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Question 1.
Which statement correctly described an agent?
A. A component that responds to requests for information and alerts the managements system if
it detects problems.
B. An object definition.
C. An element driver that contains a MIB.
D. A network component that is managed.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which systems management component enables a device to generate traps?
A. Element
B. Agent
C. MIB
D. Management protocol
Answer: B
Question 3.
How a media pool can be defined?
A. Media pool is a collection of media of the same age
B. Media pool is a logical collection of media that belong together
C. Media pool is a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
D. Media pool is a concept that enables faster backup and restore.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which software layer serves as an intermediary between desktop-resident management program and the manageable hardware and software desktop components?
A. SNMP
B. TCP/IP
C. HTTP
D. DMI
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which systems management component interprets, organizes, present, and manipulates system information?
A. Agent
B. Element
C. Management protocol
D. Management application
Answer: D
Question 6.
Insight Manager 7 is an example of which systems management component?
A. Managed element
B. Management protocol
C. Management agents
D. Management application
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which of the following are used in HP Systems Insight Manager to track activity and store your management domain information? Choose Two
A. An audit log
B. A database
C. A flat file
D All of the above
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
HP Systems Insight Manager logs tasks with the following information EXCEPT
A. Time Stamp
B. Username
C. Systems
D. Events
E. Tool result
F. Login ID
Answer: F
Question 11.
Which of the following database technology is shipped with HP Insight Manager?
A. Microsoft MSDE
B.Microsoft SQL Server 7
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
D. PostgreSQL
Answer: A
Question 12.
Which of the following client should be used to securely access Insight Manager from anywhere in the network other than CMS.
A. Through HTTP
B. Through SSH
C. Through Telnet
D. Through FTP
Answer: B
Question 13.
In HP Systems Insight Manager, the basic supported management protocols and applications are (Choose all that apply)
A. WBEM
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D.HTTPS
E. DMI
F. SNMP
Answer: A, B, D, E, F
Question 14.
What is the status of SNMP SetRequests in HP Systems Insight Manager?
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It is disabled by default
C. It is not supported
D. It is fully supported and is enabled by default.
Answer: B.
Question 15.
HP Systems Insight Manager uses Which of the following web server on the CMS.
A. IIS
B. Apache
C. Tomcat
All of the above
Answer: C
Question 16.
WBEM uses HTTPS over which of the following port number?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 2381
D. 5989
Answer: D
Question 17.
Web agents use HTTPS over which of the following port number?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 2381
D. 5989
Answer: C
Question 18.
DTF uses SSH-2 over which of the following port number?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 2381
D. 5989
Answer: A
Question 19.
What is the first step in troubleshooting a Compaq server?
A. Run an Inspect report.
B. Ensure personal and data safety.
C. Run diagnostics
D. Reseat all system modules.
Answer: B
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Question 1. When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a who is lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records? A. Title 18, Section 1030 B. Title 18, Section 2703(d) C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90 D. Title 18, Section 2703(f) Answer: D Question 2. If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer? A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking. D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack Answer: C Question 3. In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court? A. rules of evidence B. law of probability C. chain of custody D. policy of separation Answer: C Question 4. How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file? A. 128 B. 64 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: C Question 5. To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS** A. number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector B. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector C. number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector D. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: Question 6. You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is 1709 on the primary hard drive. Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors? A. 0:1000, 150 B. 0:1709, 150 C. 1:1709, 150 D. 0:1709-1858 Answer: B Question 7. A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772 =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........ =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............ 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ............... 3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.^.....localhost =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= + 03/15-20:21:36.539731 211.185.125.124:4450 -> 172.16.1.108:39168 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:31660 IpLen:20 DgmLen:71 DF ***AP*** Seq: 0x9C6D2BFF Ack: 0x59606333 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23679878 2880015 63 64 20 2F 3B 20 75 6E 61 6D 65 20 2D 61 3B 20 cd /; uname -a; 69 64 3B id; A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773 D. The attacker has installed a backdoor Answer: A Question 8. The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on: A. OS/2 B. BSD Unix C. Linux D. Microsoft Windows Answer: B Question 9. Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first? A. engage in damage control B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury D. qualify you as an expert witness Answer: D Question 10. You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network? A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file Answer: C
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Question 1.
You need to propose the most cost-effective licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do? (Choose TWO.)
A. Propose that the company obtain user client access licenses (CALs).
B. Propose that the company obtain device client access licenses (CALs).
C. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per User mode.
D. Propose that the company obtain Windows Server 2003 licensed in Per Server mode.
Answer: B, D
Question 2
You need to propose the best licensing solution for Courseware Publishers.
What should you do?
A. Propose license acquisition through an Open Business agreement.
B. Propose license acquisition through an Open Volume agreement.
C. Propose license acquisition through a Select License agreement.
D. Propose license acquisition through an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel.
Answer: A
Question 3.
You are busy sorting out the licensing for the computers at Courseware Publishers. You need to determine which computers at Courseware Publishers are qualified desktops.
Which of the following would be qualified desktops?
A. All computers and mobile devices.
B. All computers that the company uses for work purposes and are able to run enterprise
products.
C. All computers that are bought by the company during the term of its licensing agreement.
D. All computers that are running a Microsoft Windows operating system.
E. Not the computers that are running as a server, computers running line-of-business software
only, and systems running an embedded operating system.
Answer: B, E
Question 4.
The owner of Courseware Publishers wants to know which license agreement offers downgrade rights in case the company wants to downgrade CP-SR01.
What would you reply?
A. All agreements on Select License agreements, Open License agreements and Software
Assurance agreements.
B. Only Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses.
C. Small Business Server Client Access Licenses and Open License agreements.
D. User client access licenses, Open License agreements and Software Assurance agreements.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The Courseware Publishers CEO wants to know what the main factors are that would require the company to change its licensing acquisition process.
What would you reply?
A. Budget considerations and licensing management concerns.
B. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003.
C. The need to hire two additional full-time employees and licensing management concerns.
D. The upgrading to Windows Server 2003 and Access 2003 and the desktops to Office 2003
Professional.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Should Courseware Publishers acquire license through an Open Business agreement that includes Software Assurance, how much time will the company have to renew only the Software Assurance agreement once the Open Business agreement expires.
A. 10 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
B. 60 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
C. 90 days after the Open Business agreement expires.
D. 2 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
E. 6 months after the Open Business agreement expires.
Answer: C
Topic 2, City Central, Inc., Scenario
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has a customer named City Central, Inc.
Company Background
City Central, Inc is a 10 year old company provides personnel placement for small businesses. The company currently has 50 employees that are spread across four departments named Sales, Marketing, Recruitment and Finance. The company is currently experiencing an annual growth rate of 10% and expects this to continue over the next five years. Due to the expected growth of the company, City Central, Inc has hired an IT administrator named Clive Wilson. Clive Wilson will evaluate the current network environment and will develop a plan to support the company's expected growth.
Existing Network
The City Central, Inc network contains three Microsoft Windows NT Server 4.0 server computers named CC-SR01, CC-SR02 and CC-SR03 and 60 client computers. CC-SR03 is configured as a Mail server that runs Microsoft Exchange Server. Hardware and software for the client computers have been added as required by each department with no centralized control. The client computer distribution is as follows:
* The Recruitment department has 20 Windows XP Professional client computers that run Microsoft Office XP Professional. These client computers were purchased a year ago.
* The Sales department has 15 Windows 98 client computers that run Microsoft Office 97.
* The Marketing department has 21 Windows 98 client computers that do not meet the minimum requirements for Windows XP Professional or Microsoft Office 2003 Professional.
* The Finance department has 4 Windows 98 client computers that run third-party finance application. The third-party finance application cannot run on Windows 2000 Professional or Windows XP Professional.
Current Licensing Solution
Clive Wilson cannot identify the ownership of the software that is in use as the purchase records for the current software are incomplete.
Business Goals
City Central, Inc wants greater control over IT costs but also wants to stay up to date with the latest software.
The company wants to replace CC-SR01, CC-SR02 and CC-SR03 with one server named CC-SR04. CC-SR04 will run Microsoft Small Business Server 2003. The company also wants to standardize the client computers, except those in the Finance department, to Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional.
Topic 2, City Central, Inc (8 Questions)
Question 7.
You need to propose a licensing solution for City Central, Inc.
Which of the following issues would you need to resolve before you can propose a license solution?
A. Are there any remote or mobile users?
B. How much does the company want to spend?
C. What version of Exchange Server is currently in use?
D. For which products does the company have a Software Assurance agreement?
E. What third-part software is the company using?
Answer: A
Question 8.
You want to implement a license agreement that would allow City Central, Inc to standardize the client computers without activating them.
What should you do?
A. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance for the Windows XP Professional and Office 2003
Professional.
B. Obtain licenses and acquire a Software Assurance agreement from an Original Equipment
Manufacturer (OEM).
C. Obtain a Software Assurance agreement for the client computers.
D. Obtain a Services Provider Licensing Agreement (SPLA) to run Windows XP Professional and
Office 2003 Professional.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Should Clive Wilson replace the client computers in the Marketing department with new client computers from an Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) channel with Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional preinstalled, what would be the most suitable licensing solution for all client computers at City Central, Inc?
A. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for the Windows XP Professional
upgrade and Office 2003 Professional for the client computers in the Recruitment and the
Sales departments.
B. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for Office 2003 Professional for the
Marketing department's new client computers.
C. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance agreements for the Windows XP Professional and
Office 2003 Professional upgrade for the client computers in the Sales department.
D. Obtain Software Assurance agreements only for the Marketing department's new client
computers.
E. Obtain Software Assurance agreements only for the client computers in the Recruitment
department.
Answer: A, D
Question 10.
Which of the following server solutions would you recommend at the end of three years?
A. Obtain another server running the latest version of Small Business Server.
B. Obtain a suitable Transition Pack and Transition Client Access Licenses (CALs).
C. Obtain additional Small Business Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
D. Obtain a new Small Business Server license and appropriate client access licenses (CALs).
Answer: B
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Question 1.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department and a Marketing department. The Sales department has 500 Windows XP Professional client computers while the Marketing department has 200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. The licenses for the client computers in the Sales department have Software Assurance and were obtained under a Select License agreement. ITCertKeys.com wants to standardize all client computers on the latest version of Windows. However, the Marketing department uses an in-house accounting application that is not compatible with Windows XP Professional.
What should you suggest is a cost-effective license solution for the Marketing department?
A. Use ITCertKeys.com's Select License agreement and obtain a Virtual PC 2004 licenses.
B. Acquire licenses and Software Assurance for Windows 2000 Professional in Sales department.
C. Acquire only Software Assurance for the Sales department, which are licensed for Windows
XP Professional.
D. Use the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) Royalty Licensing Program for the custom
software solutions and obtain a Services Provider Licensing Agreement (SPLA) for Windows
2000 Professional.
Answer: A
Question 2.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com consists of two department named Research and Finance. ITCertKeys.com has hired a new technician named Mia Hamm. Mia Hamm wants to know which offers downgrade rights.
A. All agreements on Select License, Open License and also Software Assurance.
B. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses.
C. Small Business Server Client Access Licenses.
D. User client access licenses
Answer: A
Question 3.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Rory Allen as contact you. Their company named AB Motors Software Assurance is expiring today. Currently AB Motors has and an Enterprise 5.x Agreement, a Select 5.x License agreement with Software Assurance. Rory Allen wants to know the time-window in which to renew the Software Assurance.
What should you tell him?
A. 1 month and 30 days.
B. 2 month.
C. 90 days.
D. 1 month.
Answer: C
Question 4.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Andy Booth as contact you. You need to calculate the cost per year of Software Assurance for Systems, Applications, and Servers licenses.
What should you do?
A. Calculate 29% of the Systems license price and Applications license price, and 25% of the
Servers license price.
B. Calculate 14% of the Systems license price, Applications license price, and of the Servers
license price.
C. Calculate 20% of the Systems license price, 25% of the Applications license price, and 30% of
the Servers license price.
D. Calculate 10% of the Systems license price, 12% of the Applications license price, and 12% of
the Servers license price.
Answer: A
Question 5.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com wants to replace the client computers and standardize it to run Microsoft Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office Professional 2003 without activating the client computers.
Which of the following is the best licensing solution?
A. Obtain licenses and Software Assurance for the Windows XP Professional upgrade and Office
2003 Professional.
B. Use Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) to obtain licenses and add Software Assurance.
C. Obtain only Software Assurance for the client computers.
D. Obtain a Services Provider Licensing Agreement (SPLA) to run Windows XP Professional
upgrade and Office 2003 Professional.
Answer: B
Question 6.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Dean Austin as contact you. Dean Austin wants to know more about the Enterprise Agreement.
With regards to Enterprise Agreement, what is the least amount number of qualified desktops to qualify for it?
A. 25 desktops.
B. 50 desktops.
C. 100 desktops.
D. 250 desktops.
Answer: D
Question 7.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department. The laptop of ITCertKeys.com is used by the sales representatives that has Office XP Professional preinstalled and is running Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com is using a Select License agreement, which is in use for 24 months. A few weeks ago, ITCertKeys.com acquired 150 desktops with Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional OEM licenses. The CIO of ITCertKeys.com wants to know which are eligible to be enrolled in Software Assurance.
What should you tell him?
A. The laptop computers with the Select License agreement.
B. The Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional laptops.
C. The laptops and the new desktops.
D. The 150 desktops with Windows XP Professional and Office 2003 Professional OEM licenses.
Answer: D
Question 8.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Clive Wilson as contact you. Clive Wilson has acquired 50 new client computers that have Microsoft Windows XP Professional preinstalled. The licences of Clive Wilson's company needs to be enroll in Software Assurance.
What is the time limit to enroll these licenses in Software Assurance?
A. 2 months.
B. 1 month.
C. 90 days.
D. 3 months.
Answer: C
Question 9.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains 20,000 desktop computers that run Microsoft Office Professional 2003. ITCertKeys.com has quite a few branch offices in Columbia, Germany, Japan and USA. The ITCertKeys.com users need to adjust the user interface languages often. You need to assign an Enterprise Agreement.
Which of the following language licensing solution should you choose?
A. On the Enterprise Agreement enrolment you should use the All Languages option.
B. Choose the Listed Languages option on the Enterprise Agreement enrolment and the Cross
Language use rights.
C. Use the Cross Language use rights in the Enterprise Agreement and the All Languages option.
D. Use the Platform Independent use rights in the Enterprise Agreement and the All Languages
option.
Answer: A
Question 10.
You work as a Microsoft licensing specialist at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A year ago, ITCertKeys.com has signed a Select License agreement. Because of the abundance of the license acquisitions, ITCertKeys.com had qualified for Select Level B in the Server pool. Last week ITCertKeys.com only purchased only 780 points in the Server pool.
How will the licensing agreement be affected?
A. ITCertKeys.com need to assign a new enrollment under the name.
B. ITCertKeys.com will be re-leveled to Select Level A.
C. ITCertKeys.com needs to purchase software under its current agreement until the agreement
expires.
D. ITCertKeys.com must re-negotiate the Select License agreement and must forecast Select
Level A.
Answer: B
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Question 1. Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.) A. Assign applications to traffic classes. B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes. C. Exclude subnets from QoS management. D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits. Answer: A, D Question 2. Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly? (Choose three.) A. Monitor > Endpoints B. Acceleration > Endpoints C. Device Setup > Endpoints D. Compression > Endpoints E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration Answer: A, D, E Question 3. When defining an application for AppFlow acceleration, which two must be configured on the WX device? (Choose two.) A. Define application type. B. Enable AppFlow for the application. C. Enable monitoring for the application. D. Define source and destination IP addresses. Answer: A, B Question 4. What are three key prE.installation/configuration considerations when deploying a WX device? (Choose three.) A. cabling B. community topology C. requires a license key D. requires two IP addresses E. registration server designation Answer: A, B, E Question 5. Why is SNMPv2 used to monitor the WX platform? A. SNMPv1 is reaD.only on WX devices. B. SNMPv1 is not supported by WX devices. C. SNMPv2 supports both 32- and 64-bit counters. D. SNMPv2 does put and get commands to WX devices. Answer: C Question 6. Which three types of optimization does the WX 60 device perform when Exchange 2000 and Outlook 2000 are used in the network? (Choose three.) A. Fast Connection Setup B. TCP Acceleration (AFP) C. Network Sequence Caching D. AppFlow's MAPI acceleration E. Molecular Sequence Reduction Answer: B, D, E Question 7. Which three must be configured for the Packet Capture tool to collect all required data? (Choose three.) A. Enter the password. B. Modify the delete time to 3 hours. C. Set the interface to local, remote or both. D. Increase the snap length of the Packet Capture configuration. E. Set the Packet Capture size to greater than the actual data flow. Answer: A, C, E Question 8. Which Packet Flow Acceleration feature is most effective for short-lived TCP sessions? A. Active Flow Pipelining B. Fast Connection Setup C. TCP Acceleration (AFP) D. Forward Error Correction Answer: B Question 9. Which three methods can you use for route discovery on a WX platform? (Choose three.) A. Enable RIP. B. Enable OSPF. C. Periodically poll any router. D. Import routes from a TFTP server. Answer: A, B, D Question 10. What happens when you enable QoS bandwidth detection? (Choose two.) A. Circuit speed is reduced by 2% for overhead. B. WAN speed can be configured to the LAN speed. C. Bandwidth is adjusted based on minimum and maximum settings. D. WAN bandwidth is detected based on acknowledgement of metapackets. Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Question 2. Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration? A. behavior aggregate B. policer C. multifield D. forwarding policy Answer: C Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos/junos56/swconfig56-interfaces/html/cosoverview3. html http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos/junos56/swconfig56-interfaces/html/cosoverview4. html Question 3. Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt? A. run cli B. cli C. start cli D. edit Answer: B Explanation: Reference: just see example: root@195.184.192.231's password: --- JUNOS 9.5R4.3 built 2010-02-16 08:09:40 UTC root@rc2% cli root@rc2.au.glk> Question 4. When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed? A. snoop B. tcpdump C. monitor D. tail Answer: C Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos-es/junos-es93/junos-es-admin-guide/using-themonitor-traffic-command.html Question 5. What is the default import routing policy for OSPF? A. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet 3 routing table. B. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table C. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table D. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table. Answer: D Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos10.0/information-products/topic-collections/configguide-policy/policy-protocol-import-export-defaults.html#id-10113228 Question 6. Which three user authentication methods are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS B. CHAP C. local user database D. TACACS+ E. PAP Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos9.5/information-products/topic-collections/swconfigsystem-basics/authentication-order-authentication-methods-overview.html Question 7. What represents the binary equivalence of 207? A. 11001111 B. 11101011 C. 11010111 D. 11010101 Answer: A Question 8. What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded? A. root authentication B. default gateway C. hostname D. management services Answer: A Question 9. Which account is used to access a Junos device in factory-default configuration? A. root B. admin C. juniper D. user Answer: A Question 10. You need to control SSH. HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface. You have decided to use a firewall filter. How should you apply the firewall filter? A. as an outbound filter on interface fxp0 B. as an outbound filter on interface lo0 C. as an inbound filter on interface fxp0 D. as an inbound filter on interface lo0 Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which of the following represents the BEST process to accomplish resource planning?
A. Identifying the required resources in the project charter
B. Identifying the available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current phase of the
project.
C. Identifying the required resources and allocate them to all project activities.
D. Identifying the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all project
activities
E. None of the above
Answer: C
Question 2.
When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard deviation ___________?
A. Above the mean.
B. Below the mean.
C. Below the median.
D. Above the median.
Answer: A
Question 3.
What would be the cost performance index if
BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325?
Note: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP),
Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and
Budget Cost of Work Schedule (BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A
Question 5.
Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule?
Origin of Problem Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C
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Question 1. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation? A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs D. 4GB RAM Answer: B Question 2. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0? A. usr B. vmkcore C. scratch D. swap Answer: C Question 3. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result? A. / B. vmfs3 C. swap D. /boot Answer: C Question 4. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)? A. Download VMware vCenter Server 2 B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host's inventory D. Browse Datastores in this Host's inventory E. Download VMware Web Access Client Answer: A, B, D Question 5. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located? A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN D. On a local physical disk Answer: A Question 6. The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following? A. 800MB B. 1.6GB C. 544MB D. 600MB Answer: D Question 7. Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /? A. /tmp B. /home C. /var/log D. /usr Answer: D Question 8. Additional licensing is required once the number of cores per CPU reaches which of the following? A. 16 or more cores B. 12 or more cores C. 8 or more cores D. 6 or more cores Answer: C Question 9. What is the maximum number of cores that can be used with Standard licensing? A. 8 B. 16 C. 12 D. 6 Answer: D Question 10. Once vCenter 4.x has been installed, a License Server is required in which of the following instances? A. A License Server is always required B. To support ESXi 4.x Hosts C. To support ESX 3.5 Hosts D. A License Server is no longer required Answer: C
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Question 1.
A CallPilot customer site will be using Multimedia Messaging. The switch will need a specific kind of configuration for this messaging service.
What is the required configuration?
A. Regular DN
B. Phantom DN
C. Control DN (CDN)
D. ACD-DN dummy queue
Answer: C
Question 2.
With CallPilot RIs. 5.0, when upgrading to a new release of CallPilot, the number of reserved seats may now be reduced. You are performing an upgrade on a CallPilot RIs. 4.0 system with a keycode that authorizes 500 Fax messaging seats. Only 200 Fax messaging seats are currently in use.
Which is the minimum number of Fax messaging seats that can be authorized with a new RIs. 5.0 keycode?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 250
D. 500
Answer: B
Question 3.
You are preparing to install CallPilot RIs.5.0 for a customer. The customer wants to access the CallPilot system from the LAN and must provide some information for the installation.
What information must the customer provide?
A. DHCP server
B. a Cat-5 cable
C. an Ethernet switch
D. a static IP address and subnet mask
Answer: D
Question 4.
When installing CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option?
A. Client PC
B. CallPilot server
C. Administrator PC
D. Customer provided Web server
Answer: D
Question 5.
An administrator cannot login to CallPilot Manager from the login web page. You have confirmed that the administrator is entering their correct mailbox number and password and that their mailbox is not disabled.
What should you check?
A. that the user's PC is running Internet Information Server (IIS)
B. that the Server field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system
C. that the Location field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system
D. that the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) option is turned on because passwords can only be
passed over SSL
Answer: B
Question 6.
CallPilot desktop messaging has several CallPilot RIs.5.0 feature enhancements.
Which are two of these enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. ping on Startup
B. Global CallPilot Address Book
C. creating personal distribution lists
D. Deliver to Location in Microsoft Outlook
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
The CallPilot RIs. 5.0 has introduced the High Availability feature.
The High Availability feature is available on which CallPilot server platform?
A. 703t
B. 600r
C. 1005r
D. 1002rp
Answer: C
Question 8.
When installing CallPilot Reporter RIs. 5.0 on the standalone Web server, additional required software is also installed.
Which version of Crystal Reports is installed?
A. Crystal Reports 8
B. Crystal Reports X
C. Crystal Reports 8.5
D. Crystal Reports Xl
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which software is required before installing CallPilot Manager on a stand-alone Web server?
A. PC Anywhere
B. Sybase Database
C. Java Runtime Environment
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D
Question 10.
Your customer is upgrading to CallPilot RIs. 5.0. The current keycode authorizes 500 Speech Activated Messaging seats but the customer is currently only using 100 seats.
With the upgrade and a new CallPilot Rls. 5.0 keycode, what two options does the customer have for the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats? (Choose two.)
A. No options are available; the number of seats cannot be reduced.
B. Take no action and retain the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats.
C. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to
100 or more.
D. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to
any number as long as the feature is supported on at least 1 seat.
Answer: B, C
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Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following are TRUE about the activity diagram?
Exhibit:
A. Alerting management of a conflict and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
B. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
C. A CourseSection can be added to the CourseCatalog with just department approval.
D. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done in any order.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Which one of the following OOAD artifacts would be MOST useful in helping to plan the content of iterations in a project plan?
A. CRC cards.
B. Collaboration diagrams.
C. Use cases.
D. State diagrams.
Answer: C
Question 3.
An Interaction Diagram should be associated with:
A. a Use Case.
B. a State Transition Diagram.
C. an Activity Diagram.
D. a CRC card.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. A Course Section can be added to, deleted from and retrieved from a Course Schedule.
What is the BEST way to model the relationship between a Course Schedule and a Course Section?
Exhibit:
A. CourseSchedule is defined as a subclass of a Collection type and inherits the adding, deleting
and retrieving capabilities for CourseSections.
B. CourseSchedule delegates the management of CourseSections to Student.
C. CourseSchedule delegates the adding, deleting and retrieving of the CourseSections to a
collection it holds.
D. CourseSection has a number attribute by which it can identify the CourseSchedule to which it
belongs.
Answer: C
Question 5.
When considering OOAD artifacts and the resulting software, how far should one be able to trace specific user requirements?
A. Interaction diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Class diagrams
D. Public methods
E. Private methods
Answer: D
Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following is the BEST list of candidate interaction diagrams to directly or indirectly support the use case?
Exhibit:
A. Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, Cancel an order, View a
portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
B. Manage accounts, Handle deposits and withdrawals, Trade stocks, View a portfolio, Get a
quote, View a quote.
C. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a
stock, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
D. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit by wire, Receive a deposit by check,
Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Successful log on, Failed log on, Log off, View a
quote.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Refer to the exhibits to answer the question.
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the Event Planning class diagram? A Facility:
Exhibit:
Exhibit:
A. can get to a particular Seat by type of Seat.
B. may find a Seat when accessing by number.
C. may get multiple Seats back when accessing by price.
D. can access Seats by price or by Seat number.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
The following are the requirements for a Report-generation module in an application:
1. When new data is generated, the user-interface should be refreshed automatically to reflect the
latest values
2. Multiple view types are possible
Which of the following Model and View interactions BEST satisfies the above requirements?
A. Combine the view and model layers into a single entity so that the interactions are localized
and notifications are instantaneous.
B. Establish subscribe/notify mechanism between view and model, with the model updating the
view based upon the view type.
C. Establish a subscribe/notify mechanism between the view and model layers so that the views
get notified of the change.
D. Develop intelligence within the model so that it decides which views are to be refreshed based
on the view type.
Answer: C
Question 9.
The developer should be able to trace a class' public operations back to its:
A. public attributes.
B. associations.
C. states.
D. responsibilities.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Suppose there is a new requirement to keep track of which instructors teach what courses and sections as well as students' evaluations of the instructor. A new Instructor class has just been added.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling the information and processing requirements?
Exhibit:
A. Add an association class called TeachingAssignment between CourseSection and Instructor.
Add the new attributes and methods in TeachingAssignment.
B. Add the new attributes and methods in Instructor.
C. Add the new attributes and methods in CourseSection.
D. Add an association relationship between CourseSection and Instructor. Add some new
attributes and methods in CourseSection and some in Instructor.
Answer: A
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