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i am required some new dumps please upload urgently.. thanks in advance...
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Question 1.
Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other
checks can restrict access to the logon screen
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL's can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL's can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL's require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when
the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page
will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL's.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit,
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented
with a logon screen.
B. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged
into the FirePass controller.
C. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be
presented with a logon screen.
D. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be
presented with a logon screen.
E. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be
logged into the FirePass controller.
F. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be
logged into the FirePass controller.
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?
A. https:///admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
B. https:///admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active
Mode".
C. https:///admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover
Status set to "Active".
D. https:///admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current
Failover Status set to "Active".
Answer: B
Question 5.
A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script.
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin
console.
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance"
script.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which statement is true for users in a group when the "Show administrator-defined favorites only" option is enabled?
A. They cannot configure their own user favorites.
B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient
privileges.
C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as
FirePass.
D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the
web-site address.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
1.restart First (Primary)
2.restart Second (Secondary)
3.enable Failover option on First
4.enable Failover option on Second
5.configure virtual IP Address on First
6. configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers?
A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent.
B. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.
D. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is true about the Failover Synchronization process on FirePass?
A. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby automatically.
B. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active automatically.
C. The Synchronization process can be configured using a virtual IP Address.
D. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby manually by an Administrator.
E. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active manually by an Administrator.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which three types of applications are supported by the Application Access Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A. TN3270 access to mainframe
B. TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C. TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems (System i)
D. Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E. full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A. IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B. HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C. HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D. A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E. HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Answer: D, E
Question 2.
When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A. TPC-B
B. number of CPUs
C. delta performance
D. estimated performance
Answer: D
Question 3.
What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A. HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B. HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C. HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D. HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E. HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Answer: A, C
Question 4.
Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing (OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware platform?
A. a data warehouse
B. a bank with automatic teller machines
C. an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D. a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Answer: B
Question 5.
Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity servers against other vendors for Linux.
Which competitive concept should be included in your document?
A. HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B. HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C. HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D. HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Answer: C
Question 6.
When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should you discuss? (Select two.)
A. HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B. Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C. PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D. The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E. Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor (ISV) support.
Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A. More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is
growing.
B. HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without
performance loss.
C. The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be
included in the customer's business plans.
D. Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors,
they cover every needed type of application.
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium- based systems?
A. chipsets
B. full redundancy
C. faster clock speeds
D. memory expandability
Answer: A
Question 9.
Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over Gigabit Ethernet LAN to save their data to a library.
Which technology will improve performance?
A. NIC bonding
B. NIC teaming
C. Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D. Advanced Technology Attachment
Answer: C
Question 10.
What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A. HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B. IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C. HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D. IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which tool can be used to force a reboot of a SWAN/SWAN 2 CLIP?
A. WANDUMP
B. WANFBT
C. WANLNCK
D. WANTCB
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which components can you install on the system console using the OSM Installer DVD? (Select two.)
A. Event Viewer
B. Low Level Link
C. Notification Director
D. Service Connection
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
When replacing a PMF, within how much time must the power cable be reconnected?
A. 15 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 25 seconds
D. 30 seconds
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is used to replace a SWAN/SWAN2 concentrator?
A. WAN Wizard PRO
B. Guided Procedures
C. SCF
D. SP Tool
Answer: C
Question 5.
The SP Tool has identified a faulty X fabric cable between enclosure 1 and enclosure 3.
Which connector on the SEB in enclosure 1 is affected?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Question 6.
Using the HP suggested naming convention, identify the G4SA group, module, slot and port number of LIF L112E.
A. GRP-11, MOD-2, SLOT-2, PORT-E
B. GRP-112, MOD-2, SLOT-2, PORT-E
C. GRP-11, MOD-2,SLOT-2, PORT-A
D. GRP-112, MOD-2, SLOT-2, PORT-A
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which action is required before replacing an X Fabric fiber-optic cable between MSEB and Switch-to-Node ports?
A. Verify that internal Y fabric for all other nodes are fully operational.
B. Verify that external Y fabric for all other nodes are fully operational.
C. Verify that both internal and external Y fabric for all other nodes are fully operational.
D. Verify that both external X and Y fabric for all other nodes are fully operational.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which preventive maintenance tasks are performed on an S-series server?(Select two.)
A. testing the fiber optic cables
B. cleaning tape drives regularly
C. running diagnostics on all devices
D. dusting or cleaning enclosures as needed
E. running traces on all communication lines
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
To display all of the Fiber Channel Disks installed on the system along with their path states, what step(s) must be taken from the OSM Service Connection?
A. Click the Logical Status icon, logon using the pop-up window, and then click on the FC Disk
resource type.
B. Click the Display icon and then choose the Attributes menu selection.
C. Click the Summary icon and then choose the Connection Status menu selection.
D. Click the Tools icon and then choose the Physical Configuration Tool menu selection.
Answer: A
Question 10.
To view the entire hardware inventory of the system, what steps must be taken?
A. Select the system item in the hierarchical view, and then use the display Menu attributes item.
B. Right-click on the system item in the hierarchical view, and then select the httributes sub-menu
item.
C. Double-click on the system item in the hierarchical view.
D. Select the system item in the hierarchical view, and then change the view from physical to
nventory.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
HP Systems Insight Manager and HP Storage Essentials provide server and storage management through a central management platform.
Which functions are included? (Select three.)
A. integrated security
B. storage array configuration
C. array discovery and identification
D. access to storage on unmanaged hosts
E. assignment of a new management server
F. speed modification on Fibre Channel connections
Answer: A, B, C
Question 2.
Which activities can be monitored with Storage Essentials? (Select two.)
A. storage growth planning
B. disaster recovery planning
C. storage network traffic sniffing
D. domain user rights identification
E. underutilized storage identification
Answer: A, E
Question 3.
What is a recommended prerequisite for a hardware or software product to become HP Storage Essentials compliant?
A. Fibre Channel support
B. Windows 2000 or 2003 server platform
C. HP Systems Insight Manager compatibility
D. Storage Network Industry Association conformance
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which statement about Storage Essentials Solution Service is correct?
A. The product warranty is extended with Level 3.
B. At least one level must be included in each quote.
C. Storage Essentials is customer installable and all levels are optional.
D. Software installation, configuration and testing are only included in Level 1.
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which HP Storage Essentials features include direct attached storage? (Select two.)
A. schedule of provisioning tasks
B. display of ports in Performance Monitor
C. display of connections in System Manager
D. schedule of port performance data collection
E. display of reachable ports in Path Provisioning
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
What extends HP Systems Insight Manager with additional SAN management and monitoring functionality?
A. entering a new license key
B. installation of SMI-S providers
C. the CIM extension on managed hosts
D. a CIMOM client enabled on the storage system
Answer: B
Question 7.
What are the two components of the connector?
A. SE Database connector which connects both HP SIM and HP Storage Essentials to the
database
B. ODBC connector which connects HP SIM to HP Storage Essentials; HP SIM connector which
connects HP Storage Essentials to HP SIM
C. MySQL connector which connects HP SIM to HP Storage Essentials; HP SIM connector which
connects HP Storage Essentials to HP SIM
D. Storage Essentials connector which connects HP SIM to HP Storage Essentials; HP SIM
connector which connects HP Storage Essentials to HP SIM
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which infrastructure service is required on the central management server host to install Storage Essentials?
A. CIM
B. SNMP
C. CIMOM
D. SMI-S provider
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which security feature protects the intercommunication of HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM), its clients, and its users?
A. Secure Shell based scripting is limited to UNIX platforms.
B. HP-signed Secure Socket Layer certificates ensure authenticity.
C. Secure Task Execution limits access from specific HP SIM servers.
D. Secure Shell known_hosts files contain a list of discovered servers.
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is a characteristic of HP Systems Insight Manager with regard to open system management platform design?
A. It may be extended by using third party plug-ins.
B. It is licensed for exclusive use with HP components.
C. It supports only HP platforms, whereas any platform integrates with HP OpenView.
D. It primarily uses SNMP to contact devices; other connection methods are optional and must be
purchased.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
What must be considered when migrating the Cell Manager from a PA-RISC to an Integrity system?
A. Reinstall the media agents.
B. The new Cell Server should have the same name.
C. Import the Internal Database (IDB) from tape media.
D. The new Cell Server should have the same IP address.
Answer: D
Question 2.
What must be done to integrate Data Guard on UNIX systems?
A. Install the Data Guard Integration Agent.
B. Start the HP Data Protector Software Inet service as Oracle user.
C. Start RMAN from the HP Data Protector Software admin account.
D. Add the Oracle user to the HP Data Protector Software admin group.
Answer: D
Question 3.
What must be done to migrate the Internal Database (IDB) from a PA-RISC to an Itanium system?
A. omnidbutil
B. omniupdate.pl
C. omnidbcheck
D. omnimigrate.pl
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which operation is unsupported for an Oracle standby database?
A. physical backup
B. backup using the recovery catalog
C. conversion to a standalone database
D. configuration with a primary database
Answer: C
Question 5.
You want to integrate HP Data Protector Software with Oracle-based SAP R/3 on UNIX.
Which backup modes can you use? (Select two.)
A. RMAN
B. backint
C. SAPback
D. BRTOOLS E. BRBACKUP
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Where must you specify the login credentials with util_oracle8.pl to configure a new Oracle standby database?
A. Oracle database server
B. on each Oracle standby instance
C. HP Data Protector Software Cell Manager
D. database server and the standby systems
Answer: B
Question 7.
For which Oracle database type is the exclusion of single objects from a full backup unsupported?
A. standby database
B. standalone database
C. recovery catalog database
D. multiple-instances database
Answer: A
Question 8.
You are integrating an SAP R/3 backup running on UNIX in HP Data Protector Software.
What must be done before using the Oracle online backup functionality?
A. Link HP Data Protector Software library to Oracle.
B. Add sysdba user account to HP Data Protector Software userlist.
C. Replace omnidb command with Oracle version of this command.
D. Add ORACLE_SID variable in HP Data Protector Software global file.
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the purpose of online migration in ASM (Automated Storage Management)?
A. data movement from disk to disk
B. online replication to a standby database
C. online database backup to tape devices
D. data sharing between different database servers
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the recommended method to configure HP Data Protector Software version 6.0 Cell Manager after migration from HP-UX 11.x to HP-UX V.11.23?
A. Create a local user account on the Cell Manager, log in to it, and use the Command Line
Interface.
B. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and
use telnet.
C. Log in to the Cell Manager locally using the root account, and use the HP Data Protector
Software graphical user interface.
D. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and
use the HP Data Protector Software graphical user interface.
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. HA can be implemented just by purchasing expensive hardware.
B. HA is a technical high-performance environment that does not consider business needs.
C. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
D. HA systems provide a disaster recovery solution to recover from the loss of an entire data
center.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software and computing hardware
enhancements that are made to maximize the time that the application and system are
available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some
kind of backup system hardware, a UPS for power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: C, E, F
Question 2.
In the context of high availability, what is the effect of split-brain syndrome?
A. different partitions accessing the same disks without knowledge of each other
B. two sub-clusters initiated from a single cluster without knowledge of each other
C. different applications accessing the same disk without knowledge of each other
D. two clusters initiating an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously
Answer: B
Question 3.
Using drag and drop, match each single point of failure with the solution to prevent it.
Answer:
Question 4.
What is the main feature of OLAR?
A. the ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OLAR
B. the ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OLAR
C. the ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OLAR
D. the ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OLAR while it is configured in a
Serviceguard cluster
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. the amount of time to restart a failed service
B. the amount of time to restart a service after a failure
C. the amount of time a system can provide service without failure
D. the amount of time between stopping and starting a service after a failure
Answer: C
Question 6.
When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, WLM integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM can move processors from one virtual partition to another.
B. cmcld can move processors from one virtual partition to another.
C. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
D. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which statements are correct regarding a Serviceguard cluster with SGeRAC and Oracle RAC? (Select two.)
A. If CFS is used then RAW devices are not allowed.
B. Each Oracle instance must have its own unique database.
C. The shared disk devices can be a SLVM RAW device or a CFS.
D. SGeRAC cannot be configured together with Cluster File System (CFS).
E. You can have more than one Oracle instance accessing the same database at the same time.
Answer: C, E
Question 8.
What are the advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. user scalability
B. hardware scalability
C. application scalability
D. larger database size
E. better database security
F. operating system scalability
G. shorter package failover time
Answer: B, C, F
Question 9.
What is the purpose of the node interconnect in a Serviceguard cluster with Oracle RAC implementation?
A. Nodes coordinate their online/offline status.
B. Nodes coordinate the status of their hardware.
C. Nodes coordinate the consistency of their Serviceguard cluster membership.
D. Nodes coordinate the consistency of their individual memory resident database buffer pools.
Answer: D
Question 10.
A cost sensitive customer wants to utilize Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) for an Oracle single instance database within a Serviceguard cluster.
Which HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite bundles should you recommend?
A. Bundle 1: HP Serviceguard Storage Management
B. Bundle 2: HP Serviceguard Storage Management Premium
C. Bundle 3: HP Serviceguard Storage Management for Oracle
D. Bundle 4: HP Serviceguard Storage Management for Oracle Premium
E. Bundle 5: HP Serviceguard Cluster File System
F. Bundle 6: HP Serviceguard Cluster File System for Oracle
G. Bundle 7: HP Serviceguard Cluster File System for RAC
Answer: C
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Question 1. What is an indicator of a poorly performing system? A. page-faults of 0.01 per second B. processor imbalance of 5 % C. queue-length of 10 D. transaction rate of 10 transactions per second Answer: C Question 2. What is the objective of capacity planning? A. To justify the return on investment and determine user community satisfaction. B. To ensure the system is fully utilized and there is no resource contention. C. To ensure that the system is well balanced and meeting the service level agreement. D. To determine if or when additional capacity is needed to meet the SLA. Answer: D Question 3. Which NonStop Himalaya S-series NonStop Kernel tool is used to perform capacity planning? A. TPM B. TPDC C. TCM D. GPA Answer: C Question 4. What are the benefits of running a program in native mode? Select TWO A. allows TNS and native code to be combined B. allows to run as high-PIN C. object file size is significantly larger D. larger stack space is supported E. runs faster than TNS and accelerated code Answer: D, E Question 5. Which utility is used to determine the current number of index levels in a key-sequenced file? A. NSX B. PEEK C. FUP D. TCM Answer: C Question 6. Which SCF command will save the current disk configuration to a file named CONF0102? A. SAVE CONFIGURATION CONF0102 B. SAVE CONFIGURATION 1.2 C. SAVE DISK, FILE CONF0102 D. OBEY FORM /OUT CONF0102/ DISK Answer: B Question 7. Which tool is used to revert to a previously saved system configuration database? A. DSM/SCM B. SQLCI C. TSM D. SCF Answer: C Question 8. Which facility is used to forward events from the primary collector ($0) to the TSM console? A. EMS alternate collector B. compatibility distributor C. EMS trap subagent D. TSM service application Answer: B Question 9. Which DSM facility provides event collection, logging, and distribution facilities? A. TM/MP B. EMS C. SQL D. DSM/SCM Answer: B Question 10. Burst detection and suppression is used to A. limit network bandwidth use B. delete rapid and repetitive events C. minimize voltage fluctuations D. control the growth of SQL tables Answer: B
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Question 1. A customer has an entry-level VA cluster solution using MS Windows. A Fibre Channel fabric infrastructure will be installed at a later date. The solution must support two servers in a Windows cluster and provide path failover functionality. Which VA will best suit this customer environment with the least additional investment? A. VA7100 B. VA7110 C. VA7400 D. VA7410 Answer: D Question 2. Which types of interface can be used with AutoPath VA for configuration and maintenance purposes? Select TWO. A. GUI B. Virtual Front Panel C. CVUI D. CLI E. LVC Answer: A, D Question 3. Business Copy licenses are based on the ______. A. number of hosts in the SAN B. amount of raw capacity on the VA C. number of hosts in the SAN and the amount of raw capacity on the VA D. number of switch ports in the SAN Answer: B Question 4. A customer has a VA7110 with a 1024 MB cache and requests an upgrade to the maximum capacity. What must be ordered? A. 1 x A6187B 1024 MB cache for VA processor B. 2 x A6187B 1024 MB cache for VA processor C. 2 x A6186A 512 MB cache for VA processor D. 4 x A6186A 512 MB cache for VA processor Answer: B Question 5. Which components are integrated into the Command View SDM management framework? Select TWO. A. Secure Manager B. AutoPath C. Business Copy D. Virtual Front Panel E. Zoning Answer: A, C Question 6. What is the total raw capacity that can be fitted into a 42U rack that has two fully populated VA7410s? A. 10 TB B. 20 TB C. 30 TB D. 40 TB Answer: C Question 7. A customer wants to upgrade a VA7100 to be 2 Gb/s capable. Which accessories must be ordered? Select TWO. A. 2 x A6218A 7410 VA processor B. single mode Fibre Channel cables C. 2 x A6183AE VA enclosure D. 2 x A6187A 1024 MB cache (single DIMM) E. longwave GBIC modules Answer: A, D Question 8. With HP18 installed and AutoRAID enabled, which RAID level is primarily used for frequentlywritten data? A. RAID 1+0 B. RAID 5 DP C. RAID 1+0 and RAID 5 DP D. RAID 1+0 and VRAID Answer: A Question 9. Which disk capacity is NOT supported on the VA7100 and VA7400? A. 18 GB B. 36 GB C. 73 GB D. 146 GB Answer: D Question 10. Auto Include and AutoFormat are enabled. Rebuild is disabled. What happens when you move a disk from Redundancy Group 1 to Redundancy Group 2? A. Nothing. B. The disk remains in Redundancy Group 1 and data can still be accessed. C. You must first enable this by using the VFP command -g1 -g2 -on. D. You must first enable this by using the VFP command cfg -g1 -g2 -on. Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which configuration requires two power zones to be enabled on the power enclosure management modules?
A. any configuration that mixes a single phase and three-phase power
B. full 42U rack with four 3U power enclosures connected by mini bus bars
C. full 42U rack with four 3U power enclosures connected by scalable bus bars
D. any configuration that has two or more 3U power enclosures connected to the facility DC
power
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the recommended environment for using high-voltage modular power distribution units (PDUs)?
A. when using 1U power enclosures
B. when using 3U, single-phase power enclosures
C. when using 3U, three-phase power enclosures and redundant power
D. when using 3U, three-phase power enclosures and non-enhanced server blade enclosures
Answer: A
Question 3.
You have an enhanced server blade enclosure connected to a single 3U power enclosure. Only side A of the server blade enclosure is connected to the power enclosure.
Which server blade enclosure bays receive DC power?
A. bays 1 through 8
B. bays 1 through 8, plus the interconnect bays
C. bays 1 through 4, plus the interconnect bays
D. bays 1 through 4, plus the interconnect bay on side A
E. bays 5 through 8, plus the interconnect bay on side A
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the recommended environment for using high-voltage PDUs?
A. when using single-phase power and 3U power enclosures
B. when using facility DC power with a fully-populated 42U rack
C. when using 3U power enclosures with the non-enhanced server blade enclosures
D. when using a large number of server blades that place a high load on the power bus
E. when using the enhanced server blade enclosure in a redundant power configuration
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which UPS supports the p-Class infrastructure and is 3U high?
A. HP R1500XR
B. HP R3000XR
C. HP R5500XR
D. HP R12000XR
Answer: C
Question 6.
When must the load-balancing cable be installed?
A. when one or more power enclosure pairs are installed in a rack
B. when an odd number of power enclosures are installed in a rack
C. when a three-phase power enclosure is connected to the original server blade enclosure
D. when one power enclosure provides redundant power to the original server blade enclosure
Answer: A
Question 7.
What is the maximum combination of power and enhanced server blade enclosures that can be connected to a mini bus bar?
A. 1 power and 2 server blade enclosures
B. 1 power and 3 server blade enclosures
C. 2 power and 2 server blade enclosures
D. 2 power and 3 server blade enclosures
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which power distribution option requires the dual power input kit for power redundancy?
A. mini bus bar
B. power bus box
C. scalable bus bar
D. facility DC power
Answer: A
Question 9.
What is the default administrator account username and password for the Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch?
A. admin/admin
B. admin/password
C. administrator/
D. administrator/password
Answer: B
Question 10.
You are creating a VLAN on a GbE2 Interconnect Switch. This VLAN must include the crosslink ports.
Which ports must you include?
A. ports 1 and 2
B. ports 3 and 4
C. ports 15 and 16
D. ports 17 and 18
Answer: D
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