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Question 1.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The access control to Web services is part of your responsibility. To this end you are currently exposing an existing class as an Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web service. You need to ensure that this Web service is accessible exclusively accessible to Web service clients within the ITCertKeys.com domain. To comply with this requirement you need to change the access modifiers on methods that must be exposed as Web methods.
What should you do?
A. For each Web method, use the Internal or Friend Access modifier.
B. For each Web method, use the Private Access modifier.
C. For each Web method, use the Public Access modifier.
D. For each Web method, use the Protected Access modifier.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since only Public methods can be exposed as Web methods, you should make use of the Public Access modifier for each Web method.
Incorrect answers:
A: You cannot use the Internal or Friend Access method, only Public Access method can be exposed as Web methods.
B: You cannot use the Private Access method, only Public Access method can be exposed as Web methods.
D: You cannot use the Protected Access method, only Public Access method can be exposed as Web methods.
Question 2.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com.
The following exhibit illustrates a class definition:
Exhibit:
public class MarketService
{
internal string ObtainMarket(string mobilePhoneNumber)
{
return string.Empty;
}
}
You received instruction to modify this class so that it becomes a Web service, a Web service that will allow internal applications to invoke ObtainMarket as a Web method. You need to ensure that the Web method does not make use of session state and that it must make use of the default namespace.
What should you do?
A. Change the access modifier for the ObtainMarket method to Public.
Then apply the WebService attribute to the MarketService class.
B. Change the access modifier for the ObtainMarket method to Protected.
Then apply the WebMethod attribute to the ObtainMarket method.
C. Change the access modifier for the ObtainMarket method to Public.
Then apply the WebMethod attribute to the ObtainMarket method.
D. Derive the MarketService class from SoapHttpClientProtocol.
Then apply the WebMethod attribute to the ObtainMarket method.
E. Derive the MarketService class from WebService.
Then apply the WebMethod attribute to the ObtainMarket method.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only public methods can be exposed as Web methods. Thus you need to change the access modifiers to public. And you should also apply the WebMethod attribute to the ObtainMarket method as this attribute will indicate that the public method should be exposed as Web methods.
Incorrect answers:
A: The WebService attribute will allow you to specify the namespace and description for the Web service. This is not required to invoke Web methods. (In cases where no namespace has been specified, use will be made of the default namespace.)
B: Since only Public methods can be exposed as Web methods, you should not change the access modifier to Protected.
D: The SoapHttpClientProtocol base class allows for Web service clients to make SOAP calls to Web methods. This is not what is required.
E: The WebService base class is an optional class as it provides direct access to session and application instances for session state. It is mentioned in this question that the Web methods does not make use of session state.
Question 3.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003.
The following exhibit illustrates the class definition for a data processing Web service:
Exhibit:
[WebService(Namespace-"urn:DataProcessingService")]
Public class DataProcessingService : Webservice
{
[WebMethod(MessageName-"ProcessDataSet")]
Public void Process(DataSet dataset)
{
}
}
You have been instructed to apply an attribute to the Process method that will result in an immediate return to the caller without invoking a SOAP response. You need to ensure that the attribute that you apply in your solution is Web Services-Interoperability (WS-1) compliant. You thus need to make use of a code segment.
What should you do?
A. Use the [OneWay] code segment.
B. Use the [WebMethod(BufferResponse=false)] code segment.
C. Use the [WebMethod(BufferResponse=true)] code segment.
D. Use the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] code segment.
E. Use the [SoapRpcMethod(OneWay=true)] code segment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If you want the Web method to be WS-1 compliant then you should apply the SoapDocumentMethod attribute to the Process method. Setting the attribute of the OneWay property to true indicates an immediate return to the caller without a response when it is invoked.
Incorrect answers:
A: You should not apply the OneWay attribute to the Process method. This attribute is used with .NET Remoting components when a method should immediately return to the caller without a return value.
B: You should not apply a second Web method. Only one WebMethod attribute can be applied to a Web method. Furthermore, the BufferResponse property of the WebMethod attribute does not determine if execution returns to the caller immediately when the associated method is invoked. It determines whether the entire response is placed in memory before it is sent to the caller. However, in this case no responses should be returned.
C: One does not apply a second Web method as suggested in this option.
E: RPC style is not WS-1 compliant.
Question 4.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. ITCertKeys.com is a Publishing and distribution company and works in joint ventures with many book stores that carries it products. The provision of stock on hand updates to third party companies (the book stores) forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. You are currently developing an Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Service that provides stock on hand updates. To this end you created a Web method named GetStock that accesses the third party company's XML Web service to retrieve the required information.
Following are some factors that you need to keep in mind:
1. The third parties' XML Web Service updates it information regarding stocks once every hour.
2. ITCertKeys.com is charged for each call to the third party Web service.
It is thus essential that you limit the number of calls that the ITCertKeys.com Web service makes to the third party company's Web service:
1. Thus you apply the Webmethod attribute to the GetStock method.
2. You need to configure the attribute to limit the number of calls to the third party Web service.
3. You must ensure that no cookies are required.
What should you do?
A. The CacheDuration property should be set to 3600
B. The EnableSession property should be set to true.
C. The MessageName property should be set to "ClientCache".
D. The BufferResponse property should be set to false.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This property specifies the number of seconds that a response from a Web method should be cached on a server. With this property set to 3600, you will limit the number of calls to the third party Web service by limiting the number of invocations of your GetStock Web method to once every hour.
Incorrect answers:
B: The EnableSession property indicates whether a session should be enabled to the Web method. Server-side session state, which includes the Application and Session objects, can use a lot a memory on the Web server. Session state requires the use of cookies as well. Thus you should not use this property.
C: The MessageName property distinguishes overloaded Web methods. In Web services Description Language (WSDL) documents, each Web method must be named uniquely and the MessageName property is involved in meeting this requirement. This is not what should happen in this scenario.
D: The BufferResponse property determines whether the entire response is placed in memory on the server before it is sent to the Web Service client. You should thus not set this property to false.
Question 5.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web service development forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. You are currently developing an Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Service that contains four Web methods. Each of these four methods accepts a different number of parameters and each method is configured to make use of remote procedure call (RPC) SOAP formatting. You must ensure that each of these four Web methods is capable of being exposed as a Web method by the Web service.
What should you do?
A. The SoapDocumentMethod attribute should be applied to each of the four methods.
Then set the RequestNamespace property of each attribute to a different value.
B. The WebService attribute should be applied to the Web service's class.
Then set the Namespace property of the attribute to "RPC".
C. The WebMethod attribute should be applied to each of the four web methods.
Then set the MessageName property of each attribute to a different value.
D. The SoapRpcService attribute should be applied to the Web service's class.
Then set the RoutingStyle property of the attribute to
SoapServiceRoutingStyleRequestElement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you overload Web methods, you need to specify a distinct message name for each web method because Web Services Description Language (WSDL) does not support overloaded operations. You thus need to apply the WebMethod attribute to each of the four methods and set the MessageName property of each of these attributes to a different value.
Incorrect answers:
A: Because the Web methods must make use of RPC formatting, you should apply the SoapRpcMethod attribute to each of the four methods, you cannot apply both a SoapDocumentMethod attribute and a SoapRpcMethods attribute to the same method.
B: The Namespace attribute of the WebService attribute allows you to designate an XML namespace for the operations that are supported by the Web Service, not to ensure exposure.
D: Though it is possible to apply the SoapRpcService attribute to the class OR the SoapRpcMethod attribute to each method to support RPC formatting, it does not allow for overloaded methods to be exposed as Web methods. In this case the methods are already configured to make use of RPC formatting which actually indicates that one of the two attributes is already applied.
Question 6.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com.
The following exhibit illustrates a class definition in a Web service project:
Exhibit:
public class MarketService
{
public Point ObtainMarket(string mobilePhoneNumber)
{
throw new soapException("Not implemented", New
XmlQualifiedName("error"));
}
}
You have received instruction to configure the class in such a way so as to allow SOAP clients to invoke the ObtainMarket method.
What should you do?
A. The class should be derived from WebService.
B. The class should be derived from SoapHttpClientProtocol.
C. The WebMethod attribute should be applied to the method.
D. The WebService attribute should be applied to the class.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Webmethod attribute applied to the method will indicate that a public method should be exposed as a Web method of a Web service. Thus you should apply the WebMethod attribute to the method.
Incorrect answers:
A: Since the WebService base class is optional, and it provides direct access to the Session and Application instances, you should not derive the class from WebService.
B: You should derive a proxy class from this class in a SOAP client application. This will allow the client application to make SOAP calls via the proxy class to the Web service. Thus you should not derive the class from SoapHttpClientProtocol.
D: The WebService attribute will allow you to specify a namespace and description for the Web service; you should not apply the WebService attribute to the class.
Question 7.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com.
The following exhibit illustrates a configuration.
Exhibit:
You have just added the above configuration to a new file by means of using a text editor. You need to save this file to a production server to provide the Web service discovery.
What should you do?
A. Use the .disco extension to save the file.
B. Use the .vsdisco extension to save the file.
C. Use the .wsdl extension to save the file.
D. Use the .asmx extension to save the file.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic discovery documents are denoted by a file with .vsdisco extension. This will allow the Web service client to discover all Web services that exist at and below the virtual directory that contains the document. You should thus save the file using a .vsdisco extension.
Incorrect answers:
A: The .disco extension is used to denote a static discovery document. This will not suffice under the circumstances.
C: The .wsdl extension represents files what are Web Services Description Language (WSDL) documents. You should not make use of this extension to save the file to the production server.
D: The .asmx extension represents a Web service endpoint. These types of files thus so not allow for dynamic discovery.
Question 8.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. After receiving instruction you have just finished developing an ASP.NET Web application named WebServices. WebServices contains the Web services for each of the ITCertKeys.com clients. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) 6.0 is hosting the Web application. And the Web application is configured in such a way so as to map host header names to client-specific virtual directories. Each ITCertKeys.com client has its own virtual directory. These virtual directories are located in a root virtual directory named WebServices.
The following exhibit illustrates an example of the virtual directory structure:
Exhibit:
WebSite
WebServices (Web Application)
Client A (VirtualDirectory)
WebService1.asmx
WebService2.asmx
Client B (VirtualDirectory)
WebService3.asmx
WebService4.asmx
Client C (VirtualDirectory)
WebService5.asmx
WebService6.asmx
You received further instructions to ensure that all ITCertKeys.com clients have the ability to discover all of the Web services that are implemented in the Web application for that client. You need to accomplish this task while also making provision for those Web services that is intended for future implementation. However, you also need to ensure that the ITCertKeys.com clients should not have the ability to discover implemented Web services intended for other clients.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. A .vsdisco file should be added to each ITCertKeys.com client's virtual directory.
B. A .disco file should be added to each ITCertKeys.com client's virtual directory.
C. Both a .vsdisco and a .disco file should be added to the WebServices directory
D. No .vsdisco or .disco files should be placed in the WebServices directory.
E. A .vsdisco file should be placed in the WebServices directory.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
A file with a .vsdisco extension will allow for dynamic discovery. This will result in the ITCertKeys.com clients having the ability to discover all the Web services that exist at en below the virtual directory that contains the document. This means that each client will be able to discover all Web services that exist at and below its own virtual directory.
Incorrect answers:
B: You should not place a .disco file to each ITCertKeys.com client's virtual directory because this is a static discovery document. You should manually specify the Web services that should be discovered in this document and the clients will then not be able to automatically discover the Web services that will be added in the future.
C: You should not place a .disco or a .vsdisco file in the WebServices directory. This will result in the violation of one of the requirements in the questions that states the no one ITCertKeys.com client should be able to discover Web services that are not intended for that specific client.
E: You should not place a .vsdisco file in the WebServices directory because you do not want the ITCertKeys.com clients to be able to discover the Web services that are not implemented for them.
Question 9.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. After receiving instructions you have just completed the development and the deployment of an Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web service application. This XML Web service application contains ten (10) Web services. At present dynamic discovery on the Web server that hosts the application has been disabled. To this end you now need to configure the Web.config file of the application to allow Web service clients the ability to dynamically discover all the Web services. You also want to ensure that the Web service clients will be able to discover any future Web services that will be added.
What should you do? (Choose the correct configuration.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Http handler should be added for all .vsdisco files. DiscoveryRequestHandler is the default handler class in ASP.NET 2.0. A file with the .vsdicso extension will allow a Web service client to dynamically discover all Web services that exist at and below the virtual directory that contains the document.
Incorrect answers:
A: A .disco file extension denotes a static discovery document. You will need to manually specify the Web services that should be discovered in this document. This will result in clients being unable to automatically discover the Web services that will be added in future.
C: A .wsdl handler denotes a Web Services Description Language (WSDL) document. This type of file will not provide for dynamic discovery of Web services.
D: An .asmx handler denotes a Web service endpoint and will thus not provide clients with the ability to automatically discover Web services.
Question 10.
You work as the Microsoft.NET developer at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2003. The development and deployment of Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web Services forms part of your responsibilities at ITCertKeys.com. After receiving instructions, you have just finished developing and deploying public and private Extensible Markup Language (XML) Web services to a production server. This production server has been configured with Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) 6.0. The Web services are located on different IIS virtual directories.
Each of these IIS virtual directories hosts either public Web services or private Web services, but not both. Part of the instructions that you received also states that Web service clients must have the ability to discover the public Web services dynamically, but not the private Web services. The Web Service clients should also be granted the ability to ability to dynamically discover any new public Web services that are added to an existing virtual directory. To this end you now need to configure the server to meet these requirements. You should take care that your configuration does not prevent the discovery of Web services in new virtual directories unless you reconfigure the server.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Add a .disco file to the Web site's virtual root directory.
B. Add a .vsdisco file to the Web site's virtual root directory.
C. Do not add .vsdisco files anywhere on the server.
D. Add the .vsdisco files to each virtual root directory that exposes public Web services.
E. Configure the .disco file with reference to each public Web service.
F. Configure the .disco file with reference to each .vsdisco file.
Answer: A, D, F
Explanation:
You need to add a static discovery document, i.e. a .disco file to the IIS root directory and dynamic discovery documents, i.e. .vsdisco files to each virtual directory that exposes public Web services. This way you can ensure that Web service clients have the ability to only discover the public Web services.
Incorrect answers:
B: You should not add .vsdisco files to the IIS root directory.
C: Adding a .vsdisco file anywhere on the server will expose the private Web services.
E: .disco files should not be configured to reference to each public Web service. This means that Web clients will not be able to not automatically discover new Web services that are added to existing virtual directories.
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Question 1.
The EMPLOYEES table contains these columns:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER(4)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2 (25)
JOB_ID VARCHAR2(10)
You want to search for strings that contain 'SA_' in the JOB_ID column. Which SQL statement do you use?
A. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id
FROM employees
WHERE job_id = '%SA_';
B. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id
FROM employees
WHERE job_id LIKE '%SA_';
C. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id
FROM employees
WHERE job_id LIKE '%SA_' ESCAPE "\";
D. SELECT employee_id, last_name, job_id
FROM employees
WHERE job_id LIKE '%SA\_%' ESCAPE '\';
Answer: D
Explanation:
ESCAPE identifier to search for the actual % and _ symbol
Refer : Introduction to Oracle9i : SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 2-13
Question 2.
You own a table called EMPLOYEES with this table structure:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
HIRE_DATE DATE
What happens when you execute this DELETE statement?
DELETE employees;
A. You get an error because of a primary key violation.
B. The data and structure of the EMPLOYEES table are deleted.
C. You get an error because the statement is not syntactically correct.
D. The data in the EMPLOYEES table is deleted but not the structure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can remove existing rows from a table by using the DELETE statement.
DELETE [FROM] table
[WHERE condition];
Question 3.
You need to create a table named ORDERS that contains four columns:
1. an ORDER_ID column of number data type
2. a CUSTOMER_ID column of number data type
3. an ORDER_STATUS column that contains a character data type
4. a DATE_ORDERED column to contain the date the order was placed
When a row is inserted into the table, if no value is provided for the status of the order, the value PENDING should be used instead.
Which statement accomplishes this?
A. CREATE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT 'PENDING',
date_ordered VARCHAR2 );
B. CREATE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT 'PENDING',
date_ordered DATE );
C. CREATE OR REPLACE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status VARCHAR2(10) DEFAULT 'PENDING',
date_ordered DATE );
D. CREATE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status NUMBER(10) DEFAULT 'PENDING',
date_ordered DATE );
E. CREATE OR REPLACE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status VARCHAR2(10) = 'PENDING',
date_ordered DATE );
F. CREATE TABLE orders (
order_id NUMBER(10),
customer_id NUMBER(8),
order_status VARCHAR2(10) = 'PENDING',
date_ordered DATE );
Answer: B
Explanation:
Requirement that Order_Status should be a character data type
Note: Order_status must be a character data type. There is also a syntax error.
Question 4.
Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A. selection, projection, join
B. selection, intersection, join
C. intersection, projection, join
D. difference, projection, product
E. difference, projection, join
Answer: A
Explanation:
Selection, projection and join capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed in this view.
Question 5.
Which three are DATETIME data types that can be used when specifying column definitions? (Choose three.)
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL MONTH TO DAY
E. TIMESTAMP WITH DATABASE TIMEZONE
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
TIMESTAMP, INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND and INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH can be used to specify column definition.
Question 6.
Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A. SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B. SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
C. SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
D. SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
Answer: C
Explanation:
This SQL statement provides correct syntax to generate the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12.
Question 7.
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
Which three statements insert a row into the table? (Choose three.)
A. INSERT INTO employees( first_name, last_name)
VALUES( 'John', 'Smith');
B. INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( NULL, 'John', 'Smith');
C. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name)
VALUES ( 1000, 'John', ' ');
D. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id)
VALUES (1000);
E. INSERT INTO employees (first_name, last_name, employee_id)
VALUES ( 1000, 'John', 'Smith');
F. INSERT INTO employees
VALUES ( '1000', 'John', NULL);
Answer: C, D, F
Explanation:
EMPLOYEE_ID is a primary key.
Incorrect answer :
A EMPLOYEE_ID cannot be null
B EMPLOYEE_ID cannot be null
Refer : Introduction to Oracle9i : SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-11
Question 8.
Which SELECT statement should you use to extract the year from the system date and display it in the format "1998"?
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(SUBSTR(SYSDATE, 8,2),'yyyy')
FROM dual;
B. SELECT DECODE(SUBSTR(SYSDATE, 8), 'year')
FROM dual;
C. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,'yyyy')
FROM dual;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,'yyyy')
FROM dual;
E. SELECT DECODE(SUBSTR(SYSDATE, 8), 'YYYY')
FROM dual;
Answer: D
Explanation:
Function TO_CHAR(x, y) converts the value x to a character or converts a date to a character string using formatting conventions.
Question 9.
Which two statements about sequences are true? (Choose two.)
A. You use a CURRVAL pseudo column to generate a value from a sequence that would be used
for a specified database column.
B. You use a CURRVAL pseudo column to look at the current value just generated from a
sequence, without affecting the further values to be generated from the sequence.
C. You use a NEXTVAL pseudo column to obtain the next possible value from a sequence by
actually retrieving the value from the sequence.
D. You use a NEXTVAL pseudo column to look at the next possible value that would be
Generated from a sequence, without actually retrieving the value.
E. You use a REUSE clause when creating a sequence to restart the sequence once it generates
the maximum value defined for the sequence.
F. If a sequence starting from a value 100 and incremented by 1 is used by more than one
application, then all of these applications could have a value of 105 assigned to their column
whose value is being generated by the sequence.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
You use a CURRVAL pseudo column to look at the current value just generated from a sequence, without affecting the further values to be generated from the sequence. You use a NEXTVAL pseudo column to obtain the next possible value from a sequence by actually retrieving the value from the sequence.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You use a NEXTVAL pseudo column to obtain the next possible value from a sequence by actually retrieving the value from the sequence.
D: You use a CURRVAL pseudo column to look at the current value just generated from a sequence, without affecting the further values to be generated from the sequence.
E: This statement is not correct. There is no limitation like that in Oracle.
F: You use CYCLE clause, not REUSE, when creating a sequence to restart the sequence once it generates the maximum value defined for the sequence.OCP Introduction to Oracle 9i: SQL Exam Guide, Jason Couchman, p. 315-322Chapter 7: Creating Other Database Objects in Oracle
Question 10.
In which two cases would you use an outer join? (Choose two.)
A. Only when the tables have a primary key-foreign key relationship.
B. The tables being joined have NOT NULL columns.
C. The tables being joined have both matched and unmatched data.
D. The columns being joined have NULL values.
E. The tables being joined have only matched data.
F. The tables being joined have only unmatched data.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
You use an outer join to also see rows that do not meet the join condition.
Refer : Introduction to Oracle9i : SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 4-17
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Question 1.
Which three possible values can be set for the TIME_ZONE session parameter by using the
ALTER SESSION command? (Choose three.)
A. 'os'
B. local
C. -8:00'
D. dbtimezone Li
E. 'Australia'
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
Question 2.
EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME.
Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
A. UPDATE empdet
SET ename ='Amit'
WHERE empno = 1234;
B. DELETE FROM empdet
WHERE ename LIKE 'J%';
C. CREATE VIEWempvu
AS
SELECT* FROMempdept;
D. CREATEINDEX empdet_dx
ON empdet(empno);
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which three tasks can be performed using regular expression support in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose three.)
A. it can be used to concatenate two strings.
B. it can be used to find out the total length of the string.
C. it can be used for string manipulation and searching operations.
D. it can be used to format the output for a column or expression having string data.
E. it can be used to find and replace operations for a column or expression having string data.
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as
arguments.
Answer: D, E, F
Explanation:
Question 5.
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables. Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT oi.order_id, product_jd, order_date
FROM order_items oi JOIN orders o
USING(order_id);
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?
A. The statement would not execute because table aliases are not allowed in the JOIN clause.
B. The statement would not execute because the table alias prefix is not used in the USING
clause.
C. The statement would not execute because all the columns in the SELECT clause are not
prefixed with table aliases.
D. The statement would not execute because the column part of the USING clause cannot have a
qualifier in the SELECT list.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 7.
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));
Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?
A. Itwould becreated only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. Itwould becreated andwould use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be createdandwould use an automaticallycreatednonunique index.
D. Itwouldbecreated and remainsinadisabledstatebecauseno indexis specified in the command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the
PRODUCT INFORMATION table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
B. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of
products having the product status orderable
E. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status
OBSOLETE
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and
subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and
CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by
ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand
totals and subtotals.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Evaluate the following statement:
INSERT ALL
WHEN order_total < 10000 THEN
INTO small_orders
WHEN order_total > 10000 AND order_total < 20000 THEN
INTO medium_orders
WHEN order_total > 2000000 THEN
INTO large_orders
SELECT order_id, order_total, customer_id
FROM orders;
Which statement is true regarding the evaluation of rows returned by the subquery in the INSERT statement?
A. They areevaluatedby allthe three WHENclauses regardlessofthe resultsof the evaluation of
any other WHEN clause.
B. They are evaluated by thefirst WHENclause. If the condition is true, then the row would be
evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
C. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition isfalse,thenthe row
wouldbeevaluated by the subsequentWHENclauses.
D. TheINSERT statement would give an error becausetheELSE clause is notpresent forsupport in
case none of theWHENclauses are true.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Question 1.
Evaluate the SQL statement:
TRUNCATE TABLE DEPT;
Which three are true about the SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A. It releases the storage space used by the table.
B. It does not release the storage space used by the table.
C. You can roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.
D. You can NOT roll back the deletion of rows after the statement executes.
E. An attempt to use DESCRIBE on the DEPT table after the TRUNCATE statement executes will
display an error.
F. You must be the owner of the table or have DELETE ANY TABLE system privileges to truncate
the DEPT table
Answer: A, D, F
Explanation:
A: The TRUNCATE TABLE Statement releases storage space used by the table,
D: Can not rollback the deletion of rows after the statement executes,
F: You must be the owner of the table or have DELETE ANY TABLE system privilege to truncate the DEPT table.
Incorrect answer:
Cis not true
Dis not true
Eis not true
Refer:Introduction toOracle9i:SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 8-18
Question 2.
You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic information. The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key. You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table.
Which statement creates the foreign key?
A. CREATE TABLE student_grades (student_id NUMBER(12),semester_end DATE, gpa
NUMBER(4,3), CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id) FOREIGN KEY
students(student_id));
B. CREATE TABLE student_grades(student_id NUMBER(12),semester_end DATE, gpa
NUMBER(4,3), student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id) REFERENCES
students(student_id));
C. CREATE TABLE student_grades(student_id NUMBER(12),semester_end DATE, gpa
NUMBER(4,3), CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id) REFERENCES
students(student_id));
D. CREATE TABLE student_grades(student_id NUMBER(12),semester_end DATE, gpa
NUMBER(4,3), CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id) REFERENCES
students(student_id));
Answer: D
Explanation:
CONSTRAINT name FOREIGN KEY (column_name) REFERENCES table_name (column_name);
Incorrect answer:
Ainvalid syntax
Binvalid syntax
Cinvalid syntax
Refer:Introduction toOracle9i:SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-14
Question 3.
Here is the structure and data of the CUST_TRANS table:
Exhibit:
Dates are stored in the default date format dd-mm-rr in the CUST_TRANS table.
Which three SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose three.)
A. SELECT transdate + '10' FROM cust_trans;
B. SELECT * FROM cust_trans WHERE transdate = '01-01-07';
C. SELECT transamt FROM cust_trans WHERE custno > '11';
D. SELECT * FROM cust_trans WHERE transdate='01-JANUARY-07';
E. SELECT custno + 'A' FROM cust_trans WHERE transamt > 2000;
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Question 4.
See the Exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table:
Exhibit:
Which two SQL statements would executes successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT MAX(inv_date),MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE - inv_date)) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT (AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT AVG(inv_date - SYSDATE),AVG(inv)amt) FROM invoice;
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which three statements are true regarding sub queries? (Choose three.)
A. Multiple columns or expressions can be compared between the main query and sub query
B. Main query and sub query can get data from different tables
C. Sub queries can contain GROUP BY and ORDER BY clauses
D. Main query and sub query must get data from the same tables
E. Sub queries can contain ORDER BY but not the GROUP BY clause
F. Only one column or expression can be compared between the main query and subqeury
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Question 6.
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:
Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shown the average credit limit for customers in WASHINGTON and NEW YORK.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers
WHERE cust_city IN ('WASHINGTON','NEW YORK')
GROUP BY cust_credit_limit, cust_city;
B. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers
WHERE cust_city IN ('WASHINGTON','NEW YORK')
GROUP BY cust_city,cust_credit_limit;
C. SELECT cust_city, AVG(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers
WHERE cust_city IN ('WASHINGTON','NEW YORK')
GROUP BY cust_city;
D. SELECT cust_city, AVG(NVL(cust_credit_limit,0))
FROM customers
WHERE cust_city IN ('WASHINGTON','NEW YORK');
Answer: C
Explanation:
Creating Groups of Data: GROUP BY Clause Syntax
You can use the GROUP BY clause to divide the rows in a table into groups. You can then use the group functions to return summary information for each group.
In the syntax:
group_by_expression Specifies the columns whose values determine the basis for grouping rows
Guidelines
• If you include a group function in a SELECT clause, you cannot select individual results as well,
unless the individual column appears in the GROUP BY clause. You receive an error message if
you fail to include the column list in the GROUP BY clause.
• Using a WHERE clause, you can exclude rows before dividing them into groups.
• You must include the columns in the GROUP BY clause.
• You cannot use a column alias in the GROUP BY clause.
Question 7.
Evaluate these two SQL statements:
SELECT last_name, salary, hire_date FROM EMPLOYEES ORDER BY salary DESC;
SELECT last_name, salary, hire_date FROM EMPLOYEES ORDER BY 2 DESC;
What is true about them?
A. The two statements produce identical results.
B. The second statement returns a syntax error.
C. There is no need to specify DESC because the results are sorted in descending order by
default.
D. The two statements can be made to produce identical results by adding a column alias for the
salary column in the second SQL statement.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: the two statement produce identical results as ORDER BY 2 will take the second column as sorting column.
Incorrect answer:
Bthere is no syntax error
Cresult are sorted in ascending order by default
DORDER BY 2 will take the second column as sorting column.
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 2-22
Question 8.
Where can sub queries be used? (Choose all that apply)
A. field names in the SELECT statement
B. the FROM clause in the SELECT statement
C. the HAVING clause in the SELECT statement
D. the GROUP BY clause in the SELECT statement
E. the WHERE clause in only the SELECT statement
F. the WHERE clause in SELECT as well as all DML statements
Answer: A, B, C, F
Explanation:
SUBQUERIES can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a query. A subquery can have any of the usual clauses for selection and projection. The following are required clauses:
A SELECT list
A FROM clause
The following are optional clauses:
WHERE
GROUP BY
HAVING
The subquery (or subqueries) within a statement must be executed before the parent query that calls it, in order that the results of the subquery can be passed to the parent.
Question 9.
Which three SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three.)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the ORDER BY clause should appear only at the end of a
compound query-that is, with the last SELECT statement
B. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY
C. It executes successfully but ignores the ORDER BY clause because it is not located at the end
of the compound statement
D. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the ORDER BY clause with
SET operators
Answer: A
Explanation:
Using the ORDER BY Clause in Set Operations
The ORDER BY clause can appear only once at the end of the compound query.
Component queries cannot have individual ORDER BY clauses.
The ORDER BY clause recognizes only the columns of the first SELECT query.
By default, the first column of the first SELECT query is used to sort the output in an ascending order.
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Question 1.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You have just installed Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio on one of ABC.com’s workstations and the Microsoft Business Intelligence Development Studio. You have been requested to design a 12 table transactional package to be stored on an offsite server’s msdb data store. You decide that BIDS in this scenario is an overkill and you decide to uninstall it.
What utility should you run to create the requested package?
A. Use the bulk copy program.
B. Use the DTS Designer.
C. Use the Microsoft SQL Server Import and Export Wizard.
D. Use Process Control Tool.
E. Use the Package Migration Wizard.
F. Use the Process Control Tool
G. Use the ISIS.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2. DRAG DROP
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance that contains a database named ABC_DB1. As part of your backup method of ABC_DB1, you do a Full backup every Sunday at 01:00, you do a differential backup weekdays at 22:00, and you do transactional log backup weekdays at 08:00; 12:00 and 16:00. You have received notification that the user database data files have failed on Thursday at 15:00. You need to ensure that ABC_DB1 are retrieve as quickly as possible with as small as possible amount of data loss.
What steps should you take? Use only steps that apply.
Answer:
Explanation:
Question 3. DRAG DROP
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance that contains a database named ABC_Prod. During the night a daily full backup of ABC_Prod is started at 03:15, a differential backup is performed every 90 days minutes and a transaction log backup is performed every 20 minutes. This particular day your CEO has requested that you make an extra full backup during the lunch break starting at 11.30.
How can you meet her request while keeping the database backup files in order for future backups and restores?
Answer:
Explanation:
By using copy_only you do not affect the backup sequence.
Incorrect answer:
trn' WITH DIFFERENTIAL;
by doing this you already affected your backup sequence and you are only backing up the transaction log.
Question 4.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance. The SQL Server 2008 instance hosts quite a few applications. ABC also has a server named ABC-SR43 that is used to store log files. You have to set up a new job that stores log files on ABC-SR43. You create a new account ABC\Log_Account. You set it up to be run by the SQL Server Agent Services. However, your job fails to store any log files on ABC-SR43. After some investigation you notice that the job does not have permissions to store files on ABC-SR43.
How should you remedy the situation? Select the best option.
A. You should set up ABC\Log_Accoun as a Remote Service account.
B. You should set up ABC\Log_Accoun as a Domain service account.
C. You should set up ABC\Log_Accoun as a Local Service account.
D. You should set up ABC\Log_Accoun as a Local System account.
E. You should set up ABC\Log_Accoun as a Network Service account.
F. You should set up ABC\Log_Account as a Domain account.
Answer: F
Explanation:
The service startup account defines the Microsoft Windows account in which SQL Server Agent runs and its network permissions. SQL Server Agent runs as a specified user account. For compatibility with earlier versions of SQL Server, SQL Server Agent can also run as the Local System account. In this scenario you should select a Domain account, which allows sufficient permissions and improved security.
Question 5.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance that has a table named ABC_Training. ABC_ Training contains a column named ABC_Distance. A new ABC.com training policy states that the training (ie. The ABC_Distance column in the ABC_Training table) cannot be increased or decreased by more than 3%.
How should you implement the ABC Training Policy?
A. You should consider developing a view which rolls back non-compliant ABC.com policy
changes to ABC_Distance.
B. You should consider developing a stored procedure which rolls back non-compliant ABC.com
policy compliant changes to the ABC_Distance column.
C. You should consider developing a primary key constraint to the ABC_training table which only
contains valid values on ABC_Distance.
D. You should consider developing a create trigger which rolls back non-compliant ABC.com
policy changes to the ABC_Distance column.
E. You should consider developing an update trigger which rolls back non-compliant ABC.com
policy changes to the ABC_Distance column.
F. You should consider developing a delete trigger which rolls back non-compliant ABC.com
policy changes to the ABC_Distance column.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance that contains a database named ABC_DB. ABC.com contains a lot of customer data which is processed by the Web application. You need to keep the customer information safe since it is confidential. This information includes files of data, backups, and log files.
How can this be achieved and still keep the performance and functionality of the web application?
Select one or two.
A. You should consider adding a transaction Log on ABC_DB, and set the information to be
encrypted for a fixed time.
B. Use BitLocker Drive Encryption on the hard drives on the SQL Server.
C. Use EFS (Encrypting File System) on the hard drives on the SQL Server.
D. You should consider enabling the Transparent Database Encryption on ABC_DB and back up
the transaction log.
E. You should consider enabling the Transparent Database Encryption on ABC_DB and enabling
the Transparent Database Encryption on master database.
F. Use cell-level encryption for the specific data that needs to be kept safe.
Answer: D
Explanation:
With the introduction of transparent data encryption (TDE) in SQL Server 2008, users now have the choice between cell-level encryption as in SQL Server 2005, full database-level encryption by using TDE, or the file-level encryption options provided by Windows. TDE is the optimal choice for bulk encryption to meet regulatory compliance or corporate data security standards. TDE works at the file level, which is similar to two Windows® features: the Encrypting File System (EFS) and BitLocker™ Drive Encryption, the new volume-level encryption introduced in Windows Vista®, both of which also encrypt data on the hard drive. TDE does not replace cell-level encryption, EFS, or BitLocker.
Question 7.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using two SQL Server 2008 sample named ABCSmp1 and ABCSmp2. Furthermore, ABCSmp1 contains a database named ABC_DB. A ABC.com user named Mia Hamm uses her logon MiaHamm to log on to the database on ABCSmp1. During the week you have transferred ABC_DB to ABCSmp2. You manually recreate the Mia Hamm login on ABCSmp2. However, when she tries to login on ABC_DB at ABCSmp2, she received an error message stating that she is not allowed access. Mia Hamm needs to access ABC_DB and you need to make it happen.
What T-SQL code should you use? (Each correct option is part of the answer. Choose TWO)
A. Use ABC.com;
B. Use ABC_DB; *
C. Use ABCSmp1;
D. Use ABCSmp2;
E. ALTER LOGIN MiaHamm WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE = ABC_DB;
F. CHANGE LOGIN MiaHamm WITH DEFAULT_DATABASE = ABC_DB;
G. ALTER LOGIN MiaHamm WITH PASSWORD = 'pwd1234' UNLOCK;
H. CHANGE LOGIN MiaHamm WITH PASSWORD = 'pwd1234' UNLOCK;
I. CHANGE USER MiaHamm WITH LOGIN = MiaHamm;
J. ALTER USER MiaHamm WITH LOGIN = MiaHamm; *
K. ALTER LOGIN MiaHamm ENABLE;
L. CHANGE LOGIN MiaHamm ENABLE;
Answer: B, J
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance. Your junior assistant is curious about on how to move a table, such as ABC_table, from its current scheme (scheme1) to another scheme (scheme2)
How can you accomplish this in T-SQL?
A. You should consider using the following:
ALTER TABLE Schema1.ABC_Table SWITCH TO Schema2.ABC_table;
B. You should consider using the following:
ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON Schema1.ABC_Table TO Schema2;
C. You should consider using the following:
ALTER SCHEMA schema2 TRANSFER schema1.ABC_table;
D. You should consider using the following:
ALTER SCHEMA schema1 TRANSFER schema2.ABC_table;
E. You should consider using the following:
ALTER USER Schema1 WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA = Schema2;
F. You should consider using the following:
MOVE ABC_Table FROM SCHEMA schema1 TO schema2
G. You should consider using the following:
MOVE ABC_Table FROM schema1 TO schema2
Answer: C
Explanation:
ALTER SCHEMA can only be used to move securables between schemas in the same database. To change or drop a securable within a schema, use the ALTER or DROP statement specific to that securable.
Question 9.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance. You have received instructions from management to allow the users at ABC.com on the SQL Server sample to use the OPENROWSET() function to search remote information sources. You study incomplete code in the exhibit carefully. (Line numbers are used for reference purposes only)
Exhibit:
01. sp_configure 'show advanced options', 1
02. RECONFIGURE
03.
04. RECONFIGURE
05. GO
06.
07. SELECT a.*
08. FROM OPENROWSET('SQLNCLI', 'Server=Madrid;Trusted_Connection=yes;',
09. 'SELECT GroupName, Name, DepartmentID
10. FROM AdventureWorks.HumanResources.Department
11. ORDER BY GroupName, Name') AS a;
12. GO
Which T-SQL statement should you insert at line 03 to make the batch meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. sp_configure 'Router control', 1
B. sp_configure 'Router control', 0
C. sp_configure 'Transaction Logs', 1
D. sp_configure 'Transaction Logs', 0
E. sp_configure 'Ad Lib Distributed Queries ', 1
F. sp_configure 'Ad Lib Distributed Queries ', 0
G. sp_configure 'Ad Hoc Distributed Queries', 1
H. sp_configure 'Ad Hoc Distributed Queries', 0
Answer: G
Explanation:
By default, SQL Server does not allow ad hoc distributed queries using OPENROWSET and OPENDATASOURCE. When this option is set to 1, SQL Server allows ad hoc access. When this option is not set or is set to 0, SQL Server does not allow ad hoc access. Ad hoc distributed queries use the OPENROWSET and OPENDATASOURCE functions to connect to remote data sources that use OLE DB. OPENROWSET and OPENDATASOURCE should be used only to reference OLE DB data sources that are accessed infrequently. For any data sources that will be accessed more than several times, define a linked server.
Question 10.
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com is using a SQL Server 2008 instance. The a SQL Server 2008 instance is used on a Windows Server 2000 server and uses the mixed authentication mode. Management wants you to ensure the following:
•SQL Server 2008 logins must have the same password complexity rules which are enforced by
Windows Server 2000 for authentication.
•Full compliance of all users with regarding to adhering to the password complexity rules.
What actions should you take?? (Each correct option is part of the answer. Choose TWO)
A. You should consider using the ALTER LOGIN ... CHECK_EXPIRATION = OFF statement to
change the entire login of all users.
B. You should consider using the ALTER LOGIN ... CHECK_EXPIRATION = ON statement to
change the entire login of all users.
C. You should consider using the command ALTER LOGIN ... NO CREDENTIAL.
D. You should consider using the command ALTER LOGIN ... UNLOCK.
E. You should consider using the command ALTER LOGIN ... ADD CREDENTIAL.
F. You should consider using the command ALTER LOGIN ... DROP CREDENTIAL.
G. You should consider using the ALTER LOGIN ... CHECK_POLICY = ON statement to change
the entire login of all users.
H. You should consider using the ALTER LOGIN ... CHECK_POLICY = OFF statement to change
the entire login of all users.
I. Create a policy using Policy-Based Management that matches the requirements of this
scenario.
J. You should consider using the ALTER LOGIN ... CREDENTIAL = statement to change the
entire lo
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Question 1. A site definition has been purchased from another company. It is used to created SharePoint sites. Now there is a request to modify the home page for the site definition by adding a Web Part. What actions need to be taken? Select two. A. Add.. B. Uninstall.. C. Remove… D. Modify.. E. Install… F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd G. ..the file Onet.xml H. ..a Feature receiver I. ..a Feature dependcy J. ..the file config.web K. ..the file web.config Answer: D, G Explanation: Question 2. A customized Site Featured need to be made. There is customized site definition. The Feature of this site definition must be activated for all additional sites which are created using it. What actions need to be taken? Select two. A. Add.. B. Uninstall.. C. Remove… D. Modify.. E. Install… F. ..the file CSTemplate.xsd G. ..the file Onet.xml H. ..a Feature receiver I. ..a Feature dependcy J. ..the file config.web K. ..the file web.config Answer: D, G Explanation: Question 3. DRAG DROP There is third party site definition named PASSGUIDE. A file named TemplatePassGuide.xsd is included in PassGuide. TemplatePassGuide.xsd contains configuration date. There is a provision handler for PassGuide. The information in TemplatePassGuide.xsd must be read. The following property should be used. Answer: Explanation: Question 4. There is a specialized program to import data into SharePoint sites. There is a specialized site definition named PassGuide created by MS Visual Studio 2010. The specialized program code must be run whenever a new site is created by using PassGuide. What should be done to ensure this? Select three. A. Modify.. B. Add… C. Delete… D. ..file.. E. ..class.. F. ..feature.. G. .. CSTemplate.xsd H. ..SPItemEventReceiver I. .. Onet.xml J. .. receiver K. .. SPChangeFile L. .. SPWebEventReceiver M. .. dependcy N. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider O. ..config.web P. .. web.config Answer: B, E, N Explanation: Question 5. There is a specialized Web Part named PassGuideWebpart. There must be a test to check if PassGuideWebpart generates leaks in the RAM. What should be done to ensure this? Select two. A. Modify.. B. Add… C. Run.. D. Delete… E. .. WinDbg.exe F. .. CSTemplate.xsd G. ..SPItemEventReceiver H. .. Onet.xml I. .. SPDisposeCheck.exe J. .. SPChangeFile K. .. SPWebEventReceiver L. .. SPMetal.exe M. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider N. ..config.web O. .. web.config Answer: C, I Explanation: Question 6. There is a web part named PassGuideWebPart. PassGuideWebPart is launched in a sandboxed release. PassGuideWebPart saves debugging data into SharePoint trace log files. What should be done to the logging component to ensure this? Select three. A. Add… B. Inherit.. C. Run.. D. Delete… E. ..file.. F. ..class.. G. ..feature.. H. .. WinDbg.exe I. .. SPLog J. .. SPProxyOperation K. .. CSTemplate.xsd L. ..SPItemEventReceiver M. .. Onet.xml N. .. SPDisposeCheck.exe O. .. SPPersistedObject P. .. SPChangeFile Q. .. SPDelegate R. .. SPWebEventReceiver S. .. SPMetal.exe T. .. SPWebProvisioningProvider U. ..config.web V. .. web.config Answer: B, F, J Explanation: Question 7. DRAG DROP There is a solution validator named PassGuideValidator. All SharePoint solutions are to be validated after that they are run in the future. What should be done to ensure this? Answer: Explanation: Question 8 DRAG DROP A web part named PassGuideWP is created. PassGuideWP is used in a SharPoint subsite with URL http://www.PassGuide.com/PG. PassGuideWP must not allow RAM leaks to occur when it is activates a Site Feature in the subsite. How can you achieve this? Answer: Explanation: Question 9. Code Exhibit: Protected Sub SiteCreation_Click.. … End Sub There is a Web Part named PGPart. PGPart creates a SharePoint site when the button PGButton is clicked. The button works fine for user1, the person who has written the code. The program code for the button is defined partly as in the code exhibit. However, user2 receives the error “Access Denied” when he uses PGPart to create a new site. How should you avoid the error message? A. Modify the security of PGPart. B. Modify the security of the SiteCreation_Click code. C. Run the code SiteCreation_Click within a delegate SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges D. Add the following code to SiteCreation_Click: web.ValidatesFormDigest() Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. DRAG DROP There is a SharePoint site collection named PassGuideSiteC. PassGuideC includes 50 subsites. There is a Web Part named PassGuideWP. PassGuideWP must be deployed in all subsites of PassGuideC. PassGuideWP must retrieve all files from the current root directory of the current subsite. Which code segment refers to these files? Select two. Answer: Explanation:
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Question 1.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. The ABC.com network has a file server named ABC-SR07 that hosts a shared folder named ABCDocs. Several Microsoft Word documents are stored in the ABCDocs share. You want to enable document version history on these documents. You also want the documents in the ABCDocs share to be accessed through a Web page.
Which of the following roles or services would you install on ABC-SR07 to achieve the desired results cost effectively?
A. FTP Server role.
B. Application Server role.
C. Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
D. File and Print Services role.
E. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server (MOSS) 2007.
F. SMTP Server role.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To achieve the desired results without requiring any additional cost, you need to use Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services (WSS) 3.0.
Reference:
Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 and the Mobile Workplace
http://download.microsoft.com/download/b/b/6/bb6672dd-252c-4a21-89de-
78cfc8e0b69e/WSS%20Mobile%20Workplace.doc
Question 2.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com with a single site named SiteA. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. You reorganize the Active Directory infrastructure to include a second site named SiteB with its own domain controller.
How would you configured the firewall to allow replication between SiteA and SiteB?
A. Enable IPSec traffic to pass through the firewall.
B. Enable RPC traffic to pass through the firewall.
C. Enable SMTP traffic to pass through the firewall.
D. Enable NNTP traffic to pass through the firewall.
E. Enable FTP traffic to pass through the firewall.
Answer: B
Explanation:
You should permit RPC traffic through the firewall to enable the domain controllers to replicate between the two sites because the Active Directory relies on remote procedure call (RPC) for replication between domain controllers. You can open the firewall wide to permit RPC's native dynamic behavior.
Reference: Active Directory Replication over Firewalls
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb727063.aspx
Question 3.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. ABC.com runs a critical application that accesses data that is stored in a Microsoft SQL Server 2005 database server named ABC-DB02.
Which of the following options would you choose to ensure that the database is always available?
A. Two Windows Server 2008 servers running MS SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition in a
Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
B. Two Windows Server 2008 servers running MS SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition in a
Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
C. Two Windows Server 2008 servers running MS SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition in a
Failover cluster.
D. Two Windows Server 2008 servers running MS SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition in a
failover cluster.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure the high availability of the data store, you need to use a Windows Server 2008 failover cluster with shared storage. Failover clustering can help you build redundancy into your network and eliminate single points of failure. Administrators have better control and can achieve better performance with storage than was possible in previous releases. Failover clusters now support GUID partition table (GPT) disks that can have capacities of larger than 2 terabytes, for increased disk size and robustness. Administrators can now modify resource dependencies while resources are online, which means they can make an additional disk available without interrupting access to the application that will use it. And administrators can run tools in Maintenance Mode to check, fix, back up, or restore disks more easily and with less disruption to the cluster You should not use Network Load Balancing (NLB) because it only allows you to distribute TCP/IP requests to multiple systems in order to optimize resource utilization, decrease computing time, and ensure system availability.
Reference: High Availability
http://www.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/us/high-availability.aspx
Question 4.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. ABC.com has its headquarters in Chicago and sub-divisions in Boston, Atlanta, Miami and Dallas. All domain controllers are currently installed in the Chicago. You need to have new domain controllers installed in the Boston, Atlanta, Miami and Dallas subdivisions. ABC.com issues a security policy for the new domain controllers that states the following:
•Unauthorized user must not be able to access the Active Directory database.
•Unauthorized user must not be able to boot a domain controller from an alternate boot disk.
Which of the following options would you choose to implement the security policy?
A. Modify the permissions of the ntds.dat file.
B. Configure a read-only domain controller (RODC) in the Boston, Atlanta, Miami and Dallas.
C. Disable replication of the Sysvol folder on the new domain controllers.
D. Configure Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) on the new domain controllers.
E. Disable the Global Catalog role on the new domain controllers.
F. Configure EFS encryption on the new domain controllers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To configure domain controller at each branch office to ensure that no unauthorized user should be allowed to copy the Active Directory database from a branch office domain controller by starting the server from an alternate startup disk, you need to use Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) BitLocker allows you to encrypt all data stored on the Windows operating system volume and use the security of using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) that helps protect user data and to ensure that a computer running Windows Vista or Server 2008 have not been tampered with while the system was offline. In addition, BitLocker offers the option to lock the normal startup process until the user supplies a personal identification number (PIN) or inserts a removable USB device, such as a flash drive, that contains a startup key. This process will ensure that users can only access all files on the servers if they have the PIN. You cannot use an alternate startup disk to boot the server.
Reference: BitLocker Drive Encryption Technical Overview
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/library/a2ba17e6-153b-4269-bc46-
6866df4b253c1033.mspx?mfr=true
Question 5.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com that runs at the domain functional level of Windows Server 2008.
Which of the following options can be used for tracking any modification to Active Directory Objections?
A. Configure a Group Policy to run the Security Configuration Wizard on all computers in the ABC
network.
B. Configure the Default Domain Controllers Group Policy to audit Directory Services.
C. Configure the Default Domain Group Policy to audit Directory Services.
D. Enable auditing of the ntds.dat file in the Default Domain Group Policy.
E. Enable auditing of the ntds.dat file in the Default Domain Group Policy.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To implement an audit and compliance policy and ensure that all changes made to Active Directory objects are recorded, you need to configure a Directory Services Auditing policy in the Default Domain Controller Policy In Windows Server 2008, you can enable Audit Directory Service Access policy to log events in the Security event log whenever certain operations are performed on objects stored in Active Directory. Enabling the global audit policy, Audit directory service access, enables all directory service policy subcategories. You can set this global audit policy in the Default Domain Controllers Group Policy (under Security Settings\Local Policies\Audit Policy).
Reference: Windows Server 2008 Auditing AD DS Changes Step-by-Step Guide
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/library/a9c25483-89e2-4202-881cea8e02b4b2a51033.mspx?mfr=true
Question 6.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2003. You want to install a read-only domain controller (RODC) without upgrading the existing domain controllers Windows Server 2008.
What action should you take? (Each correct option will form a part of the answer. Select TWO.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows 2000.
B. Raise the forest functional level to Windows 2003.
C. Raise the forest functional level to Windows 2008.
D. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2000
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2003
F. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2008
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
To create an Active Directory forest and domain functional levels to support Read-only domain controllers (RODC) and Windows Server 2003 domain controllers, you need to create both the forest and domain functional levels of Windows Server 2003. This is because only when you use both the forest and domain functional levels of Windows Server 2003, you will be able to support Read-only domain controllers (RODC) and Windows Server 2003 domain controllers.
Reference: Appendix of Functional Level Features
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/library/34678199-98f1-465f-9156-
c600f723b31f1033.mspx?mfr=true
Question 7.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a forest named and ABC.com that runs at the forest functional level of Windows Server 2003. ABC.com has a subsidiary company named TestLabs, Inc. The TestLabs, Inc. network has a forest named and testlabs.com that runs at the forest functional level of Windows Server 2003. All domain controllers on both the ABC.com network and the TestLabs, Inc. network run Windows Server 2008. ABC.com users do not have access to network resources in TestLabs, Inc. TestLabs, Inc. has a file server named TESTLABS-SR07. ABC.com users must be able to access shared folders on TESTLABS-SR07. However, ABC.com users must not be able to access any other network resources in TestLabs, Inc.
Which of the following options would you choose to accomplish this task? (Each correct option will form a part of the answer. Select TWO.)
A. By raising the forest functional level of ABC.com and testlabs.com to Windows Server 2008.
B. By raising the domain functional level of all domains in ABC.com and testlabs.com to Windows
Server 2008.
C. By creating a forest trust between ABC.com and testlabs.com.
D. By setting the Allowed to Authenticate for TESTLABS-SR07.
E. By setting the Allowed to Authenticate right on the computer object for the testlabs.com
infrastructure operations master object.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
To ensure that the users in ABC-south.com are denied access to all the resources ABC north.com except the resources on ABC-SR07, you need to create a forest trust between ABC-south.com and ABC-north.com so that resources can be shared between both the forests. You can however set the trust authentication setting to selective authentication so that only selected authentication is allowed. Next you need to set the Allowed to Authenticate right on the computer object for ABC-SR07 so that each user must be explicitly granted the Allowed to Authenticate permission to access resources on ABC-SR07. You should not set the Allowed to Authenticate right on the computer object for the ABC-north.com infrastructure operations master object because Allowed to Authenticate right is set for the users in a trusted Windows Server 2003 domain or forest to be able to access resources in a trusting Windows Server 2003 domain or forest, where the trust authentication setting has been set to selective authentication, each user must be explicitly granted the ‘Allowed to Authenticate’ permission on the security descriptor of the computer objects (resource computers) that reside in the trusting domain or forest.
Reference:
Grant the Allowed to Authenticate permission on computers in the trusting domain or forest
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver/en/library/b4d96434-0fde-4370-bd29-
39e4b3cc7da81033.mspx?mfr=true
Question 8.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. ABC.com has its headquarters in Chicago and branch offices in Boston. The Boston office is connected to the Chicago by a WAN link. The Chicago office has a DNS Sever named ABC-SR04 that is configured as a single DNS zone. The Boston office has two servers named ABC-SR07 and ABC-SR08. ABC-SR08 hosts shared folders that are only accessed by ABC.com users in the Boston office. You work in the Chicago office while a network administrator named Rory Allen works in the Boston office. ABC.com wants you to ensure that users at the Boston office can log on to the ABC.com domain and can connect to the shared folders on ABC-SR08 even when the WAN link is down. You must allow Rory Allen to configure the servers in the Boston office without allowing him to modify the Active Directory configuration.
Which actions should you take to accomplish this task? (Each correct option will form a part of the answer. Choose THREE.)
A. By promoting ABC-SR07 to a domain controller.
B. By promoting ABC-SR07 to a read-only domain controller (RODC).
C. By installing USMT role on ABC-SR07.
D. By installing ADMT role on ABC-SR07.
E. By installing DNS role on ABC-SR07.
F. By adding Rory Allen to the Domain Admins group.
G. By creating an organizational unit (OU) for the Boston office.
H. By assigning administrative rights to Rory Allen.
Answer: B, E, H
Explanation:
To ensure that the users in the branch office are able to log on to the domain even if the WAN link fails, you need to promote the member server to a read-only domain controller (RODC) because the RODC works as a domain controller and allows log in to the domains except allowing modifications and changes to the Active directory domain. Delegating administrative rights to the local branch office administrator after promoting a member server to a RODC will make sure that branch office administrator is not allowed to initiate any changes to Active Directory but should be allowed to make configuration changes to the servers in the branch office. Configuring the DNS role to the member server, will ensure that the users are allowed to access file shares on the local server in the absence of the WAN link. Without name resolution and the other services that are provided by DNS servers, client access to remote host computers would be prohibitively difficult. DNS servers need to be configured because in intranets computer users rarely know the IP addresses of computers on their local area network (LAN).
Reference:
DNS Server Role: Read-only domain controller support/ Who will be interested in this server role?
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/library/533a1cfc-5173-4248-914c-
433bd018f66d1033.mspx?mfr=true
Question 9.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com and a workgroup named ABCGROUP. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008 and all the client computers run Windows Vista. The ABC.com network has unmanaged network switches and has two servers named ABC-SR07 and ABC-SR08. ABC-SR07 is configured with the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service while ABC-SR08 is configured with the Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS), the Network Policy Service (NPS) and Health Registration Authority (HRA). You notice that the latest Microsoft updates have not been applied to all client computers that are part of the ABCGROUP workgroup. You are concerned that ABC.com users are accessing the local area network (LAN) from these client computers. You want to implement Network Access Protection (NAP) to secure the network by preventing client computers that are not members of the ABC.com network or do not have the latest Microsoft updates from accessing any network servers that are members of the ABC.com domain.
Which of the following option would you choose?
A. TCP/IP
B. 802.1z
C. PPTP
D. DHCP
E. L2TP
F. IPsec
Answer: F
Explanation:
To ensure that only the computers that have the latest Microsoft updates installed should be able to connect to servers in the domain and that only the computers that are joined to the domain should be able to connect to servers in the domain, you need to use the IPSec NAP enforcement method. IPsec domain and server isolation methods are used to prevent unmanaged computers from accessing network resources. This method enforces health policies when a client computer attempts to communicate with another computer using IPsec.
Reference: Protecting a Network from Unmanaged Clients / Solutions
http://www.microsoft.com/technet/security/midsizebusiness/topics/serversecurity/unmanagedclients.mspx
Reference:
Network Access Protection (NAP) Deployment Planning / Choosing Enforcement Methods
http://blogs.technet.com/nap/archive/2007/07/28/network-access-protection-deploymentplanning.
aspx
Question 10.
You work as an enterprise administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network has a domain named ABC.com. All servers in the ABC.com network run Windows Server 2008. The ABC.com network has two web servers named ABC-SR07 and ABC-SR08. ABC.com wants to hosts the company's e-commerce Web site named sales.ABC.com on the two web servers. You receive instructions from the CEO to ensure that the Web site is available even when one of the Web servers is offline. The CEO also wants the session state of the web site to be available should one of the web servers be offline. Additionally, you must be able to support the Web site on up to six Web servers with each Web server having a dedicated IP address.
What action should you take?
A. Configure a two-failover cluster on ABC-SR07 and ABC-SR08.
B. Configure multiple ports for the sales.ABC.com web site.
C. Configure Network Load Balancing on ABC-SR07 and ABC-SR08.
D. Configure the sales.ABC.com web site on each server with the site content on a network
share.
E. Configure multiple host headers for the sales.ABC.com website.
F. Configure multiple IP addresses for the sales.ABC.com website.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that the users of the website would be able to access the Web site if a single server fails. The website should be scalable to as many as seven Web servers and the web servers should be able to store session-state information for all users. It should also provide support for multiple dedicated IP addresses for each Web server. The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature in Windows Server 2008 enhances the availability and scalability of Internet server applications such as those used on Web, FTP, firewall, proxy, virtual private network (VPN), and other mission-critical servers. NLB provides high availability of a website by detecting and recovering from a cluster host that fails or goes offline. You should not use failover clustering in this scenario because failover clustering requires shared storage which is not mentioned in this question.
Reference: Overview of Network Load Balancing
http://technet2.microsoft.com/windowsserver2008/en/library/11dfa41c-f49e-4ee5-8664-
8b81f6fb8af31033.mspx?mfr=true
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Question 1.
Which two-stage configuration process is correct in Cisco IOS XR Software?
A. Enter configuration mode, then make configuration changes.
B. Make configuration changes, then enter "commit" to make configuration changes persist.
C. Make configuration changes, then enter "copy run start" to make configuration changes
persist.
D. Enter admin mode, then make configuration changes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which command displays the target configuration in Cisco IOS XR Software?
A. show config
B. show running-config
C. show config running
D. show config merge
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
What will happen if a new version of Cisco IOS XR Software is installed and activated, and then the router reloads?
A. When the router comes back, the new version is loaded and the old and new versions are on
disk0.
B. When the router comes back, the new version is loaded and only the new version is on disk0.
C. When the router comes back, the old version is loaded and the old and new versions are on
disk0.
D. When the router comes back, the old version is loaded and only the old version is on disk0.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 4.
When is it appropriate to use the commit replace command?
A. When you want to replace the existing configuration for an ipv4 address on an interface.
B. When you want to replace all configurations under router ospf.
C. When you want to replace the entire running configuration with the target configuration.
D. The commit replace command does the same as the commit command.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 5.
Refer to the exhibit.
If all else are good, where could the problem be if a user in the 192.168.0.0/16 subnet reports that they are not able to connect to the router using Telnet?
A. MPP should be configured as out-of-band.
B. Interface GigabitEthernet0/2/0/1 should allow 192.168.0.0/16 address space when using
Telnet.
C. Telnet traffic is going through other interfaces that are not configured in MPP.
D. Interface GigabitEthernet0/2/0/0 should allow 192.168.0.0/16 address space.
E. SNMP peer is not configured to "allow" on interface GigabitEthernet0/2/0/1 which prohibits
Telnet
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
At which SONET layer would you expect to see B3 errors?
A. physical
B. segment
C. line
D. path
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 7.
What is a common cause of increasing NEWPTR errors on a POS interface?
A. dirty fiber
B. incorrect timing
C. Tx and Rx swapped
D. wrong fiber type
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the range of DLCIs that are available for subscribers to configure on a Cisco IOS Frame Relay subinterface?
A. 0-1024
B. 1-2048
C. 0-991
D. 16-1007
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
What is the acronym commonly used to identify a prearranged agreement between a service team and an external service provider?
A. SLA
B. OLA
C. UC
D. SLM
E. CICS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
According to the ITIL® v3 framework, a change that has an "approved" status has met which criteria?
A. The lab testing and operational assessments have been completed, and the change has been
approved and committed to the change scheduler.
B. The operational testing and technical assessments have been completed, and the change has
been approved and committed to the change scheduler.
C. The business and technical assessments have been completed, and the change has been
approved and committed to the change scheduler.
D. The lab testing and technical assessments have been completed, and the change has been
approved but is not yet committed to the change scheduler.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Question 1.
Within a QoS policy-map configuration, one of the traffic classes is configured with the randomdetect dscp-based configuration command. What will that command accomplish?
A. provides congestion management by queueing the traffic using CBWFQ
B. provides congestion management by queueing the traffic using LLQ
C. decreases the probability of congestion by selectively dropping TCP packets before the queue
is full
D. provides congestion avoidance by selectively delaying the delivery of packets with lower
DSCP priority
E. decreases congestion by avoiding global UDP synchronization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
What are three benefits of IntServ and RSVP? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP helps network devices identify dynamic port numbers.
B. IntServ networks will reject or downgrade new RSVP sessions if all reservable bandwidth is
booked somewhere in a path.
C. RSVP signaling is a scalable way to ensure all devices maintain an accurate picture of the
network state.
D. They enable the network to guarantee necessary QoS to individual data flows.
E. The IntServ class-based approach is easy to design and implement.
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which statement about the rates and statistics (such as match, transmit, drop, and police) shown in the show policy-map interface output is true?
A. The rates are computed as a moving average of instantaneous rates.
B. The rates are displayed in real time, which matches the actual traffic rate.
C. The matched statistics of the packet can be cleared only when the router reboots.
D. The matched statistics of the packet are displayed in real time.
E. The traffic policing statistics are displayed in real time.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which four factors can be used for packet classification in a QoS-aware network device? (Choose four.)
A. source address
B. destination address
C. DSCP
D. TTL
E. MQC
F. IP precedence
Answer: A, B, C, F
Explanation:
Question 5.
What are the three primary types of faults associated with QoS fault management? (Choose three.)
A. classification faults
B. buffer faults
C. queue faults
D. marking faults
E. assurance faults
F. physical faults
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation:
Question 6.
Which are the two locations where the SP network device always trusts the QoS markings from its upstream neighbor? (Choose two.)
A. at the ingress PE
B. at the egress PE
C. in the SP core
D. at the ingress CE
E. at the egress CE
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 7.
Which of these correctly describes traffic classification using qos-group?
A. qos-group marking is automatically mapped to MPLS EXP marking.
B. qos-group is only applicable to an MPLS-enabled router.
C. qos-group marking value ranges from 0 to 7.
D. qos-group is local to the router.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which two IP SLA Probe types can be used to measure voice quality? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. ICMP Path Jitter
C. UDP Echo
D. UDP Jitter
E. UDP Delay
F. UDP MOS
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic in CLASS-B is not getting a minimum bandwidth of 192 kb/s in this policy map.
What can be done to correct this?
A. No changes are needed, the site is already correct.
B. The shape peak command should be used instead of the shape average command.
C. Set the shape rate to a CIR higher than 192 kb/s.
D. Decrease the maximum queue size.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which of these describes Short Pipe mode in QoS for MPLS VPN service providers?
A. Service provider can remark customer DSCP values.
B. Service provider does not remark customer DSCP values. (Service provider uses independent
MPLS EXP markings.) Final PE-to-CE policies are based on service provider markings.
C. The customer and service provider share the same DiffServ domain.
D. Service provider does not remark customer DSCP values. (Service provider uses independent
MPLS EXP markings.) Final PE-to-CE policies are based on customer markings.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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