
B: The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent queries but it does not assist in optimizing performance for other applications.
D: The min server memory option is used to ensure that SQL Server 2005 does not release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory but it will not ensure that the other applications have sufficient memory.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option
Question 2.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.
The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys-DB01 also hosts two financial applications. Several ITCertKeys.com users in the Sales department complain that queries against the ITK_Sales database perform very poorly at times. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of by using ITCertKeys-DB01 and discover that SQL Server 2005 does not have sufficient memory to run efficiently. You need to ensure that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory to run efficiently.
What should you do?
A. Decrease the min memory per query server option.
B. Increase the min server memory server option.
C. Increase the max worker threads server option.
D. Decrease the max server memory server option.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The min server memory option is used to ensure that SQL Server 2005 does not release memory below the min server memory value once it is reached. This ensures that SQL Server 2005 always has sufficient memory. By default, min server memory is set to 0.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The min memory per query option is used to specify the minimum amount of memory that is allocated to the execution of a query. This is useful if there are several concurrent queries. Decreasing this option will increase the possibility that the SQL Server 2005 will perform poorly.
C: The max worker threads option is used to specify the number of processor threads that are used to supported users connected to SQL Server. Increasing this option will not address the memory problem.
D: The max server memory option is used to specify the maximum amount of system memory that SQL Server 2005 is allowed to consume. Decreasing this option will increase the possibility that the SQL Server 2005 will perform poorly.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min server memory option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: min memory per query option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max worker threads option
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
Question 3.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. The tables in the ITK_Sales database are shown in the following database diagram.
The recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several ITCertKeys.com users complaining of timeouts when they try to retrieve sales orders from the ITK_Sales database. You need to determine whether partitioning the Orders table would improve database performance.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose TWO.)
A. Run Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
B. Create a performance log file to monitor SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec.
C. Run SQL Server Profiler to replay the trace file and the log file.
D. Use the SQL Server Profiler Tuning template to create a trace file.
E. Create a performance log file to monitor Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to determine whether indexing and partitioning of a table would improve database performance. The Database Engine Tuning Advisor analyzes a workload file that you can create by running SQL Server Profiler and creating a trace based on the SQL Server Profiler Tuning template.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec counter is used to monitor the read activity on an instance of SQL Server. It does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
C: You can use the SQL Server Profiler to analyze a trace file and a log file to determine which queries are causing excessive resource utilization. However, this information does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
E: The Logical Disk: Disk Read Bytes/sec counter is used to monitor the read activity on a logical disk. It does not help you determine whether partitioning a table will improve database performance.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: SQL Server Profiler
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: performance counters [SQL Server]
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: max server memory option
Question 4.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named
ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. The tables in the ITK_Sales database are shown in the following database diagram.
Several ITCertKeys.com users start complaining of slow response time when they run queries against the ITK_Sales database. You run the sys.dm_os_schedulers view on ITCertKeys-DB01 and discover that the runnable_tasks_count is consistently at or above ten. You run System Monitor on ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit.
You need to improve database performance.
What should you do?
A. Increase the Random Access Memory (RAM).
B. Add an additional processor.
C. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
D. Use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to suggest new indexes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that the processor is often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is causing a bottleneck. Adding an additional processor to the system will improve overall system performance.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Memory:Avg. Disk Queue Length counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates that the RAM is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, adding additional RAM to the system will not improve overall system performance.
C: The PhysicalDisk:Pages/sec counter in the exhibit is low. This indicates that the disk subsystem is not causing a bottleneck. Therefore, upgrading the disk subsystem will not improve overall system performance.
D: The Processor:% Processor Time counter in the exhibit indicates that the processor is often running at over 80%. This indicates that the processor is causing a bottleneck. Indexing the tables will not reduce the load on the processor and will not improve overall system performance.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [SQL Server], monitoring
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]
Question 5.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. You use a client computer named ITCertKeys-WS444. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Products. The recent increase in database usage at the company has resulted in several ITCertKeys.com users complaining of poor query performance and query timeouts try to retrieve data from the ITK_Products database. You need to determine the cause of the poor performance. You need to minimize the effect of your monitoring strategy on system performance.
What should you do?
A. Run the SQL Server Profiler from ITCertKeys-WS444 and create a trace that monitors
ITCertKeys-DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
B. Run the Performance tool on ITCertKeys-DB01 to create a log that monitors ITCertKeys –
DB01. Save the log file to a folder on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Run the SQL Server Profiler on ITCertKeys-DB01 and create a trace that monitors ITCertKeys
-DB01. Save the trace file to a table.
D. Run the Performance tool on ITCertKeys-WS444 to create a log that monitors ITCertKeys –
DB01. Save the log file to a folder on ITCertKeys-WS444.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can use the Windows Performance tool on a client computer to monitor system performance on the database server without negatively affecting the performance of the database server. You can use the Windows Performance tool to create a log on the client computer that you can analyze to determine the cause of a resource bottleneck.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: SQL Server Profiler is used to trace SQL Server events. It is not used to troubleshoot resource bottlenecks.
B: You should run the Windows Performance tool from you client computer and save the log file to your computer. This will reduce the impact of monitoring on the database server.
Reference:
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: CPU [SQL Server], monitoring
Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Books Online (2007), Index: Database Engine Tuning Advisor [SQL Server]
Question 6.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 is running a default SQL Server instance and a named instance named ITK_Sales. ITCertKeys.com users complain that performance for both instances has deteriorated over the last six months. You want to determine the memory and processor resource requirements of the two instances as well as any resource conflicts between the two instances.
What should you do?
A. Use SQL Server Profiler to create a trace and capture typical activity for each instance with
both instances running.
B. Use Windows Performance to create counter log that captures performance counters for each
instance with both instances running.
C. Use Windows Performance to create counter log that captures performance counters for each
instance separately with each instance running on its own.
D. Use SQL Server Profiler to create a trace and capture typical activity for each instance
separately with each instance running on its own.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use the Windows Performance to monitor system performance on the database server but you must capture the counters with both instances running at the same time to collect accurate data.
Incorrect Answers:
A, D: SQL Server Profiler is used to trace SQL Server events. It is not used to troubleshoot memory and processor resource bottlenecks.
C: Multiple SQL Server instances share system resources and interact with each other; therefore you must capture the counters with both instances running at the same time to collect accurate data.
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server2003. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 on a server named ITCertKeys-DB01. ITCertKeys-DB01 has five 120 GB hard disk drives. Two of the hard disks are configured as a mirrored volume that contains the operating system. The other three hard disks are configured as a RAID-5 volume. All database files are located on the RAID-5 volume while the transaction log files are located on the mirrored volume. ITCertKeys-DB01 is running a default SQL Server instance and a named instance named ITK_DB. The default instance hosts an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) database named ITK_Sales while the named instance hosts historical data used for reporting. ITCertKeys.com users complain that database performance is deteriorating. You suspect that a disk problem might be causing the bottleneck. You want to determine which SQL Server instance is using the most disk time.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate performance counters that you should monitor in the left pane and drag them to the right pane.)
Answer:
Explanation:
The SQL Server:Buffer Manager object is used to monitor resource usage for each SQL Server instance. You need to monitor the SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page reads/sec counter to determine the number of page reads performed by each instance and the SQL Server:Buffer Manager:Page writes/sec counter to determine the number of page writes performed by each instance.
Incorrect Answers:
The Logical Disk:Disk Write Bytes/sec and Logical Disk:Disk Read Bytes/sec counters can be used to monitor the total number of disk reads or writes per second for a volume. Neither can be used to determine instance is using the most disk time. The PhysicalDisk counters can be used to monitor a RAID volume but this cannot used to determine instance is using the most disk time.
Question 8.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that hosts a database named ITK_Sales. The ITK_Sales database stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database has deteriorated over the last few weeks. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit.
You also notice that the ratio of SQL Recompilations/sec to Batch Requests/sec is unusually high. You suspect that the number of recompiles is causing the high processor time value. You need to improve the performance of the ITK_Sales database.
What should you do?
A. Turn off automatic updates of statistics for all tables in the ITK_Sales database.
B. Install an additional processor on ITCertKeys-DB01.
C. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
D. Use SQL Server Profiler to identify the stored procedures being recompiled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can use SQL Server Profiler to identify the stored procedures that are being recompiled. SQL Profiler will indicate which stored procedures are being recompiled and why each recompilation is occurring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Turning off automatic updates of statistics for the tables may improve performance but it does not address the problem caused by the recompiles.
B: The high processor usage could be caused by the high number of recompiles. You should first reduce the number of recompiles before installing extra hardware on the server.
C: You can use the Database Engine Tuning Advisor to determine whether indexing and partitioning of a table would improve database performance but you cannot use it to identify which stored procedures are being recompiled.
Question 9.
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that has a single 120 GB hard disk, 1 GB of random access memory (RAM), and has a single 2.8 GHz Pentium 4 processor. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database has deteriorated over the last six months. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 and receive the output as shown in the exhibit.
You need to improve server performance.
What should you do?
A. Add an additional processor.
B. Add more Random Access Memory (RAM).
C. Upgrade the disk subsystem.
D. Install a second hard disk and split data between the disks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A value of 62.8 for the SQL Server: Buffer Manager: Buffer Cache Hit Ratio counter indicates that the system requires more RAM. This counter should be above 90. A lower value indicates that you need more RAM.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A value of 43.8% for the Processor:% Processor Time and System:%Total Processor Time counters are well below the 80% threshold that indicates a processor problem.
C, D: A value of 1.4 for the PhysicalDisk:Avg. Disk Queue Length is close to indicating a bottleneck, but this is probably caused by insufficient memory than by hard disk performance. Disk activity is likely to drop when you add more memory.
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You work as the database administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a SQL Server 2005 database server named ITCertKeys-DB01 that has a RAID-5 disk array, 2 GB of random access memory (RAM), and has a single 3.2 GHz Xeon processor. ITCertKeys-DB01 hosts a database named ITK_Sales that stores sales data for the company. ITCertKeys.com users complain that the performance of the ITK_Sales database becomes sluggish at certain times of the day. You use System Monitor to monitor the performance of ITCertKeys-DB01 during a typical day and compare them to baseline results collected shortly after the database was deployed. You identify times during the day when the hardware resources on ITCertKeys-DB01 become a performance bottleneck. You need to determine which database activities are causing the hardware bottlenecks. You want to accomplish this using minimal amount of administrator effort and do not want to consume any more system resources than necessary.
What should you do? (To answers, select the appropriate actions from the pane on the left and place them in the pane on the right.)
Answer:
Explanation:
You should capture a SQL Profiler trace and Windows counter log over the same time period. You can open the trace in SQL Server Profiler and the counter log in the Windows Performance utility at the same time and compare the two.
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Question 1. Under JDBC, you can move the cursor within the resultset to a particular specified row using which of the following methods? A. absolute B. jump C. goto D. moveto E. nextset Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: You can move the cursor to a particular row in a ResultSet object. The methods first, last, beforeFirst, and afterLast move the cursor to the position their names indicate. The method absolute will move the cursor to the row number indicated in the argument passed to it. If the number is positive, the cursor moves the given number from the beginning, so calling absolute(1. puts the cursor on the first row. If the number is negative, the cursor moves the given number from the end, so calling absolute(-1. puts the cursor on the last row. Question 2. You are the database specialist of your company. You are managing the in-house database systems. With JDBC, you want to make updates to a ResultSet object. To do so, what must you supply to the ResultSet object? A. CONCUR_UPDATABLE B. UPDATABLE C. CONCUR D. CONCUR_RESULT E. RESULT_UPDATABLE Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Before you can make updates to a ResultSet object, you need to create one that is updatable. In order to do this, you supply the ResultSet constant CONCUR_UPDATABLE to the createStatement method. The Statement object that is created will produce an updatable ResultSet object each time it executes a query. Question 3. Under JDBC, what object represents the DBMS that supplies you with all the company SALES data? A. DataSource B. FileSource C. DSN D. ResultSource E. DataOrigin Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: A DataSource object represents a particular DBMS or some other data source, such as a file. If a company uses more than one data source, it will deploy a separate DataSource object for each of them. A DataSource object may be implemented in three different ways: A basic DataSource implementation-produces standard Connection objects that are not pooled or used in a distributed transaction A DataSource class that supports connection pooling-produces Connection objects that participate in connection pooling, that is, connections that can be recycled A DataSource class that supports distributed transactions-produces Connection objects that can be used in a distributed transaction, that is, a transaction that accesses two or more DBMS servers Question 4. In JDBC, what class allows the use of HTTP to talk to a Java servlet that provides data access? A. A CachedRowSet class B. A JDBCRowSet class C. A WebRowSet class D. A JavaSource class E. AHTTPRowSet class F. A JavaDb class Answer: C Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Although anyone can implement a rowset, most implementations will probably be provided by vendors offering RowSet classes designed for fairly specific purposes. To make writing an implementation easier, the JavaTM Software division of Sun Microsystems, Inc., plans to provide reference implementations for three different styles of rowsets in the future. The following list of planned implementations gives you an idea of some of the possibilities. A CachedRowSet class-a disconnected rowset that caches its data in memory; not suitable for very large data sets, but an ideal way to provide thin Java clients, such as a Personal Digital Assistant (PD A. or Network Computer (NC., with tabular data A JDBCRowSet class-a connected rowset that serves mainly as a thin wrapper around a ResultSet object to make a JDBC driver look like a JavaBeans component A WebRowSet class-a connected rowset that uses the HTTP protocol internally to talk to a Java servlet that provides data access; used to make it possible for thin web clients to retrieve and possibly update a set of rows Question 5. To properly handle SQLException under JDBC, you must use: A. a try/catch block B. a Exception pointer C. the Err object D. the error table E. the master error dictionary Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Many of the methods in the java.sql package throw an SQLException , which requires a try/catch block like any other Exception. Its purpose is to describe database or driver errors (SQL syntax, for example.. In addition to the standard getMessage(. inherited from Throwable, SQLException has two methods which provide further information, a method to get (or chain. additional exceptions and a method to set an additional exception Question 6. Which of the following are the valid methods for handling SQL exceptions generated in JDBC (Choose all that apply.? A. getSQLState(. B. getErrorCode(. C. getNextException(. D. setNextException(. Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: getSQLState(. returns an QLState identifier based on the X/Open SQL specification. Your DBMS manuals should list some of these or see Resources for information to find SQLStates. getErrorCode(. is provided to retrieve the vendor-specific error code. getNextException(. retrieves the next SQLException or null if there are no more. Many things can go wrong between your program and the database. This method allows tracking all problems that occur. setNextException(. allows the programmer to add an SQLException to the chain. Question 7. You are the database specialist of your company. You are managing the in-house database systems. In your JDBC application you want to provide warnings to users without terminating the operations. Which of the following classes may you use? A. SQLWarning B. SQLNotice C. SQLError D. SQLInform E. SQLWarns Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: An SQLWarning is a subclass of SQLException, but is not thrown like other exceptions. The programmer must specifically ask for warnings. Connections, Statements, and ResultSets all have a getWarnings(. method that allows retrieval. There is also a clearWarnings(. method to avoid duplicate retrievals. The SQLWarning class itself only adds the methods getNextWarning(. And setNextWarning(.. An SQLWarning is very similar to traditional compiler warnings: something not exactly right occurred, but its effect was not severe enough to end processing. Whether it is important enough to investigate depends on the operation and context. Question 8. Under JDBC, which of the following are the responsibilities of the Connection object (Choose all that apply.? A. Creating Statement instances. B. Obtaining DatabaseMetadata objects. C. Controlling transactions D. Setting isolation levels Answer: A, B, C, D Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: The Connection itself is responsible for several areas including: Creating Statement, PreparedStatement, and CallableStatement (used with stored procedures. instances. Obtaining DatabaseMetadata objects. Controlling transactions via the commit(. and rollback(. methods. Setting the isolation level involved in transactions. Question 9. In JDBC, what function returns an int containing the affected row count for INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE statements? A. executeUpdate(. B. execute(. C. Update(. D. runUpdate(. E. SQLUpdate(. Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: executeUpdate(. returns an int containing the affected row count for INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE statements, or zero for SQL statements that do not return anything, like DDL statements. Question 10. Mix and match question:SQL Type Java Method FLOAT INTEGER LONGVARBINARY LONGVARCHAR NUMERIC OTHER Java Method getDouble(. getInt(. getBytes(. getString(. getBigDecimal(. getObject(. Match the Java methods to the corresponding SQL data types: A. SQL Type Java Method FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. B. SQL Type Java Method LONGVARBINARY getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. FLOAT getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. C. SQL Type Java Method NUMERIC getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. FLOAT getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. D. SQL Type Java Method FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARCHAR getBytes(. LONGVARBINARY getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. Answer: A Explanation: According to the online Java tutorial provided by Sun at java.sun.com: Memorize the list below:SQL Type Java Method BIGINT getLong(. BINARY getBytes(. BIT getBoolean(. CHAR getString(. DATE getDate(. DECIMAL getBigDecimal(. DOUBLE getDouble(. FLOAT getDouble(. INTEGER getInt(. LONGVARBINARY getBytes(. LONGVARCHAR getString(. NUMERIC getBigDecimal(. OTHER getObject(. REAL getFloat(. SMALLINT getShort(. TIME getTime(. TIMESTAMP getTimestamp(. TINYINT getByte(. VARBINARY getBytes(. VARCHAR getString(.
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Question 1.
Which two are switching fabric features/functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch fabric is hot-swappable, load-balancing fabric
B. The master switch fabric must be in slot #1
C. Redundant switch fabric remains in standby mode unless the master switch fabric fails
D. The master switch fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire chassis
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. All of the above
D. Large enterprise distribution layer
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two queuing features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. The switch only supports Strict Priority (SP) queuing
B. Eight output queues per port
C. The switch supports multiple queuing algorithms (i.e., Strict Priority (SP) queuing, Weighted
Random Early Discard)
D. QoS policies are based on Layer 2 packet information only
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
Which two are Quality of Service (QoS) features of the Switch 5500 family? (Choose two.)
A. Eight hardware queues per switch
B. Eight hardware queues per port
C. Configurable queue processing
D. Queue priority is based only on FirstIn First Out (FIFO) algorithm
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Which two describe the attributes of the Switch 8800 switch fabrics? (Choose two.)
A. Upon failover, the slave switch fabric must learn and rebuild all routing tables
B. Switch must be powered off to replace a switch fabric
C. The slave switch fabric provides active, load-balancing data switching
D. Switch fabric load balancing is enabled by the user
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.
Answer:
Question 7.
Which three application-availability techniques should be used to ensure high network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Protect resources with network security
B. Enforce techniques primarily at the network core
C. Block rogue applications
D. Identify and prioritize mission-critical applications
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: "An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which two are benefits of the Switch 5500 XRN Distributed Device Management (DDM) support? (Choose two.)
A. Supports up to 12 switches in a single stack
B. All switches within a stack act as a single logical device
C. Resilient XRN architecture provides management access if any switch fails in a stack
D. Creates a 12Gbps full-duplex link between switches
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A. Switch 5500G-EI
B. All of the above
C. Switch 5500-EI
D. Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A
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Question 1.
You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO version
or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B
Question 2.
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Internal_clear>- All_GwToGw
B. Communities >- Communities
C. Internal_clear>- External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>- Communitis
E. Internal_clear>-All_communitis
Answer: E
Question 3.
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line.
What happens to the user? The....
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username and password
for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.
Answer: B
Question 4.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line.
What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and password
for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B
Question 5.
You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55 Gateway to SecurePlalform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.
Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VPN-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlalform NGX R60
D. SVN Foundation
E. VPN-1 ProfExpress NGX R60
Answer: C
Explanation:
SecurePlatform Upgrade
An IBM e305 server is configured as a SecurePlatform firewall with NG-AI HFA- 12. A new VPN-1 Pro/Express Gateway object is created in SmartDashboard. SIC is initialized and NG and NGX licenses are attached to the module.The starting point for the upgrade is illustrated in Figure 13.16.
Figure 13.16 The Package Management View SecurePlatform Pre-Upgrade
The next step is to add the SecurePlatform NGX to the Package Repository using the Add Package From CD option. Insert NGX CD1 containing the SmartUpdate client and click the Add Package From CD button in the toolbar to open a browse window. Select the appropriate drive and the packages are listed as displayed in Figure 13.17. p480, Configuring Check Point NGX VPN-1/FireWall-1, Syngress, 1597490318
Question 6.
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway ITCertKeys from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print ITCertKeys
B. fw licprint ITCertKeys
C. fw tab -t fwlic ITCertKeys
D. cplic print ITCertKeys
E. fw lic print ITCertKeys
Answer: D
Explanation:
cplic print - prints details of Check Point licenses on the local machine. On a Module, this command will print all licenses that are installed on the local machine - both Local and Central licenses.
P456, .
NG COMMAND LINE INTERFACE
Advanced Technical Reference Guide - NG FP3
Question 7.
You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal network can access your partners network, and vice versa . Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All traffic among your internal and partner networks is sent in clear text.
How do you configure VPN Community?
A. Disable 'accept all encrypted traffic', and put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the
Community object Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with the
Community object in the VPN field
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and http services to the
Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the
Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy with services FTP and http, and the Community
object in theVPN field
D. Put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the Community object Then add a rule in the
Security Policy to allow any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN field
Answer: B
Question 8.
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via a text message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule.
Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A
Question 9.
You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a Check Point QoS rule.
What causes the Connection Rejection?
A. No QoS rule exists to match the rejected traffic
B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule's action properties are not set to
accept additional connections
C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than 10%, and
the Maximal Delay is set below requirements
D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global packet
buffers
E. The guarantee of one of the rule's sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself
Answer: B
Explanation:
QoS rules with the track field set to Log can generate the following types of log events:
QoS rejects a connection when the number of guaranteed connections is exceeded, and/or when the rule's action properties are not set to accept additional connections. 359, accel_ccse_ngx
Question 10.
Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on Smart Dash board, for use with an LDAP server
A. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server, and
configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit
B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the LDAP
Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties
C. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and
create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global Properties, and
create an LDAP resource object
E. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource object
Answer: A
Explanation:
340, Check Point Security Administration NGX I Student Handbook
|
Question 1.
Which type of voice port will allow the gateway to terminate 23 or 30 circuits from the PSTN or a PBX?
A. FXO
B. FXS
C. PRI T1/E1
D. E&M
E. BRI
Answer: C
Question 2.
In which of the following scenarios would a Cisco switch supply PoE to an IP phone?
A. In any cases as long as the switch and IP phone are Cisco products.
B. If the Cisco switch supports prestandard PoE and the IP phone supports 802.3af.
C. If the Cisco switch and IP phone both support a common PoE method.
D. Only if both the switch and IP phone use 802.3af PoE.
Answer: C
Question 3.
The SBB Company is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. The company uses five-digit extensions and would like to be able to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO's home. The CEO's telephone number is 866-555-2222.
Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which Cisco Unified Communications layer is the call processing layer?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C
Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about SIP trunk are true? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk configuration is always needed for a UC500 device.
B. A SIP trunk is needed only to provide internet access for your data users.
C. SIP trunk configuration parameters should be provided to your service provider.
D. A SIP trunk is needed only if you are using voice mail to supply the Message Waiting Indicator
value to the Cisco Unity Express module.
E. A SIP trunk is needed only for voice if you are planning on using VoIP through a service
provider.
F. A SIP trunk is not supported in a keyswitch configuration.
Answer: E, F
Question 6.
A customer wants to use a signaling protocol on the voice gateways that require registration with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What protocol should be recommended?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. SRTP
D. MGCP
Answer: D
Question 7.
DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
After deploying a UC500 system, you receive a support call from a user reporting that callers are going straight to the operator instead of going to members of the hunt group.
Which two tabs have configuration parameters that are most likely going to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Device
B. System
C. Network
D. SIP Trunk
E. Voice Features
F. Dial Plan
Answer: E, F
Question 9.
What is the difference between voice VLAN and native VLAN?
A. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1P frames.
B. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames whereas native VLAN uses 802.1Q frames.
C. Voice VLAN uses tagged 802.1Q frames whereas native VLAN uses untagged frames.
D. Voice VLAN uses untagged frames only when no PCs are connected behind the phones
whereas native VLAN always uses untagged frames.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?
A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation.
What can you do to help pinpoint the problem?
A. Check for security alarms
B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device
configuration screen
C. View the SDI trace output
D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been
downloaded to the IP phone
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. Set preference to 1
B. Invoke a Tcl application
C. Enable dtmf-relay
D. Set codec to G.711
E. Disable DID
F. Disable VAD
Answer: B, C, F
Question 3.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
Answer: B
Question 4.
You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway.
What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue?
A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same time-stamp
B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to
C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked
D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node
with the same TCP handle
Answer: A
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully.
Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2?
A. Queue 2
B. Queue 3
C. Queue 1
D. Queue 4
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again.
Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The TON in incorrect
B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue
C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the
gateway
D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is
an internation call
E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls
Answer: A
Question 7.
You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors.
Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing?
A. Route Plan Report
B. Dial Plan Installer
C. Dialed Number Analyzer
D. RTMT Traces and Alarms
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have just obtained a list of the following options:
all patterns
unassigned DN
Call Park
Conference
Directory Number
Translation Pattern
Call pickup group
Route pattern
Message waiting
Voice mail
Attendant console
What have you selected in order to produce this list?
A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard
B. Control Center > Feature Services
C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report
D. Dialed Number Analyzer
Answer: C
Question 9.
You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings.
How does this change the trace output?
A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex
B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the
trace output
C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message
D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the
session
Answer: B
Question 10.
When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files?
A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output
B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page
and view the output with the RTMT plug-in
C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view
the preconfigured trace files
D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and
then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.
A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage.
Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?
A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?
A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: D
Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?
A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)
A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure.
What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?
A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements.
Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?
A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?
A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity
Answer: B
Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in
HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection
as asymmetric encryption
Answer: A, D
|
Question 1. DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 2.
Which of the following configurations requires the use of hierarchical policy maps?
A. the use of nested class-maps with class-based marking
B. the use of a strict priority-class queue within CBWFQ
C. the use of class-based WRED within a CBWFQ class queue
D. the use of CBWFQ inside class-based shaping
E. the use of both the bandwidth and shape statements within a CBWFQ class queue
Answer: D
Explanation:
Class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. By using CBWFQ, network managers can define traffic classes based on several match criteria, including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. A FIFO queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class. More than one IP flow, or "conversation", can belong to a class. Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, the characteristics can be assigned to the class. To characterize a class, assign the bandwidth and maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth given to the class during congestion. CBWFQ assigns a weight to each configured class instead of each flow. This weight is proportional to the bandwidth configured for each class. Weight is equal to the interface bandwidth divided by the class bandwidth. Therefore, a class with a higher bandwidth value will have a lower weight.
By default, the total amount of bandwidth allocated for all classes must not exceed 75 percent of the available bandwidth on the interface. The other 25 percent is used for control and routing traffic. The queue limit must also be specified for the class. The specification is the maximum number of packets allowed to accumulate in the queue for the class. Packets belonging to a class are subject to the bandwidth and queue limits that are configured for the class.
Question 3.
In a managed CE scenario, the customer's network is supporting VoIP and bulk file transfers.
According to the best practices, which QoS mechanisms should be applied on the WAN edge CEPE 56-kbps Frame Relay link on the CE outbound direction?
A. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
B. CBWFQ, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
C. WRR, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
D. WRR, FRTS, FRF.12, and CB-RTP header compression
E. LLQ, CB-WRED, CB-Policing, and CB-TCP and CB-RTP header compressions
F. CBWFQ, CB-WRED, CB-Marking, CB-Policing, and FRTS
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. WRED can be combined with CBWFQ. In this combination CBWFQ provides a guaranteed percentage of the output bandwidth, WRED ensures that TCP traffic is not sent faster than CBWFQ can forward it.
The abbreviated configuration below shows how WRED can be added to a policy-map specifying CBWFQ:
Router(config)# policy-map prioritybw Router(config-pmap)# class class-default fair-queue
Router(config-pmap-c)# class prioritytraffic bandwidth percent 40 random-detect
The random-detect parameter specifies that WRED will be used rather than the default tail-drop action.
2. The LLQ feature brings strict Priority Queuing (PQ) to CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay-sensitive data such as voice to be sent before packets in other queues are sent. Without LLQ, CBWFQ provides WFQ based on defined classes with no strict priority queue available for real-time traffic. For CBWFQ, the weight for a packet belonging to a specific class is derived from the bandwidth assigned to the class. Therefore, the bandwidth assigned to the packets of a class determines the order in which packets are sent. All packets are serviced fairly based on weight and no class of packets may be granted strict priority. This scheme poses problems for voice traffic that is largely intolerant of delay, especially variation in delay. For voice traffic, variations in delay introduce irregularities of transmission manifesting as jitter in the heard conversation. LLQ provides strict priority queuing for CBWFQ, reducing jitter in voice conversations.
LLQ enables the use of a single, strict priority queue within CBWFQ at the class level. Any class can be made a priority queue by adding the priority keyword. Within a policy map, one or more classes can be given priority status. When multiple classes within a single policy map are configured as priority classes, all traffic from these classes is sent to the same, single, strict priority queue.
Although it is possible to queue various types of real-time traffic to the strict priority queue, it is strongly recommend that only voice traffic be sent to it because voice traffic is well-behaved, whereas other types of real-time traffic are not. Moreover, voice traffic requires that delay be nonvariable in order to avoid jitter. Real-time traffic such as video could introduce variation in delay, thereby thwarting the steadiness of delay required for successful voice traffic transmission.
When the priority command is specified for a class, it takes a bandwidth argument that gives maximum bandwidth in kbps. This parameter specifies the maximum amount of bandwidth allocated for packets belonging to the class configured. The bandwidth parameter both guarantees bandwidth to the priority class and restrains the flow of packets from the priority class. In the event of congestion, policing is used to drop packets when the bandwidth is exceeded. Voice traffic queued to the priority queue is UDP-based and therefore not adaptive to the early packet drop characteristic of WRED. Because WRED is ineffective, the WRED random-detect command cannot be used with the priority command. In addition, because policing is used to drop packets and a queue limit is not imposed, the queue-limit command cannot be used with the priority command.
Question 4.
Refer to the partial router configuration. Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Regardless of destination IP address, all traffic sent to Mac address 1.2.3 will be subject to
policing
B. All traffic from a server with the IP address of 147.23.54.21 will be subject to policing.
C. Any IP packet will be subject to policing.
D. The class-map class1 command will set the qos-group value to 4 for all IP packets.
E. Only those packets which satisfy all of the matches in class1 and class2 will be subject to
policing.
F. The configuration is invalid since it refers to a class map within a different class.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
The class-map command is used to define a traffic class. The purpose of a traffic class is to classify traffic that should be given a particular QoS. A traffic class contains three major elements, a name, a series of match commands, and if more than one match command exists in the traffic class, an instruction on how to evaluate these match commands. The traffic class is named in the class-map command line. For example, if the class-map cisco command is entered while configuring the traffic class in the CLI, the traffic class would be named cisco.
Switch(config)# class-map cisco Switch(config-cmap)#
match commands are used to specify various criteria for classifying packets. Packets are checked to determine whether they match the criteria specified in the match commands. If a packet matches the specified criteria, that packet is considered a member of the class and is forwarded according to the QoS specifications set in the traffic policy. Packets that fail to meet any of the matching criteria are classified as members of the default traffic class and will be subject to a separate traffic policy
The policy-map command is used to create a traffic policy. The purpose of a traffic policy is to configure the QoS features that should be associated with the traffic that has been classified in a user-specified traffic class. A traffic policy contains three elements: Policy Name Traffic class specified with the class command QoS policies to be applied to each class The policy-map shown below creates a traffic policy named policy1. The policy applies to all traffic classified by the previously defined traffic-class "cisco" and specifies that traffic in this example should be allocated bandwidth of 3000 kbps. Any traffic which does not belong to the class "cisco" forms part of the catch-all class-default class and will be given a default bandwidth of 2000 kbps. Switch(config)# policy-map policy1 Switch(config-pmap)# class cisco Switch(config-pmap-c)#
bandwidth 3000 Switch(config-pmap-c)# exit Switch(config-pmap)# class class-default
Switch(config-pmap-c)# bandwidth 2000 Switch(config-pmap)# exit
Question 5.
In an unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
B. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
C. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
D. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an unmanaged Router Implementation, Service provider can enforce SLA By using class based policy on the CE to PE link to limit the customer's input rate.
Question 6.
When configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch to accommodate an IP phone with an attached PC, it is desired that the trust boundary be set between the IP phone and the switch.
Which two commands on the switch are recommended to set the trust boundary as described? (Choose two.)
A. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
B. switchport priority extend trust
C. mls qos trust cos
D. no mls qos trust dscp
E. mls qos trust extend [cos value]
F. mls qos cos 5
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
mls qos trust [ cos ] :
B y default, the port is not trusted. All traffic is sent through one egress queue. Use the cos keyword to classify ingress packets with the packet CoS values. The egress queue assigned to the packet is based on the packet CoS value. When this keyword is entered, the traffic is sent through the four QoS queues. Normally, the QoS information from a PC connected to an IP Phone should not be trusted. This is because the PC's applications might try to spoof CoS or Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) settings to gain premium network service. In this case, use the cos keyword so that the CoS bits are overwritten to value by the IP Phone as packets are forwarded to the switch. If CoS values from the PC cannot be trusted, they should be overwritten to a value of 0.
Question 7.
According to the best practices, in a service provider network, which statement is true as related to the QoS policy that should be implemented on the inbound provider (P) to provider (P) router link?
A. In the DiffServ model, all ingress and egress QoS processing are done at the network edge
(for example, PE router), so no input or output QoS policy will be needed on the P to P link.
B. Class-based marking should be implemented because it will be needed for the class-based
queuing that will be used on the P router output.
C. Traffic policing should be implemented to rate-limit the ingress traffic into the P router.
D. Because traffic should have already been policed and marked on the upstream ingress PE
router, no input QoS policy is needed on the P to P link.
Answer: D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
Drop
Answer:
Question 9. HOTSPOT
HOTSPOT
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 10.
A Frame Relay interface has been configured for adaptive shaping with a minimum rate of 15 kbps. The current maximum transmit rate is 56 kbps. If three FECNs are received over the next 4 seconds, what will be the maximum transmit rate after the last FECN has been received?
A. 10 kbps
B. 37 kbps
C. 7 kbps
D. 15 kbps
E. 28 kbps
F. 56 kbps
Answer: F
Explanation:
User specified traffic shaping can be performed on a Frame Relay interface or sub-interface with the traffic-shape rate command. The traffic-shape adaptive command can be specified to allow the shape of the traffic to dynamically adjust to congestion experienced by the Frame-Relay provider. This is achieved through the reception of Backward Explicit Congestion Notifications (BECN) from the Frame Relay switch. When a Frame Relay switch becomes congested it sends BECNs in the direction the traffic is coming from and it generates Forward Explicit Congestion Notifications (FECN) in the direction the traffic is flowing to. If the traffic-shape fecn-adapt command is configured at both ends of the link, the far end will reflect FECNs as BECNs. BECNs notify the sender to decrease the transmission rate. If the traffic is one-way only, such as multicast traffic, there is no reverse traffic with BECNs to notify the sender to slow down. Therefore, when a DTE device receives a FECN, it first determines if it is sending any data in return. If it is sending return data, this data will get marked with a BECN on its way to the other DTE device. However, if the DTE device is not sending any data, the DTE device can send a Q.922 TEST RESPONSE message with the BECN bit set.
|
Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS
configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration
menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the
screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d
directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –
v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
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