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Question 1.
How are IDS device added into IDS Even Viewer?
A. IDS devices are automatically discovered by IEV
B. IDS devices Initiate a connection request to IEV
C. IDS devices must be manually entered into IEV
D. IDS device’s alarms are automatically sensed by IEV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Add IDS Devices:
Start the IEV
Choose: File->New->Device
Cisco Courseware 10-13
Question 2.
What role would you assign to permit users all viewing operations and the administrative ability to
change only their own passwords when setting up user accounts on a Cisco IDS Sensor?
A operator
B viewer
C service
D guest
E administrator
Answer: B
Explanation:
Viewer – A user that can perform all viewing operations such as viewing events and viewing
some configuration files. The only administrative option available to users with the viewer role is
setting their own password.
Reference:
Cisco Courseware p.6-12.
Question 3.
What is the maximum number of command and control interfaces on an IDS Sensor appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which Cisco IOS command is used to enable the forwarding of packets from the router to the
NM-CIDS?
A. ip cef
B. ip inspect
C. service-module
D. ip cef linecard ipc memory
Answer: A
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Question 1.
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.166.10.0.
Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.166.10.4
B. 192.166.10.5
C. 192.166.10.6
D. 192.166.10.7
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which derault administrator group has delete permissions?
A. admin
B. help-desk
C. add-edit
D. full-control
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for required software evaluates to false on a client machine?
A. The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device.
B. The required software is made available after the user is quarantined.
C. The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing.
D. The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.)
A. a NAC-enabled Cisco router
B. a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
C. a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers
D. a Cisco router to provide VPN services
E. a read-only client operating on an endpoint device
F. a NAC-enabled Cisco switch
Answer: B, C, E
Question 5.
Drag the default username from the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
Question 6.
Drag each feature of a Cisco NAC Appliance solution from the left to its correct benefit on the right.
Answer:
Question 7.
When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. retrieve updates
B. require the use of the Cisco NAA
C. configure session timeout and traffic policies
D. map rules to requirement
E. configure requirements
Answer: E
Question 8.
When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password, and provider.
What should be entered in the Provider drop-down field shown in the exhibit?
A. the authenticating NAS
B. the authorizing NAM
C. the name of the ISP
D. the external authenticating server
Answer: D
Question 9.
What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.)
A. IP-based
B. peer-based
C. host-based
D. manager-based
E. server-based
F. VLAN-based
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of its dependent plug-ins.
What did you forget to do?
A. enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form
B. configure dependent plug-in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus
plug-in rule
C. install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
D. load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in Updates form
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network.
What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
A. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
B. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
C. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
D. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network , if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP-derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ipnetw
ork
Question 2.
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other's routes.
What is the solution?
A. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
B. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke
routers.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.
By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces.
Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken. However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface on RTA, so they are not receiving each other's routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.
Question 3.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured on all routers in the network.
On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
A. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out
inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24.
B. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out
before it declares the neighbor unreachable.
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent out
about network 10.6.1.0/24.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The "show ip eigrp topology" command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route. Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state. The fields to note in this output are as follows: P- Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A- Active; EIGRP computations are "actively" being performed for this destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem. Both are symptoms of the SIA problem. U- Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q- Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R- Reply; a reply packet was sent to this destination. Route information- IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible successor.
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130
172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D EX 172.209.1
[170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239
62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D EX 99.3.215.0/24
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
25.248.17.0/24
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001
62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
D 62.113.1.227/32
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14
A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command
for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 5.
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?
A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces
Answer: B
Explanation:
The show ip eigrp traffic command displays the number of Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) packets sent and received.
Example:
The following is sample output from the show ip eigrp traffic command:
Router# show ip eigrp traffic
IP-EIGRP Traffic Statistics for process 77
Hellos sent/received: 218/205
Updates sent/received: 7/23
Queries sent/received: 2/0
Replies sent/received: 0/2
Acks sent/received: 21/14
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1828/products_command_reference_chapter09186a00800ca5a9.html#wp1018815
Question 6.
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
B. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the
network.
C. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
D. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
E. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
Answer: A, C, E
Question 7.
Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).
A. An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP
topology table.
B. An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C. DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown
state.
D. A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only after all the
query requests have been replied to.
E. The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
F. EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process.
Answer: A, E
Question 8.
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).
A. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
B. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
C. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
D. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
F. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
Answer: B, C, E
Question 9.
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. All the routes are in the passive mode because R1 is in the query process for those routes.
B. R1 is in AS 200.
C. R1 will load balance between three paths to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix because all three
paths have the same advertised distance (AD) of 40512000.
D. 40512000 is the advertised distance (AD) via 192.168.1.66 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28
prefix.
E. All the routes are in the passive mode because these routes are in the hold-down state.
F. The best path for R1 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix is via 192.168.1.66.
Answer: B, D, F
Explanation:
It can be determined that AS 200 is used, from the fact that the IS-IS process ID is labeled as 200. The best path to reach the network 192.168.1.48/28 is the first one displayed in the routing table. This can be further demonstrated by the fact that the metric is less than the alternative route, via serial 0. Finally, the AD can be found by viewing the second number within the parentheses, which in this case is 40512000.
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured with the default configuration on all routers. Auto summarization is enabled on routers R2 and R3, but it is disabled on router R1.
Which two EIGRP routes will be seen in the routing table of router R3? (Choose two.)
A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 172.16.10.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 10.10.10.0/24
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 10.10.0.0/16
Answer: D, E
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Question 1.
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one
profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and
used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client
adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable
encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be
used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
You can configure your Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter through the Cisco ADU or a third-party tool, such as the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager. Because third-party tools may not provide all the functionality available in ADU, Cisco recommends that you use ADU. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter as well as Aironet Desktop Utility establish the association between the client adapter and Access Point, allows to authenticate wireless client, allows to configure encryption by setting static WEP, WPA/WPA2 passphrase.
Section 3: Perform routine IOS device maintenance (0 Questions)
Section 4: Isolate sub-optimal internetwork operation at the correctly defined OSI Model layer (2
Questions)
Question 2.
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 (L2) protocol designed to run on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is called 802.1d. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not run into a loop situation when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.
Question 3.
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast.
Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that
indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved
value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address
into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved
value that indicates a multicast application.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
The point of this question is the form of multicast MAC address, and the conversion between the multicast MAC address and IP address. The multicast MAC address is 6 bytes(48 bits), the first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E, the last 3 bytes(24 bits) of the multicast MAC address =0 + 23 bit(the last 23 bit of the IP address). "0x01-00-5E" is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. So option B and D are correct.
Question 4.
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages.
What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU
utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to
Process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Missing replies, not missing ACKs, cause SIA.
B: Routes updates do not cause SIA.Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it readvertises all routes to that neighbor.
Reference: Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing
Protocolhttp://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/eigrp3.html
Question 5.
Part of the routing table of router R1 is displayed below:
S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130
172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D EX 172.209.1
[170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239
62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D EX 99.3.215.0/24
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
25.248.17.0/24
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001
62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
D 62.113.1.227/32
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14
From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 90
D. 170
E. 27316
F. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
Explanation:
By default an external EIGRP route has a value of 170. By examining the exhibit we see that this default value of the external EIGRP routes (see D-EX in exhibit) indeed is set to 170. The first value within the brackets display the AD, so with a value of [170/27316] the AD is 170 and the metric of the route is 27316.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table.
B: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table.
C: This is the AD of the internal EIGRP routes, which is the default
E: This is the EIGRP metric of the external EIGRP routes.Reference: What Is Administrative
Distance?http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/105/admin_distance.html
Question 6.
The network is shown below, along with the relevant router configurations:
R1# show run
interface Loopback0
ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface Ethernet0
ip address 172.29.1.1 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
!
router eigrp 999
redistribute connected
network 172.29.0.0
auto-summary
no eigrp log-neighbor-changes
!
ip classless
no ip http server
R2# show run
interface Ethernet0
ip address 172.29.1.2 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
interface Ethernet1
ip address 172.19.2.2 255.255.255.0
media-type 10BaseT
!
router eigrp 999
network 172.19.0.0
network 172.29.0.0
!
ip classless
no ip http server
R3# show run
interface Ethernet1/0
ip address 172.19.2.3 255.255.255.0
!
router eigrp 999
network 172.19.0.0
auto-summary
no eigrp log-neighbor-changes
!
ip classless
ip http server
With the topology found in the graphic, what will the R1 loopback 0 be in the R3 routing table?
A. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0/8.
B. It will show up in the routing table as D EX 10.0.0.0/8.
C. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0./24.
D. It will not show up in R3 routing table because there is no network command on R1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Because router R1 is configured with route redistribution, it will redistribute the connected loopback network into EIGRP. Because redistributed routes will show up as external EIGRP routes in the routing table, choice B is correct. Although the loopback interface is using a /24 subnet mask, EIGRP summarizes at network boundaries by default so the network will appear as the class A network of 10.0.0.0/8 in the routing table of the other routers.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The route will be external, since it was redistributed into EIGRP.
C: It will be external because of redistribution, and it will also be summarized since that is the default behavior of EIGRP.
D: Although it was not configured under the EIGRP network command, it would be redistributed because it is a connected route.
Question 7.
The EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram:
You work as a network technician. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command "variance 3" was added to the EIGRP configuration of R5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from R5 to network X?
A. R5-R2-R1
B. R5-R2-R1 and R5-R3-R1.
C. R5-R3-R1 and R5-R4-R1.
D. R5-R2-R1,R5-R3-R1, and R5-R4-R1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition, Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance n command in order to instruct the router to include routes with a metric of less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128. The default is 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. In this question the variance 3 command is used . In this instance, R5 can get to Net X using the path R5-R3 = metric of 10, and R3-R1 = 10 as well with the FD between R5 - R1 being 10 + 10 = 20. Therefore, we can load balance on any route that had an FD of 3x the successor, or 3x20, which is 60 Important Note: If a path does not meet the feasibility condition, the path is not used in load balancing. This is why chose D is wrong as this path has an Advertised Distance of 25 which is greater than the successors FD. The link below refers to an example that is nearly identical to the example in this question, except theirs used a variance of 2 and this question used a variance of 3.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
Question 8.
The following command was issued on Router 2:
Given the above output shown above, which statement is true?
A. 192.168.1.0 is a redistributed route into EIGRP.
B. 192.168.1.0 is a summarized route.
C. 192.168.1.0 is a static route.
D. 192.168.1.0 is equal path load balancing with 172.16.1.0.
E. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: A
Explanation:
When EIGRP learns the routing information from the different routing protocol it uses D EX symbol to indicate that this routing information has learned from other routing protocol.
Question 9.
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true?
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
C. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
E. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Answer: A, F
Explanation:
Metrics are the mathematics used to select a route. The higher the metric associated with a route, the less desirable it is. For EIGRP, the Bellman-Ford algorithm uses the following equation and creates the overall 24-bit metric assigned to a route:
* metric = [(K1 × bandwidth) + [( K2 × bandwidth) ÷ (256 - load)] + (K3 × delay)] × [K5 ÷ (reliability + K4)]
The elements in this equation are as follows:
* By default, K1 = K3 = 1, K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. Therefore, by default, the metric formula reduces to: metric = (1 × bandwidth) + (1 × delay)
metric = bandwidth + delay
K Values should be same to become the EIGRP neighbors.
Question 10.
Study the exhibit below carefully:
If the configuration shown below is added to Router1, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers? (Select three)
router eigrp 10
network 10.0.0.0
eigrp stub
A. 192.168.20.0/24
B. 10.1.2.0/24
C. 10.1.1.0/24
D. 10.1.3.0/24
E. 10.0.0.0/8
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers.
Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message "inaccessible." A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
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Question 1.
In which service component of the prepare phase would you identify factors such as solution goals, business drivers, and success criteria?
A. High-Level Design Development
B. Technology Strategy Development
C. Proof of Concept
D. Business Requirements Development
Answer: B
Question 2.
In which service component in the design phase would you provide a site-specific system implementation plan which defines the activities, configurations, and commissioning test plans required to implement routing and switching solution components and software?
A. Detailed Design Development
B. Systems Acceptance Test Plan Development
C. Project Kick-off
D. Implementation Plan Development
E. Staging Plan Development
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which two service components are performed during the implement phase? (Choose two.)
A. Phased Implementation
B. Configuration Management
C. Site Readiness Specification
D. Staging
E. Security Readiness Assessment
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
Which of these best describes the actions you would take during the technology strategy development service component?
A. Analyze the customer's business requirements and recommend the appropriate technologies
to meet those business requirements.
B. Address the customer's physical site requirements.
C. Identify the customer's business requirements for the proposed solution.
D. Determine the appropriate end user training needed for the technology solution.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which service component in the implement phase includes activities such as verifying that the customer understands the operational processes and its post-sales support responsibilities?
A. Post-Implementation Support Handoff Meeting
B. Project Planning
C. Develop escalation process
D. Update leading practices
Answer: A
Question 6.
Utilizing a trouble ticketing system to track problems is a part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. Operations Setup
B. Change Management
C. Problem Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is the primary objective of performing a network readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. align business requirements to technical requirements
B. assess the current network infrastructure's ability to adequately support the new solution and
identify new requirements
C. create a plan to recycle used equipment
D. install and test system components in a non-production environment
Answer: B
Question 8.
In which service component of the prepare phase would you provide a technology-focused, business-focused, or technology- and business-focused demonstration of the technology solution to highlight the features and benefits?
A. Technology Strategy Development
B. Deliver Proposal
C. Proof of Concept
D. High-Level Design Development
E. Customer Education
Answer: E
Question 9.
In which service component would you notify all project participants of their specific responsibilities during the planning phase of the project?
A. Proposal Delivery
B. Account Planning
C. Planning Project Kickoff
D. Site Readiness Assessment
Answer: C
Question 10.
Define procedures to manage access to all systems is an activity that is part of which service component in the operate phase?
A. Security Administration
B. Service Review
C. Problem Management
D. Systems Monitoring
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which security protocol is both an inherently flawed, one-way, device-centric form of authentication and a 40-bit encryption key?
A. Secure Socket Layer
B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Socket Layer
C. Secure Shell Protocol
D. Wired Equivalent Privacy
Answer: D
Question 2.
When building an IT case for ITCertKeys.com, you must address security in addition to which three other customer needs? (Choose three.)
A. cost-effective network
B. easy installation
C. flexibility
D. increased productivity
E. interoperability
F. scalability
Answer: B, C, E
Question 3.
What is the best description of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network?
A. It enables public sector agencies to deploy a secure, scalable, broadband network that
integrates wired and wireless IP infrastructures, delivering network intelligence and
applications for mobile users across a city.
B. It is a powerful solution for enterprises that want to combine the best elements of wireless and
wired networking to deliver scalable, manageable, and secure wireless LANs with a low total
cost of ownership.
C. It uses a single network infrastructure for the transmission of data, voice, and video traffic,
delivering the business benefits of a converged, wireless network to enterprise-level
organizations.
D. It is the only unified wired and wireless solution for service providers in the industry. It is cost-
effective and addresses the WLAN security, deployment, management, and control issues
facing service providers today.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What are the three best responses to a director of a healthcare facility whose primary concern is mitigating risks, such as medical record errors, malpractice suits, and poor bedside care? (Choose three.)
A. A Cisco WLAN enables real-time tracking of important equipment, supplies, and key
personnel.
B. A Cisco WLAN minimizes the risk of errors by automating tracking of medications, supplies,
and personnel.
C. A Cisco WLAN can extend to each patient room, allowing tracking of patient information at the
bedside at all times.
D. A Cisco WLAN enables patient medication to be tracked at the bedside, which minimizes the
risk of errors in dosage or identification.
E. A Cisco WLAN can be used to monitor vital signs in each patient room. This would reduce the
cost and time of manual tracking.
F. A Cisco WLAN can ensure secure intrusion protection throughout the hospital campus.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 5.
Which Cisco technology can be used to create a detailed wireless LAN design, including access point placement, configuration, and performance estimates?
A. Cisco Network Admission Control Appliance
B. Cisco wireless location appliance
C. Cisco wireless LAN controller
D. Cisco Wireless Control System
Answer: D
Question 6.
What are three capabilities of a wireless LAN? (Choose three.)
A. provides wireline equivalent security
B. makes cabling obsolete
C. interacts with wired LAN systems that are already in place
D. communicates with repeater access points
E. requires little to no centralized management
F. boosts productivity by up to 10 percent
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco offers a variety of options for installing or improving network security on the WLAN.
Which two recommendations should be made to a customer who wants a Cisco WLAN security solution? (Choose two.)
A. enable Wi-Fi Protected Access functionality for encryption
B. enable Triple Data Encryption Standard functionality for encryption
C. deploy 802.1x for 802.11 standards for authentication
D. deploy a Service Set Identifier for authentication
E. deploy a Wireless Equivalent Privacy for authentication
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
Which two vertical segments actively use the adoption of 802.11 technology as a competitive differentiator? (Choose two.)
A. Education uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more students. Wireless
networking creates a competitive advantage over schools and colleges that cannot provide
access anytime, anywhere.
B. Government uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more residents to individual
localities. Wireless networking creates a competitive advantage over municipalities that cannot
provide access anytime, anywhere.
C. Healthcare uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more patients. Wireless
networking creates a competitive advantage over hospitals that cannot provide ready access to
patient data.
D. Hospitality uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more guests. A wireless network
attracts tradeshow exhibitors and conference coordinators, and it increases customer loyalty
for hospitality and hotel establishments.
E. Retail uses the adoption of 802.11 technology to attract more customers. Wireless networking
creates a competitive advantage over stores that cannot provide accuracy of inventory and
pricing.
Answer: A, D
Question 9.
Which method was devised to mitigate the 802.11 security issues and requires the next-generation Advanced Encryption Standard?
A. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which three facts can be used to correctly describe the proven customer track record of Cisco Systems? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco has more than 70,000 Cisco wireless LAN customers worldwide.
B. Cisco has deployed more than 2.1 million Cisco access points worldwide.
C. Cisco has deployed the second-largest wireless network, with 5,000 dual-band access points.
D. Cisco has been ranked as one of the top global providers of wireless LAN solutions by
InformationWeek 500.
E. Cisco has received two IEEE Corporate Innovation Recognition awards.
F. Cisco has developed products that are used by 95 percent of Fortune 500 companies.
Answer: A, B, F
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Question 1.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco client security software applications. Match the applications with the descriptions.
Answer:
Question 2.
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Broadcast and fault domains are increased
B. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP
D. IP Address space is difficult to manage
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback
Answer: D, E
Question 3.
Which two of these key fields are used to identify a flow in a traditional NetFlow implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Destination IP Address
B. Output Interface
C. Source MAC address
D. Next-hop IP Address
E. Source Port
F. Next-hop MAC Address
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?
A. Termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. Designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not
supported
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPSec VPN
D. Addressing designs need to allow for summarization
Answer: D
Question 5.
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?
A. When preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
B. When the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution switch
C. When HSRP is not supported by the design
D. When a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E. When multiple vendor devices need to be supported
F. When the design implements Layer 3 between the access switch and the distribution switch
Answer: F
Question 6.
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA
propagation
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two.)
A. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service
B. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50% of the capacity of the link
C. At least 23 percent of the link bandwidth should be reserved for default best-effort class
D. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue
E. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
Which statement about IDS/IPS design is correct?
A. An IPS should be deployed if the security policy does not support the denial of traffic
B. Bandwidth considerations must be taken into account since IDS is deployed inline to traffic
flow
C. An IDS analyze a copy of the monitored traffic and not the actual forwarded packet
D. Traffic impact considerations are increased when deploying an IDS over an IPS sensor
Answer: C
Question 9.
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. Between two layer devices without trunking
B. Between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
C. Between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking
D. Bridging two VLANs on one switch
E. Bridging VLANs on two switches
Answer: A, B
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Mrs. ITCertKeys, in Cisco NAC appliance components. Match the applications with the appropriate descriptions.
Answer:
|
Question 1.
How often is the Cisco WAE running the edge file service able to cache previously-seen files to ensure the files are not stale?
A. According to a user-specified schedule
B. Every Hour
C. Every Time the file is opened
D. Every Time the file is modified
Answer: C
Question 2.
You should recommended PBR to a customer that requires which type of support?
A. Failover but not load balancing
B. Failover and load Balancing
C. Asymmetric Routing
D. Symmetric Routing
Answer: A
Question 3.
How often does an Cisco WAE negotiate the policy to be used for a given connection?
A. Every Time a TCP connection is established through the WAE
B. Every Time a new Client-Server pair initiates communication
C. Once, after which the WAE uses the policy for all connections
D. Twice, once for outgoing and once for incoming traffic
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which statement best describes Cisco WAAS Transport Flow Optimization?
A. TFO optimizes CIFS connections for client-server traffic
B. TFO streamlines file locking semantics
C. TFO optimizes TCP connections for client-server traffic
D. TFO is a data compression method
Answer: C
Question 5.
Refer to Exhibit:
ITCertKeys.com has deployed a Cisco WAE in its data center. The servers that are being optimized are on subnet 10.1.20/24 and the WAE has been configured with the IP Address 10.1.2.50. However, routing loops have resulted from this configuration.
How can the customer fix the problem?
A. Configure a WCCPv2 redirect exclude directive
B. Redeploy the WAE on a Different Subnet or VLAN subinterface
C. Configure a PBR access list to exclude the WAE IP Address
D. Correct the configuration of the WCCPv2 service groups
Answer: B
Question 6.
When you size a Cisco WAAS solution, you should assume that how many of the total number of concurrent TCP connections per user will be optimized?
A. 25-40
B. 4-7
C. 14-20
D. 1-2
Answer: B
Question 7.
According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection architecture,
Which security feature should be applied at the access layer?
A. Anti-spoofing Mechanisms
B. Control Plane Protection
C. Traffic rate limitation
D. CPU and Memory Thresholds
Answer: C
Question 8.
You have configured a Central Manager WAE cluster for ITCertKeys.com. After a technician accidentally unplugs the power cord from the primary central manager WAE, the network administrator calls you to complain that the standby central manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role.
What should you tell this administrator?
A. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliances are on the same subnet
B. You Must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE
C. You must manually copy the Central Manager Database to the standby Central Manager WAE
D. You should verify that the datafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly
Answer: B
Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com's service provider manages its WAN infrastructure. The customer wants to deploy Cisco WAAS to accelerate file services for a small number of branch offices, but the service provider manages the routers at each site and ITCertKeys.com's terms of service prohibit the customer from customizing router configurations.
Which interception method should you recommend?
A. PBR
B. ACE
C. Inline card
D. WCCPv2
Answer: C
Question 10.
What are three benefits of using the Cisco WAE file blocking features? (Choose three.)
A. Minimizes the transfer of unsanctioned data
B. Ensures that files can't be edited until they are synchronized between the branch and the data
center
C. Prevents multiple users from attempting to edit the same file
D. Reduce the use of network resources
E. Controls which file types stored on the data center file server
F. Eliminates data redundancy
Answer: A, D, E
|
Question 1.
Which Cisco Security product is used to perform a Security Posture Assessment of client workstations?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Cisco Security Agent
C. Cisco Security Posture Assessment Tool
D. Cisco NAS Appliance
E. Cisco ACS
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Allowed IP Address ranges
B. Network Port Scanning Plug-ins
C. VPN and roaming policies
D. Inactivity period
E. Session Duration
F. Minimum Password length
Answer: B, C, E
Question 3.
Which two components should be included in a network design document? (Choose two.)
A. Complete network blueprint
B. Operating Expense
C. Risk Analysis
D. Configuration for each device
E. Detailed part list
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security modules. Match the descriptions with the proper module. Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 5.
Which statement is true about the Cisco Security MARS Global Controller?
A. Rules that are created on a Local Controller can be pushed to the Global Controller
B. Most data archiving is done by the Global Controller
C. The Global Controller receives detailed incidents information from the Local Controllers and
correlates the incidents between multiple Local Controllers
D. The Global Controller Centrally Manages of a group of Local Controllers
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network?
A. The Certificates of the device and its peer
B. The Certificates of the certificate authority, the device and the peer
C. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the peer
D. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the device
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which three Cisco Security products help to prevent application misuse and abuse? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco IOS FW and IPS
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Trust Agent
F. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access)
Answer: A, B, D
Question 8.
DRAG DROP
You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested attack methodologies. Match the descriptions with the proper methodology.
Use only options that apply.
Answer:
Question 9.
Which two of these features are integrated security components of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? (Chose two.)
A. VRF-aware firewall
B. Cisco ASA AIP SSM
C. VTI
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Anti-X
F. DMVPN
Answer: B, E
Question 10.
Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design?
A. Computer simulation
B. Network audit
C. Sing-off by the operations team
D. Pilot or prototype network
E. Analysis of earlier attacks
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: B
Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows:
Conference 1: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced
continuous presence
Conference 2: three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3: three conference participants
What will occur when the third conference is attempted?
A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for
three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide
the number of required services.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Exhibit:
ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System.
Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers.
Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
Exhibit:
A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones.
Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667
Answer: A
Question 6.
Exhibit:
CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711.
In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?
A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922
kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384
kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768
kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps
between the central site and each remote site.
Answer: C
Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding.
What should this company purchase?
A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)
A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
Exhibit:
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones.
Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?
A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?
A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing
Answer: A
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